Search Results

Search found 20933 results on 838 pages for 'jeff post'.

Page 686/838 | < Previous Page | 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693  | Next Page >

  • Is there a Firebug console -vsdoc.js?

    - by David Murdoch
    If not, does anyone care to write one? I would do it myself...but I don't have time right now...maybe next week (unless someone beats me to it). If you are bored and want to compile the vsdoc: Here is the Firebug API. Here is a blog post about the format for VS doc comments for intellisense. Here is an example vsdoc (jquery-1.4.1-vsdoc.js). I created the following because I kept typing cosnole instead of console. You can use it as a starting point (ish). console = { /// <summary> /// 1: The javascript console /// </summary> /// <returns type="Object" /> }; console.log = function (object) { /// <summary> /// Write to the console's log /// </summary> /// <returns type="null" /> /// <param name="object" type="Object"> /// Write the object to the console's log /// </param> };

    Read the article

  • Declaration, allocation and assignment of an array of pointers to function pointers

    - by manneorama
    Hello Stack Overflow! This is my first post, so please be gentle. I've been playing around with C from time to time in the past. Now I've gotten to the point where I've started a real project (a 2D graphics engine using SDL, but that's irrelevant for the question), to be able to say that I have some real C experience. Yesterday, while working on the event system, I ran into a problem which I couldn't solve. There's this typedef, //the void parameter is really an SDL_Event*. //but that is irrelevant for this question. typedef void (*event_callback)(void); which specifies the signature of a function to be called on engine events. I want to be able to support multiple event_callbacks, so an array of these callbacks would be an idea, but do not want to limit the amount of callbacks, so I need some sort of dynamic allocation. This is where the problem arose. My first attempt went like this: //initial size of callback vector static const int initial_vecsize = 32; //our event callback vector static event_callback* vec = 0; //size static unsigned int vecsize = 0; void register_event_callback(event_callback func) { if (!vec) __engine_allocate_vec(vec); vec[vecsize++] = func; //error here! } static void __engine_allocate_vec(engine_callback* vec) { vec = (engine_callback*) malloc(sizeof(engine_callback*) * initial_vecsize); } First of all, I have omitted some error checking as well as the code that reallocates the callback vector when the number of callbacks exceed the vector size. However, when I run this code, the program crashes as described in the code. I'm guessing segmentation fault but I can't be sure since no output is given. I'm also guessing that the error comes from a somewhat flawed understanding on how to declare and allocate an array of pointers to function pointers. Please Stack Overflow, guide me.

    Read the article

  • Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

    - by ProfK
    I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

    Read the article

  • rspec and ruby 1.9.1: problem with dummy controller and routes

    - by giorgian
    I want to test a module that basically executes some verify statements, to ensure that actions are invoked with the correct method. # /lib/rest_verification.rb module RestVerification def self.included(base) # :nodoc: base.extend(ClassMethods) end module ClassMethods def verify_rest_actions verify :method => :post, :only => [:create], :redirect_to => { :action => :new } ... end end end I tried this: describe RestVerification do class FooController < ActionController::Base include RestVerification verify_rest_actions def new ; end def index ; end def create ; end def edit ; end def update ; end def destroy ; end end # controller_name 'foo' # this only works with ruby 1.8.7 : 1.9.1 says "uninitialized constant FooController" tests FooController # this works with both before(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :foo end end after(:each) do ActionController::Routing::Routes.reload! end it ':create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' do [:get, :put, :delete].each do |verb| send verb, :create response.should redirect_to(new_foo_url) end end ... end When testing: $ ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i486-linux] $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb Finished in 0.175586 seconds $ rvm use 1.9.1 Using ruby 1.9.1 p378 $ rake RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb (FAILED - 1) 1) 'RestVerification :create should redirect to :new if invoked with wrong verb' FAILED expected redirect to "http://test.host/foo/new", got redirect to "http://test.host/spec/rails/example/controller_example_group/subclass_1/foo/new" Is this a known issue? Is there a workaround?

    Read the article

  • What makes people think that NNs have more computational power than existing models?

    - by Bubba88
    I've read in Wikipedia that neural-network functions defined on a field of arbitrary real/rational numbers (along with algorithmic schemas, and the speculative `transrecursive' models) have more computational power than the computers we use today. Of course it was a page of russian wikipedia (ru.wikipedia.org) and that may be not properly proven, but that's not the only source of such.. rumors Now, the thing that I really do not understand is: How can a string-rewriting machine (NNs are exactly string-rewriting machines just as Turing machines are; only programming language is different) be more powerful than a universally capable U-machine? Yes, the descriptive instrument is really different, but the fact is that any function of such class can be (easily or not) turned to be a legal Turing-machine. Am I wrong? Do I miss something important? What is the cause of people saying that? I do know that the fenomenum of undecidability is widely accepted today (though not consistently proven according to what I've read), but I do not really see a smallest chance of NNs being able to solve that particular problem. Add-in: Not consistently proven according to what I've read - I meant that you might want to take a look at A. Zenkin's (russian mathematician) papers after mid-90-s where he persuasively postulates the wrongness of G. Cantor's concepts, including transfinite sets, uncountable sets, diagonalization method (method used in the proof of undecidability by Turing) and maybe others. Even Goedel's incompletness theorems were proven in right way in only 21-st century.. That's all just to plug Zenkin's work to the post cause I don't know how widespread that knowledge is in CS community so forgive me if that did look stupid. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

    Read the article

  • jQuery weirdness. Div becomes attached to chained element markup?

    - by Scott B
    I've got a div in my app that is displayed each time my theme options panel is "saved". The markup is... <form method="post"> <?php if ( $_REQUEST['saved']) { ?> <div id="message" class="updated fade"><p>Sweet! The settings were saved :)</p></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#message').delay(3000).fadeOut(3000);</script> <?php }?> This has the effect of showing the div (which is absolutely positioned to overlay the interface). I'm also using jQuery to fade the message offscreen after 3 seconds. This works fine, however, when I add a bit of script to my jQuery chain (see the commented out block below), the message div is only visible when the jPicker popup appears. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite ( { btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, speed: 700 } ); $('#carousel').show(); $('#myTheme').change ( function() { var myImage = $('#myTheme :selected').text(); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src','../wp-content/themes/myTheme/styles/'+myImage+'/screenshot.jpg'); } ); $('#carousel ul li').click ( function(e) { var myOption = $(this).children('img').attr('title'); $("#myTheme option[value='"+myOption+"']").attr('selected', 'selected'); $("#myTheme").css('backgroundColor', '#A9A9A9').animate({backgroundColor: "#ffffff"}, 'slow'); } ); $('#carousel ul li').hover ( function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>'); } ); /* $('#myTheme_sidebar_color').jPicker ( {}, function(color) { $(this).val(color.get_Hex()); }, function(color) { $(this).val(color.get_Hex()); } ); */ });

    Read the article

  • Perl: remove relative path components but leave symlinks alone?

    - by jnylen
    I need to get Perl to remove relative path components from a Linux path. I've found a couple of functions that almost do what I want, but: File::Spec->rel2abs does too little. It does not resolve ".." into a directory properly. Cwd::realpath does too much. It resolves all symbolic links in the path, which I do not want. Perhaps the best way to illustrate how I want this function to behave is to post a bash log where FixPath is a hypothetical command that gives the desired output: '/tmp/test'$ mkdir -p a/b/c1 a/b/c2 '/tmp/test'$ cd a '/tmp/test/a'$ ln -s b link '/tmp/test/a'$ ls b link '/tmp/test/a'$ cd b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ ls c1 c2 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath . # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath .. # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath c1 # rel2abs works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../b # realpath works here ===> /tmp/test/a/b '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath ../link/c1 # neither one works here ===> /tmp/test/a/link/c1 '/tmp/test/a/b'$ FixPath missing # should work for nonexistent files ===> /tmp/test/a/b/missing

    Read the article

  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

    Read the article

  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

    Read the article

  • How do I create an "iframe popup" when I hover over an <a> tag?

    - by Angela
    Here is the scenario: a User will see a list of company names, each wrapped in an tag. He is able to see dynamic information and as he hover over each name and then make a request. So Given a list of companies, each wrapped in an tag. When the cursor hovers over an tag Then a "pop-up" appears that contains an -based, dynamic content. Given the pop-up When the User clicks on the "submit" button in the pop-up Then the form (based on the framework" is submitted and ajax displays "request succesful" So, because I am using a php-framework, I'd like to use iframe to contain the form. Some challenges: When the cursor is no longer hovering over the tag, the hover disappears. How do I keep it operating? How do I make it appear in an so I can have full form-submission and POST-ing dynamic values through the URL? How do the "popup" disappear when the cursor is no longer on either the -tag or the pop-up itself? Can I do it without loading a bunch of 's onto the page, because the list of companies could be long.

    Read the article

  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

    Read the article

  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

    Read the article

  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

    - by Vishal Bharakhda
    I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to customize Bootstrap typeahead layout/function for more than just text?

    - by Loolooii
    I'm working on a search functionality for my website and I'm using Bootstrap's typeahead to show the results. So far so good. But what I want is to extend the function so that I could add an image and some other item, say description, etc. According to this post, that is possible: custom typeahead. Basically I need something like this as each result item: <div class="resultContainer"> <div class="resultImage"><img /></div> <div class="resultDesc"></div> <div class="resultLabel"></div> </div> Now it's: <li><a href="#"></a></li> And this doesn't even work with a longer text than the width of the typeahead. So the text doesn't go to the next line and hence doesn't fit the <li>. How can I use the the custom layout I want? (btw I have an array of arrays of results. Each sub-array contains img, desc, etc.). This is what I have right now: Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • My jQuery and PHP give different results on the same thing?

    - by Stefan
    Hey all, Annoying brain numbing problem. I have two functions to check the length of a string (primarily, the js one truncates as well) heres the one in Javascript: $('textarea#itemdescription').keyup(function() { var charLength = $(this).val().length; // Displays count $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#666'}); $('span#charCount').html(255 - charLength); if($(this).val().length >= 240){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); } // Alerts when 250 characters is reached if($(this).val().length >= 255){ $('span#charCount').css({'color':'#FF0000'}); $('span#charCount').html('<strong>0</strong>'); var text = $('textarea#itemdescription').val().substring(0,255) $('textarea#itemdescription').val(text); } }); And here is my PHP to double check: if(strlen($_POST["description"])>255){ echo "Description must be less than ".strlen($_POST["description"])." characters"; exit(); } I'm using jQuery Ajax to post the values from the textarea. However my php validation says the strlen() is longer than my js is essentially saying. So for example if i type a solid string and it says 0 or 3 chars left till 255. I then click save and the php gives me the length as being 261. Any ideas? Is it to do with special characters, bit sizes that js reads differently or misses out? Or is it to do with something else? Maybe its ill today!... :P Thanks, Stefan

    Read the article

  • Java-Eclipse-Spring 3.1 - the fastest way to get familiar with this set

    - by Leron
    I, know almost all of you at some point of your life as a programmer get to the point where you know (more or less) different technologies/languages/IDEs and a times come when you want to get things together and start using them once - more efficient and second - more closely to the real life situation where in fact just knowing Java, or some experience with Eclipse doesn't mean nothing, and what makes you a programmer worth something is the ability to work with the combination of 2 or more combinations. Having this in mind here is my question - what do you think is the optimal way of getting into Java+Eclipse+Spring3.1 world. I've read, and I've read a lot. I started writing real code but almost every step is discovering the wheel again and again, wondering how to do thing you know are some what trivial, but you've missed that one article where this topic was discussed and so on. I don't mind for paying for a good tutorial like for example, after a bit of research I decided that instead of losing a lot of time getting the different parts together I'd rather pay for the videos in http://knpuniversity.com/screencast/starting-in-symfony2-tutorial and save myself a lot of time (I hope) and get as fast as possible to writing a real code instead of wondering what do what and so on. But I find it much more difficult to find such sources of info especially when you want something more specific as me and that's the reason to ask this question. I know a lot of you go through the hard way, and I won't give up if I have to do the same, but to be honest I really hope to get post with good tutorials on the subject (paid or not) because in my situation time is literally money. Thanks Leron

    Read the article

  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

    Read the article

  • Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

    - by user242153
    Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What algorithms compute directions from point A to point B on a map?

    - by A. Rex
    How do map providers (such as Google or Yahoo! Maps) suggest directions? I mean, they probably have real-world data in some form, certainly including distances but also perhaps things like driving speeds, presence of sidewalks, train schedules, etc. But suppose the data were in a simpler format, say a very large directed graph with edge weights reflecting distances. I want to be able to quickly compute directions from one arbitrary point to another. Sometimes these points will be close together (within one city) while sometimes they will be far apart (cross-country). Graph algorithms like Dijkstra's algorithm will not work because the graph is enormous. Luckily, heuristic algorithms like A* will probably work. However, our data is very structured, and perhaps some kind of tiered approach might work? (For example, store precomputed directions between certain "key" points far apart, as well as some local directions. Then directions for two far-away points will involve local directions to a key points, global directions to another key point, and then local directions again.) What algorithms are actually used in practice? PS. This question was motivated by finding quirks in online mapping directions. Contrary to the triangle inequality, sometimes Google Maps thinks that X-Z takes longer and is farther than using an intermediate point as in X-Y-Z. But maybe their walking directions optimize for another parameter, too? PPS. Here's another violation of the triangle inequality that suggests (to me) that they use some kind of tiered approach: X-Z versus X-Y-Z. The former seems to use prominent Boulevard de Sebastopol even though it's slightly out of the way. (Edit: this example doesn't work anymore, but did at the time of the original post. The one above still works as of early November 2009.)

    Read the article

  • jQuery cycle floats on top of other content

    - by Angie Dubis
    I tried to replace my Flash video with a jQuery cycle. The cycle works, but the images will not stay in the editable region I placed them in. Instead they are floating on top of other content. Any ideas? This is happening on the home page of massageeducator.com There are 2 cycles on the page. “Slideshow1” and “slideshow2”. “slideshow1” works perfectly. The only thing I did differently was set up “slideshow2” as a library item since it will appear on every page, but added function code manually. I tried adding code and images via the template and had the same issue. I also tried adding both the function code and slideshow to each page instead of library item - same problem. I have both slide shows pointing to the same jquery.cycle.lite.1.0.js. Should I rename this .js file and have each cycle point to a different file? I am new to jQuery so any help is appreciated. I can't seem to post my code due to the spam filters in here!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693  | Next Page >