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  • jquery events on input submit fields

    - by dfilkovi
    I have a problem with jquery submit button onclick and default event. What I want to do is replace an click event on submit button if it has one, and get an dialog box to show up, on clicking yes the dialog should start that default onclick event if submit button has one defined, if it hasn't than the default event should happen (button submits form), .submit() function does not work for me in any case cause I need to send this button also through a form and if button wasn't clicked .submit() sends form data without submit data. Bellow code has a problem, alert('xxx') is always called and it shouldn't, and on clicking yes button alert and dialog creation is called again, also if I remove alert button, I cannot call default submit button event (form submitting with a button). $('input.confirm').each(function() { var input = this; var dialog = document.createElement("div"); $(dialog).html('<p>AREYOUSHURE</p>'); $(input).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var buttons = {}; buttons['NO'] = function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }; buttons['YES'] = function() { $(input).trigger('click'); $(this).dialog("close"); }; $(dialog).dialog( { autoOpen: false, width: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: buttons }); $(dialog).dialog('open'); return false; }); }); <form method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" value="1" name="eventId" /> <input type="submit" value="Check" name="checkEvent" class="confirm" onclick="alert('xxx');" /> </form>

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  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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  • Java plugin framework choice

    - by Marcus
    We're trying to determine how to implement a simple plugin framework for a service we are implementing that allows different types of calculators to be "plugged-in". After reading a number of posts about Java plugin frameworks, it seems like the most common options are: OSGI "Rolling your own" plugin framework The Java Plugin Framework (JPF) The Java Simple Plugin Framework (JSPF) OSGI seems to be more than we need. "Rolling your own" is ok but it would be nice to reuse a common library. So we're down to the JPF and JSPF. JPF seems to not be in active development right now. JSPF seems very simple and really all we need. However I haven't heard much about it. I've only seen one post on StackOverflow about it. Does anyone else have any experience with JSPF? Or any other comments on this design choice? Update: There isn't necessarily a correct answer to this.. however we're going to go with Pavol's idea as we need just a really, really simple solution. Thanks EoH for the nice guide.

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Most efficient way to bind a Listbox with SelectionMode=Multiple

    - by Draak
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET webform that has a listbox (lbxRegions) with multi-select option enabled. In my db, I have a table with an xml field that holds a list of regions. I need to populate the listbox with all available regions and then "check off" the list items that match the regions in the db table. The list options also need to be ordered by region name. So, I wrote the following code that works just fine -- no problems. But I was wondering if anyone can think of a better (more succinct, more efficient) way to have done the same thing. Thanks in advance. Dim allRegions = XElement.Load(Server.MapPath(Request.ApplicationPath) & "\Regions.xml").<country>.<regions>.<region> Dim selectedRegions = (From ev In dc.Events Where ev.EventId = 2951).Single.CEURegions.<country>.<regions>.<region> Dim unselectedRegions = allRegions.Except(selectedRegions) Dim selectedItems = From x In selectedRegions Select New ListItem() _ With {.Value = x.@code, .Text = x.Value, .Selected = True} Dim unselectedItems = From x In unselectedRegions Select New ListItem() _ With {.Value = x.@code, .Text = x.Value} Dim allItems = selectedItems.Union(unselectedItems).OrderBy(Function(x) x.Text) lbxRegions.Items.AddRange(allItems.ToArray()) P.S. You can post code in C# if you like.

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  • Five unique, random numbers from a subset

    - by tau
    I know similar questions come up a lot and there's probably no definitive answer, but I want to generate five unique random numbers from a subset of numbers that is potentially infinite (maybe 0-20, or 0-1,000,000). The only catch is that I don't want to have to run while loops or fill an array. My current method is to simply generate five random numbers from a subset minus the last five numbers. If any of the numbers match each other, then they go to their respective place at the end of the subset. So if the fourth number matches any other number, it will bet set to the 4th from the last number. Does anyone have a method that is "random enough" and doesn't involve costly loops or arrays? Please keep in mind this a curiosity, not some mission-critical problem. I would appreciate it if everyone didn't post "why are you having this problem?" answers. I am just looking for ideas. Thanks a lot!

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  • WordPress: Using a Where Clause With A Custom Field

    - by Steve Wilkison
    I have a bunch of events that are listed on a particular page. Each event is a post. I need them to display in the order in which they occur, NOT the order of the posting date. So, I've created a custom field called TheDate and enter in the date in this format for each one: 20110306. Then, I wrote my query like this: query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); Works perfectly and displays the events in the correct order. However, I also want it to ONLY display dates from today onward. I don't want it to display dates which have passed. It seems the way to do this is with a "filter." I tried this, but it doesn't work. $todaysdate = date('Ymd'); query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); function filter_where( $where = '' ) { $where .= "meta_value_num >= $todaysdate"; return $where; } add_filter( 'posts_where', 'filter_where' ); I figure it's just a matter of where I'm using this filter, I probably have it in the wrong place. Or maybe the filter itself is bad. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • get_post_meta return empty string

    - by Jean-philippe Emond
    I guest it is a little issues but I running a SQL to get some post id. $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.post_id FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); (count: 302) After that, I get all id and I run get_post_meta like that: foreach($result as $id){ $activity = get_post_meta($id); var_dump($activity); foreach($activity as $key=>$value){ if(is_array($value) && $key=="age"){ var_dump($value); } } } (var_dump result: string "") samething if I run with: $activity = get_post_meta($id,'activity',true); Where we need to get a result. What is wrong? Thank you for your help!!! [Bonus Question] If the "activity" meta_key as an array Value. and I get directly like: $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.meta_value FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); How I parse it? Thanks again!

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  • Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

    - by Bill
    In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

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  • I am unable to upload file to my local host folder in php.

    - by Nauman khan
    Hi, I have the follwing code <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="upload.php" method="POST"> Please choose a file: <input name="uploaded" type="file" /><br /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> <?php $target = "upload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)) { echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploadedfile']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else { echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } ?> my page is in http://localhost/nausal/upload.php now I am having the follwing error though i have created a folder in site with name upload. Notice: Undefined index: uploaded in C:\wamp\www\Nausal\upload.php on line 15 Notice: Undefined index: uploaded in C:\wamp\www\Nausal\upload.php on line 17 Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file. Please help me I am very new to php. :(

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • Texture2D.Bounds.Intersect, but the Bounds never move? - XNA, .Net 4.0

    - by Gineer
    Hi all, I am still shiny new to XNA, so please forgive any stupid question and statements in this post (The added issue is that I am using Visual Studio 2010 with .Net 4.0 which also means very few examples exist out on the web - well, none that I could find easily): I have two 2D objects in a "game" that I am using to learn more about XNA. I need to figure out when these two objects intersect. I noticed that the Texture2D objects has a property named "Bounds" which in turn has a method named "Intersects" which takes a Rectangle (the other Texture2D.Bounds) as an argument. However when you run the code, the objects always intersect even if they are on separate sides of the screen. When I step into the code, I noticed that for the Texture2D Bounds I get 4 parameters back when you mouse over the Bounds and the X, and Y coordinates always read "X = 0, Y = 0" for both objects (hence they always intersect). The thing that confuses me is the fact that the Bounds property is on the Texture rather than on the Position (or Vector2) of the objects. I eventually created a little helper method that takes in the objects and there positions and then calculate whether they intersect, but I'm sure there must be a better way. any suggestions, pointers would be much appreciated. Gineer

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  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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  • Managed C++ or C# .NET, Downloading from rapidshare?

    - by cruisx
    I am trying to download a file from rapidshare via C++ .NET but I'm having a bit of trouble. The address used to be "https://ssl.rapidshare.com/cgi-bin/premiumzone.cgi" but that no longer works, does anyone know what the new one is? The code works but the file size is always 1KB, I don't think its connecting to the right server. private: void downloadFileAsync(String^ fileUrl) { String^ uriString; //fileUrl = "http://rapidshare.com/files/356458319/Keeping.Up.with.the.Kardashians.S04E10.Delivering.Baby.Mason.HDTV.XviD-MOMENTUM.rar"; uriString = "https://ssl.rapidshare.com/premzone.html";//"https://ssl.rapidshare.com"; NameValueCollection^ postvals = gcnew NameValueCollection(); postvals->Add("login", "bob"); postvals->Add("password", "12345"); // postvals->Add("uselandingpage", "1"); WebClient^ myWebClient = gcnew WebClient(); array<unsigned char>^ responseArray = gcnew array<unsigned char>(10024); responseArray = myWebClient->UploadValues(uriString, "POST", postvals); StreamReader^ strRdr = gcnew StreamReader(gcnew MemoryStream(responseArray)); String^ cookiestr = myWebClient->ResponseHeaders->Get("Set-Cookie"); myWebClient->Headers->Add("Cookie", cookiestr); //myWebClient->DownloadFileCompleted += gcnew AsyncCompletedEventHandler(myWebClient->DownloadFileCompleted); myWebClient-DownloadFileAsync(gcnew Uri(fileUrl),"C:\rapid\"+Path::GetFileName(fileUrl)); }

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

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  • Integration transport choice (Oracle + SQL Server)

    - by lak-b
    We have several systems with Oracle (A) and SQL Server (B) databases on backend. I have to consolidate data from those systems into the new SQL Server database. Something like that: (A) =>|---------------| | some software | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------| where some software is: transport (A and B systems located in the network) processing business logic (custom .NET code) Due to first point, I need some queue software or something similar (like MSMQ, Service Broker or something). In another hand, I can implement a web-service instead of queue. (A) =>|---------------|-------------| | queue/service | custom code | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------|-------------| The question is: which queue/transport framework should I use with Oracle and SQL Server databases? It would be nice, if I can post messages to MSMQ in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can call a web-service in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can use something similar in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (what exactly?) What software should I prefer to my requirements?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

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  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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  • Mysql random rows

    - by n00b
    please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

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