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  • Linq - How to collect Anonymous Type as Result for a Function

    - by GibboK
    I use c# 4 asp.net and EF 4. I'm precompiling a query, the result should be a collection of Anonymous Type. At the moment I use this code. public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, dynamic> ( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary } ) .OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId)); I suspect the RETURN for the FUNCTION Dynamic does not work properly and I get this error Sequence contains more than one element enter code here. I suppose I need to return for my function a Collection of Anonymous Types... Do you have any idea how to do it? What I'm doing wrong? Please post a sample of code thanks! Update: public class ConcTypeContents { public string Title { get; set; } public string TitleUrl { get; set; } public int ContentId { get; set; } public string TypeContent { get; set; } public string Summary { get; set; } } public static readonly Func<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents> queryContentsList = CompiledQuery.Compile<CmsConnectionStringEntityDataModel, string, ConcTypeContents>( (ctx, TypeContent) => ctx.CmsContents.Where(c => c.TypeContent == TypeContent & c.IsPublished == true & c.IsDeleted == false) .Select(cnt => new ConcTypeContents { cnt.Title, cnt.TitleUrl, cnt.ContentId, cnt.TypeContent, cnt.Summary }).OrderByDescending(c => c.ContentId));

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  • committing to a branch that's not checked out

    - by intuited
    I'm using git to version my home directories on a couple different machines. I'd like for them to each use separate branches and both pull from a common branch. So most commits should be made to that common branch, unless something specific to that machine is being committed, in which case the commit should go to the checked out, machine-specific branch. Switching branches is clearly not a very good option in this case. It's mentioned in this post that what I want to do is impossible, but I found that answer to be rather blunt and to perhaps not take into account the possibility of using the plumbing commands. Unfortunately I don't have enough reputation to comment on that thread. I rather suspect that there is some way to do this and am hoping to save myself an hour or few of questing for the answer by just asking you good folk. So is it possible to commit to a different branch without checking that branch out first? Ideally I'd like to use the index in the same way that git commit normally does.

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  • problem with enable/disable button using javascript

    - by LiveEn
    Im am trying to add a check box that will enable/disable the edit button. Im retrieving a price list and displaying it inside a table. When i add the javascript into the php code it doesn't work. Below is my code <table border="1"> <tr> <td width="100">Fee % </td> <td width="100">Price</td> <td width="100">Total</td> <td width="102">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <?php $sql1="select * from pricelist"; $result1=mysql_query($sql1) or die(mysql_error()); while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result1)) { $id=$row['id']; $price=$row['h_price']; $a=0; print "<form id='form1' name='$a+' method='post' action=''>"; print "<td><input name='fees' value ='$fees' type='text' size='4' /></td>"; print "<td><input name='price' value ='$price' type='text' size='15' /></td>"; echo "<td><input type='checkbox' onclick='this.$a+.disabled = !this.checked;'><td>"; print"<td><input type='submit' name='$a+' value='Submit' disabled='disabled' /></td>"; print "</tr>"; print "</form>"; } ?> </table> Can someone please tell me what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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  • How can I remove relative path components but leave symlinks alone in Perl?

    - by jnylen
    I need to get Perl to remove relative path components from a Linux path. I've found a couple of functions that almost do what I want, but: File::Spec->rel2abs does too little. It does not resolve ".." into a directory properly. Cwd::realpath does too much. It resolves all symbolic links in the path, which I do not want. Perhaps the best way to illustrate how I want this function to behave is to post a bash log where FixPath is a hypothetical command that gives the desired output: '/tmp/test'$ mkdir -p a/b/c1 a/b/c2 '/tmp/test'$ cd a '/tmp/test/a'$ ln -s b link '/tmp/test/a'$ ls b link '/tmp/test/a'$ cd b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ ls c1 c2 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath . # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath .. # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath c1 # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../b # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../link/c1 # neither one works here ===> /tmp/test/a/link/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath missing # should work for nonexistent files ===> /tmp/test/a/b/missing

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  • Decompress a GZipped response from the server (Socket)

    - by Lith
    Umm, ok, after sending some data to the server, noting this particular part: "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate\r\n" I am getting the following response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.8 Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma: no-cache Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding 7aa ??U-?Rh?%?2?w??PM]??7?qZ?K?)???2?&??m???"q??/p9w?????x?[`tA!G???G?5z??????a>k????????Q ???N?? ('??f?,(??Y:5B???-?)?3x^0e:j?`,???**???F>G)?2????@???b??????A?k???Ar?n? But how do I decompress it? Note that I am using the Socket Class to do all the work. I know how to decompress it, but the problem here lies in the fact that I cannot separate the Packet from the GZipped data, psuedo-psuedocode (or whatever) on how I do it: Socket sends packet; Socket reads response from server, stores into a ByteArray; Create MemoryStream, use ByteArray; Create GZipStream, use Memorystream; now the problem occurs; I am getting the following Error: System.IO.InvalidDataException The magic number in GZip header is not correct. Make sure you are passing in a GZip stream. I hope the explanation is clear enough __.

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  • Project management and bundling dependencies

    - by Joshua
    I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

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  • How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Problem with HiddenFor helper

    - by Dmitry Borovsky
    Hello. Model: public sealed class Model { public string Value { get; set; } } Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(new Model { Value = "+" } ); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Model model) { model.Value += "1"; return View(model); } } View: <%using (Html.BeginForm()){%> <%: Model.Value %> <%: Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Value) %> <input type="submit" value="ok"/> <%}%> Every time I submitted form result is <form action="/" method="post">+1 <input id="Value" name="Value" type="hidden" value="+"> <input type="submit" value="ok"> </form> It means that HiddenFor helper doesn't use real value of Model.Value but uses passed to controller one. Is it bug in MVC framework? Does anyone know workaround?

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  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • How to properly use Object Contexts in Entity Framework using BackgroundWorker

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am developing using Entity Framework and WPF, and I am encountering some errors and I don't know why. When saving a record (using a BackgroundWorker), I set the entities change tracker to nothing (null), attach the record to a new disposable context, save it, detach, and dispose of the context. Saving a record fires and event in the MainViewModel of the program that the other ViewModels (including the one that is saving) need to refresh their entities to reflect changes. Private Sub _saveRecordWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles _saveRecordWorker.DoWork Using MyContext As New RVShippingEntities Dim MyShipment = CType(ShipmentRecord, IEntityWithChangeTracker) MyShipment.SetChangeTracker(Nothing) MyContext.Attach(MyShipment) MyContext.Detach(ShipmentRecord) End Using End Sub The Refresh background worker is similar, but it has a Do While block to keep it from interfering with the save worker (which doesn't appear to be working; hence the post). When I save (and it subsequently refreshes) I get the following error: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. I thought that with the DoWhile block, it would wait (and when i step through it does) until the save thread finished, and all would be good. But it would seem that something (either the main thread or the save thread) is still doing something that is interfering. Is there a better way of doing this? Am I doing it is a goofy kludgey fashion? Any help would be appreciated. (Apparently Firefox recognized kludgey as a word. Interesting)

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  • Five unique, random numbers from a subset

    - by tau
    I know similar questions come up a lot and there's probably no definitive answer, but I want to generate five unique random numbers from a subset of numbers that is potentially infinite (maybe 0-20, or 0-1,000,000). The only catch is that I don't want to have to run while loops or fill an array. My current method is to simply generate five random numbers from a subset minus the last five numbers. If any of the numbers match each other, then they go to their respective place at the end of the subset. So if the fourth number matches any other number, it will bet set to the 4th from the last number. Does anyone have a method that is "random enough" and doesn't involve costly loops or arrays? Please keep in mind this a curiosity, not some mission-critical problem. I would appreciate it if everyone didn't post "why are you having this problem?" answers. I am just looking for ideas. Thanks a lot!

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  • Adding defaults and indexes to a script/generate command in a Rails Template?

    - by charliepark
    I'm trying to set up a Rails Template that would allow for comprehensive set-up of a specific Rails app. Using Pratik Naik's overview (http://m.onkey.org/2008/12/4/rails-templates), I was able to set up a couple of scaffolds and models, with a line that looks something like this ... generate("scaffold", "post", "title:string", "body:string") I'm now trying to add in Delayed Jobs, which normally has a migration file that looks like this: create_table :delayed_jobs, :force => true do |table| table.integer :priority, :default => 0 # Allows some jobs to jump to the front of the queue table.integer :attempts, :default => 0 # Provides for retries, but still fail eventually. table.text :handler # YAML-encoded string of the object that will do work table.text :last_error # reason for last failure (See Note below) table.datetime :run_at # When to run. Could be Time.now for immediately, or sometime in the future. table.datetime :locked_at # Set when a client is working on this object table.datetime :failed_at # Set when all retries have failed (actually, by default, the record is deleted instead) table.string :locked_by # Who is working on this object (if locked) table.timestamps end So, what I'm trying to do with the Rails template, is to add in that :default = 0 into the master template file. I know that the rest of the template's command should look like this: generate("migration", "createDelayedJobs", "priority:integer", "attempts:integer", "handler:text", "last_error:text", "run_at:datetime", "locked_at:datetime", "failed_at:datetime", "locked_by:string") Where would I put (or, rather, what is the syntax to add) the :default values in that? And if I wanted to add an index, what's the best way to do that?

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Trouble creating calendar in Google API via Coldfusion

    - by KingErroneous
    I am trying to create a caledar using the Google API, and it just returns the list of calendars in my account, just like I sent a GET request. Here is my code: <cfxml variable="locals.xml"> <cfoutput> <entry xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:gd="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005" xmlns:gCal="http://schemas.google.com/gCal/2005"> <title type="text">#arguments.argTitle#</title> <summary type="text">#arguments.argSummary#</summary> <cfif len(arguments.argTimezone)><gCal:timezone value="#arguments.argTimezone#"></gCal:timezone></cfif> <gCal:hidden value="false"></gCal:hidden> <gCal:accesslevel value="owner" /> <gCal:color value="#arguments.argColor#"></gCal:color> <gd:where rel='' label='' valueString='Oakland'></gd:where> </entry> </cfoutput> </cfxml> <cfhttp url="#variables.baseURL#/default/owncalendars/full" method="post" redirect="false" multiparttype="related" charset="utf-8"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Authorization" value="GoogleLogin auth=#getAuth(variables.serviceName)#"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Content-Type" value="application/atom+xml"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="GData-Version" value="2"> <cfhttpparam type="body" value="#trim(locals.xml)#"> </cfhttp> Any help would be appreciated.

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  • scroll bar problems in java Layered Panes

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I've been trying to build this small java app. I find it very difficult to design UI in java, tasks that seem very simple become complicated and all these strange misbehaviors occur. In my app I've created a JLayeredPane which contains two layers. One on top on the other, They both contain scrollbars. Here's an explanation of the two layers: Layer 1: A very big image inside something similar to a scrollpane. The image is scrollable. Layer 2: A graphics2d object, this object draws an image. Once the image reaches a certain length, the layer gets a scrollpane that advances with the drawing with time. I'd like to connect both layers. I want layer two to update the scrollbar on layer 1. Meaning that once it reaches a certain length, both scrollbars will advance together. When I try doing that, the two scroll bars really do advance, but ( ! ) this strange flickering occurs. I don't understand what is the reason for the flickering. Is there any other way to implement this in a simple manner? I must have the second layer on top of the first one (drawing on top of image) since I cannot open a special post for thanking the wonderful people of this forum, I'll do it here. Thank you, you are great help. I hope this problem is solvable as well.

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • Unit testing a Grails custom taglib based on built-in Grails taglib

    - by dipess
    I've an app based on Grails 1.3.7. And I need to write a unit test for a custom taglib that is based on the built-in taglib, <g:select /> to be specific. I checked out the solution on this previous SO post but the solution stated is not working in my case (some properties are not being prooperly mocked up). The other solution that I found was this. Using this approach, I get most of the properties of FormTagLib mocked up except for the grailsApplication property that select requires. The actual error that I get is Cannot invoke method getArtefact() on null object. How can I properly write the unit test in such a case? Edit Here are my test class and the full stacktrace. Line #45 on the stacktrace is the call to the g.select from my custom taglib. My custom taglib is something like def clientSpecificQueues = {attrs-> def queueList = taskService.getClientSpecificQueues(session.clientName) def queueLabel = "Some String" if (queueList.size() > 0){ out << queueLabel else out << g.select(name:'queueId', from: queueList, optionKey: 'id', optionValue: 'name') }

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  • PHP - upload.class image and $_FILES

    - by Ockonal
    Hello, I'm using class.upload.php to upload pictures onto the server. Here is my form: <form action="<?="http://".$_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'].$_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'];?>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <table style="width: 100%; padding-top: 20px;"> <tr> <td>Image file:</td> <td><input type="file" name="image_file" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td align="right"><input type="submit" name="add_new" value="Add image" /><td></td> </tr> </table> </form> In php code I do: if( array_key_exists('add_new', $_POST) ) { echo 'add new is in array'; echo '<pre>'; print_r($_POST); print_r($_FILES); echo '</pre>'; $handle = new Upload($_FILES['image_file']); ... } Here is an output of print_r: Array ( [image_file] => somefile.png [add_new] => Add image ) Array ( ) As you can see second array is empty ($_FILES), so image doesn't upload. Why? operating system : Linux PHP version : 5.2.12 GD version : 2.0.34 supported image types : png jpg gif bmp open_basedir : /home/httpd/vhosts/kz-gbi.ru/httpdocs:/tmp

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  • Two Problems I'm having with UIButton and UIView.

    - by Andy
    Hi all, I haven't been programming on the iPhone for very long, but I'm picking it up slowly by googling problems I get. Unfortunately I haven't been able to find an answer for these. I have started a new View-based application in Xcode 3.2.2 and immediately added the following files: myUIView.m and myUIView.h, which are subclasses of UIView. In Interface Builder, I set the subclass of the default UIView to be myUIView. I made a button in the drawRect method. Problem one: The title of the button only appears AFTER I click the screen, why? Problem two: I want the button to produce the modalview - is this possible? The code is as follow: #import "myUIView.h" @implementation myUIView - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; button.frame = CGRectMake(0,0,100,100); [button setTitle:@"butty" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [self addSubview:button]; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id)sender{ NSLog(@"Button pressed"); //present modal view somehow..? } I can't see how to post attachments, but if anyone thinks it will help I can upload the source. Many thanks, Andy

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  • How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

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  • How to remove the upper right close button

    - by tahdhaze09
    I need to kill the close 'x' button at the top of a jQuery UI modal dialog box. I have a modal that opens with an OK button that redirects to the site. The site behind the modal is in an iframe. When the user agrees to the statement in the dialog box and clicks the 'OK' button, it redirects to the site that is outside the iframe. If the user clicks on the 'x', it goes to the iframe site, which I do not want to have happen. I need the modal to work as a one-way to the site it goes to. It basically forces the user to accept the user agreement. I would post code, but its an intranet site. Thanks everyone for your help! EDIT: This site is a government intranet portal, not a commercial site. So the goal is NOT to trap a user into the site, but rather to let the user know that the use of this site is restricted and to make sure you understand and accept the user agreement or you cannot use the site.

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