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  • Why oh why doesn't my asp.net treeview update?

    - by Brendan
    I'm using an ASP.net treeview on a page with a custom XmlDataSource. When the user clicks on a node of the tree, a detailsview pops up and edits a bunch of things about the underlying object. All this works properly, and the underlying object gets updated in my background object-management classes. Yay! However, my treeview just isn't updating the display. Either immediately (which i would like it to), or on full page re-load (which is the minimal useful level i need it to be at). Am i subclassing XmlDataSource poorly? I really don't know. Can anyone point me in a good direction? Thanks! The markup looks about like this (chaff removed): <data:DefinitionDataSource runat="server" ID="DefinitionTreeSource" RootDefinitionID="uri:1"></data:DefinitionDataSource> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView" runat="server" DataSourceID="DefinitionTreeSource"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="definition" TextField="name" ValueField="id" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="Id" DataSourceID="DefinitionSource" DefaultMode="Edit"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" HeaderStyle-Wrap="false" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:CommandField ShowCancelButton="False" ShowInsertButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" ButtonType="Button" /> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And the DefinitionTreeSource code looks like this: public class DefinitionDataSource : XmlDataSource { public string RootDefinitionID { get { if (ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] != null) return ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] as String; return null; } set { if (!Object.Equals(ViewState["RootDefinitionID"], value)) { ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] = value; DataBind(); } } } public DefinitionDataSource() { } public override void DataBind() { base.DataBind(); setData(); } private void setData() { String defXML = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" ?>"; Test.Management.TestManager.Definition root = Test.Management.TestManager.Definition.GetDefinitionById(RootDefinitionID); if (root != null) this.Data = defXML + root.ToXMLString(); else this.Data = defXML + "<definition id=\"null\" name=\"Set Root Node\" />"; } } }

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  • are C functions declared in <c____> headers guaranteed to be in the global namespace as well as std?

    - by Evan Teran
    So this is something that I've always wondered but was never quite sure about. So it is strictly a matter of curiosity, not a real problem. As far as I understand, what you do something like #include <cstdlib> everything (except macros of course) are declared in the std:: namespace. Every implementation that I've ever seen does this by doing something like the following: #include <stdlib.h> namespace std { using ::abort; // etc.... } Which of course has the effect of things being in both the global namespace and std. Is this behavior guaranteed? Or is it possible that an implementation could put these things in std but not in the global namespace? The only way I can think of to do that would be to have your libstdc++ implement every c function itself placing them in std directly instead of just including the existing libc headers (because there is no mechanism to remove something from a namespace). Which is of course a lot of effort with little to no benefit. The essence of my question is, is the following program strictly conforming and guaranteed to work? #include <cstdio> int main() { ::printf("hello world\n"); } EDIT: The closest I've found is this (17.4.1.2p4): Except as noted in clauses 18 through 27, the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C (Clause 7), or ISO/IEC:1990 Programming Languages—C AMENDMENT 1: C Integrity, (Clause 7), as appropriate, as if by inclusion. In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std. which to be honest I could interpret either way. "the contents of each header cname shall be the same as that of the corresponding header name.h, as specified in ISO/IEC 9899:1990 Programming Languages C" tells me that they may be required in the global namespace, but "In the C + + Standard Library, however, the declarations and definitions (except for names which are defined as macros in C) are within namespace scope (3.3.5) of the namespace std." says they are in std (but doesn't specify any other scoped they are in).

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  • template pass by const reference

    - by 7vies
    Hi, I've looked over a few similar questions, but I'm still confused. I'm trying to figure out how to explicitly (not by compiler optimization etc) and C++03-compatible avoid copying of an object when passing it to a template function. Here is my test code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct C { C() { cout << "C()" << endl; } C(const C&) { cout << "C(C)" << endl; } ~C() { cout << "~C()" << endl; } }; template<class T> void f(T) { cout << "f<T>" << endl; } template<> void f(C c) { cout << "f<C>" << endl; } // (1) template<> void f(const C& c) { cout << "f<C&>" << endl; } // (2) int main() { C c; f(c); return 0; } (1) accepts the object of type C, and makes a copy. Here is the output: C() C(C) f<C> ~C() ~C() So I've tried to specialize with a const C& parameter (2) to avoid this, but this simply doesn't work (apparently the reason is explained in this question). Well, I could "pass by pointer", but that's kind of ugly. So is there some trick that would allow to do that somehow nicely? EDIT: Oh, probably I wasn't clear. I already have a templated function template<class T> void f(T) {...} But now I want to specialize this function to accept a const& to another object: template<> void f(const SpecificObject&) {...} But it only gets called if I define it as template<> void f(SpecificObject) {...}

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  • representing an XML config file with an IXmlSerializable class

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm writing in C# and trying to represent an XML config file through an IXmlSerializable class. I'm unsure how to represent the nested elements in my config file, though, such as logLevel: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> <credentials> <user>user123</user> <host>localhost</host> <password>pass123</password> </credentials> <credentials> <user>user456</user> <host>my.other.domain.com</host> <password>pass456</password> </credentials> </configuration> There is an enum called LogLevel that represents all the possible values for the logLevel tag. The tags within credentials should all come out as strings. In my class, called DLLConfigFile, I had the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; However, this isn't going to work because <logLevel> isn't within the root node of the XML file, it's one node deeper in <logging>. How do I go about doing this? As for the <credentials> nodes, my guess is I will need a second class, say CredentialsSection, and have a property such as the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="credentials", DataType="CredentialsSection")] public CredentialsSection[] AllCredentials; Edit: okay, I tried Robert Love's suggestion and created a LoggingSection class. However, my test fails: var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DLLConfigFile)); using (var stream = new FileStream(_configPath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read)) { using (var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream)) { XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(streamReader); var file = (DLLConfigFile)xs.Deserialize(reader); Assert.IsNotNull(file); LoggingSection logging = file.Logging; Assert.IsNotNull(logging); // fails here LogLevel logLevel = logging.LogLevel; Assert.IsNotNull(logLevel); Assert.AreEqual(EXPECTED_LOG_LEVEL, logLevel); } } The config file I'm testing with definitely has <logging>. Here's what the classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlRoot("logging")] public class LoggingSection : IXmlSerializable { public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { LogLevel = (LogLevel)Enum.Parse(typeof(LogLevel), reader.ReadString()); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { writer.WriteString(Enum.GetName(typeof(LogLevel), LogLevel)); } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("configuration")] public class DLLConfigFile : IXmlSerializable { [XmlElement(ElementName="logging", DataType="LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging; }

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  • User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

    - by krismeld
    I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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  • How to perform gui operation in doInBackground method?

    - by jM2.me
    My application reads a user selected file which contains addresses and then displays on mapview when done geocoding. To avoid hanging app the importing and geocoding is done in AsyncTask. public class LoadOverlayAsync extends AsyncTask<Uri, Integer, StopsOverlay> { Context context; MapView mapView; Drawable drawable; public LoadOverlayAsync(Context con, MapView mv, Drawable dw) { context = con; mapView = mv; drawable = dw; } protected StopsOverlay doInBackground(Uri... uris) { StringBuilder text = new StringBuilder(); StopsOverlay stopsOverlay = new StopsOverlay(drawable, context); Geocoder geo = new Geocoder(context, Locale.US); try { File file = new File(new URI(uris[0].toString())); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(file)); String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { StopOverlay stopOverlay = null; String[] tempLine = line.split("~"); List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(tempLine[4] + " " + tempLine[5] + " " + tempLine[7] + " " + tempLine[8], 10); if (results.size() > 0) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "More than one yo", 1000); progressToast.show(); } else if (results.size() == 1) { Address addr = results.get(0); GeoPoint mPoint = new GeoPoint((int)(addr.getLatitude() * 1E6), (int)(addr.getLongitude() * 1E6)); stopOverlay = new StopOverlay(mPoint, tempLine); } if (stopOverlay != null) { stopsOverlay.addOverlay(stopOverlay); } //List<Address> results = geo.getFromLocationName(locationName, maxResults) } } catch (URISyntaxException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { showErrorToast(e.toString()); //e.printStackTrace(); } return stopsOverlay; } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer... progress) { Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Loaded " + progress.toString(), 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void onPostExecute(StopsOverlay so) { //mapView.getOverlays().add(so); Toast progressToast = Toast.makeText(context, "Done geocoding", 1000); progressToast.show(); } protected void showErrorToast(String msg) { Toast Newtoast = Toast.makeText(context, msg, 10000); Newtoast.show(); } } But if geocode fails, I want a dialog popup to let user edit the address. That would require calling on gui method while in doInBackground. What would be a good workaround this?

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  • Safely escaping and reading back a file path in ruby

    - by user336851
    I need to save a few informations about some files. Nothing too fancy so I thought I would go with a simple one line per item text file. Something like this : # write io.print "%i %s %s\n" % [File.mtime(fname), fname, Digest::SHA1.file(fname).hexdigest] # read io.each do |line| mtime, name, hash = line.scanf "%i %s %s" end Of course this doesn't work because a file name can contain spaces (breaking scanf) and line breaks (breaking IO#each). The line break problem can be avoided by dropping the use of each and going with a bunch of gets(' ') while not io.eof? mtime = Time.at(io.gets(" ").to_i) name = io.gets " " hash = io.gets "\n" end Dealing with spaces in the names is another matter. Now we need to do some escaping. note : I like space as a record delimiter but I'd have no issue changing it for one easier to use. In the case of filenames though, the only one that could help is ascii nul "\0" but a nul delimited file isn't really a text file anymore... I initially had a wall of text detailing the iterations of my struggle to make a correct escaping function and its reciprocal but it was just boring and not really useful. I'll just give you the final result: def write_name(io, val) io << val.gsub(/([\\ ])/, "\\\\\\1") # yes that' 6 backslashes ! end def read_name(io) name, continued = "", true while continued continued = false name += io.gets(' ').gsub(/\\(.)/) do |c| if c=="\\\\" "\\" elsif c=="\\ " continued=true " " else raise "unexpected backslash escape : %p (%s %i)" % [c, io.path, io.pos] end end end return name.chomp(' ') end I'm not happy at all with read_name. Way too long and akward, I feel it shouldn't be that hard. While trying to make this work I tried to come up with other ways : the bittorrent encoded / php serialize way : prefix the file name with the length of the name then just io.read(name_len.to_i). It works but it's a real pita to edit the file by hand. At this point we're halfway to a binary format. String#inspect : This one looks expressly made for that purpose ! Except it seems like the only way to get the value back is through eval. I hate the idea of eval-ing a string I didn't generate from trusted data. So. Opinions ? Isn't there some lib which can do all this ? Am I missing something obvious ? How would you do that ?

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  • web design PSD to html -> more direct ways?

    - by Assembler
    At work I see one colleague designing a site in Photoshop/Fireworks, I see another taking this data, slicing it up and using Dreamweaver to rebuild the same from scratch. It seems like too much mucking around! I know that Photoshop can output a tables based HTML, and Fireworks will create divs with absolute positioning; neither appear to be very helpful. Admittedly, I haven't tried much of (DW/FW) (CS4/CS3) since becoming a programmer, so I don't know if new versions are addressing this work flow issue, but are we still double handling things? Can we attach some sort of layout metadata (this is a rollover button, this will be a SWF, this will be text, this logo will hide "xyz" <h1> text etc) to slices to aid in layout generation? are there some secret tools which assist in this conversion process? Or are we still restricted to doing things by hand? The frustration continues when said hand built page needs to be reworked again to fit Smarty Templates/Wordpress/generic CMS. I acknowledge that designers need to be free of systems to be able to do whatever, but most conventional sites have: a header with navigation a sidebar with more links the main content part maybe another sidebar a footer Given the similarity of a lot of components, shouldn't there be a more systematic approach to going from sliced designs to functional HTML? Or am I over-simplifying things? -edit- Mmmmm.... I suppose I will accept an answer, but they weren't really what I was looking for. It just seems like designing the DOM is a bit of holy grail ("It's only a model!"), and maybe with all the "groovy" things you can do with HTML and Javascript, it would be mighty hard work, but with a set of constraints (that 960 stuff looks interesting), some well designed reset style sheets and a bit of... fairy dust? we should be able to improve the work flow. Photoshop's tables by themselves are pretty much useless, I agree, but surely we can take this data, and then select a group of cells and say "right, this is a text div, overflow:auto" or "these cells are an image block, style it with the same height/width as the selected area". Admittedly here at work there are other elephants in the room that need to make their formal introductions to management, but some parts of the designpage workflow seem... uneducated at best.

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  • Infinite Refresh Loop in Firefox 3.0

    - by Martin Gordon
    I'm having a strange issue with my Javascript in Firefox 3.0.x. In Firefox 3.0.12, the page constantly reloads as soon as the list body is loaded. Neither Firefox 3.5, Safari 4 nor Chrome 5 (all on Mac) experience this issue. EDIT: I've created an isolated example rather than pulling this from my existing code. test.js function welcomeIndexOnLoad() { $("#options a").live('click', function () { optionClicked($(this), "get_list_body.html"); return false; }); $(document).ready(function() { optionClicked(null, "get_list_body.html"); }); } function optionClicked(sender, URL) { queryString = ""; if (sender != null) { queryString = $(sender).attr("rel"); } $("#list_body").load(URL + "?" + queryString, function(resp, status, AJAXReq) { console.log(resp); console.log("" + status); location.hash = queryString; }); }? test.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="test.js"></script> <script> welcomeIndexOnLoad(); </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> Outside of list body. <div id="list_body"> </div> </div> </body> </html> get_list_body.html <h3> <div id="options"> <a href="#" rel="change_list">Change List</a> </div> <ul> <li>li</li> </ul> jQuery line 5252 (an xhr.send() call) shows up in the console as soon as the page reloads: xhr.send( type === "POST" || type === "PUT" || type === "DELETE" ? s.data : null );

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • Getting field of type bytea in helper table when using GenerationType.IDENTITY

    - by dtrunk
    I'm creating my db scheme using Hibernate. There's a Table called "tbl_articles" and another one called "tbl_categories". To have a n-n relationship a helper table ("tbl_articles_categories") is needed. Here are all necessary Entities: @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles" ) public class Article implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields... public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_categories" ) public class Category implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles_categories" ) @AssociationOverrides({ @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.article", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "article_id" ) ), @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.category", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "category_id" ) ) }) public class ArticleCategory { private ArticleCategoryPK pk = new ArticleCategoryPK(); public void setPk( ArticleCategoryPK pk ) { this.pk = pk; } @EmbeddedId public ArticleCategoryPK getPk() { return pk; } @Transient public Article getArticle() { return pk.getArticle(); } public void setArticle( Article article ) { pk.setArticle( article ); } @Transient public Category getCategory() { return pk.getCategory(); } public void setCategory( Category category ) { pk.setCategory( category ); } } @Embeddable public class ArticleCategoryPK implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_article_id" ) private Article article; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_category_id" ) private Category category; public ArticleCategoryPK( Article article, Category category ) { setArticle( article ); setCategory( category ); } public ArticleCategoryPK() { } public Article getArticle() { return article; } public void setArticle( Article article ) { this.article = article; } public Category getCategory() { return category; } public void setCategory( Category category ) { this.category = category; } } Now, I'm getting a serial type what I wanted in my articles table as well as in my categories table. But looking into my helper table, there aren't the expected fields article_id and category_id each of type integer - instead there are article and category of type bytea. What's wrong here? EDIT: Sorry, forgot to mention that I'm using PostgreSQL.

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  • Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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  • Sync services not actually syncing

    - by Paul Mrozowski
    I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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  • UIVIewController not released when view is dismissed

    - by Nelson Ko
    I have a main view, mainWindow, which presents a couple of buttons. Both buttons create a new UIViewController (mapViewController), but one will start a game and the other will resume it. Both buttons are linked via StoryBoard to the same View. They are segued to modal views as I'm not using the NavigationController. So in a typical game, if a person starts a game, but then goes back to the main menu, he triggers: [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil ]; to return to the main menu. I would assume the view controller is released at this point. The user resumes the game with the second button by opening another instance of mapViewController. What is happening, tho, is some touch events will trigger methods on the original instance (and write status updates to them - therefore invisible to the current view). When I put a breakpoint in the mapViewController code, I can see the instance will be one or the other (one of which should be released). I have tried putting a delegate to the mainWindow clearing the view: [self.delegate clearMapView]; where in the mainWindow - (void) clearMapView{ gameWindow = nil; } I have also tried self.view=nil; in the mapViewController. The mapViewController code contains MVC code, where the model is static. I wonder if this may prevent ARC from releasing the view. The model.m contains: static CanShieldModel *sharedInstance; + (CanShieldModel *) sharedModel { @synchronized(self) { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [[CanShieldModel alloc] init]; return sharedInstance; } return sharedInstance; } Another post which may have a lead, but so far not successful, is UIViewController not being released when popped I have in ViewDidLoad: // checks to see if app goes inactive - saves. [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resignActive) name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; with the corresponding in ViewDidUnload: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; Does anyone have any suggestions? EDIT: - (void) prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender{ NSString *identifier = segue.identifier; if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Start Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=-1; gameWindow.delegate = self; } else if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Resume Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=0; gameWindow.delegate = self;

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  • What the best approach to iterate and "store" files over a directory in C (Linux) ?

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    I have written a function that checks if to files are duplicates or not. This function signature is: int check_dup_memmap(char *f1_name, char *f2_name) It returns: (-1) - If something went wrong; (0) - If the two files are similar; (+1) - If the two files are different; The next step is to write a function that iterates through all the files in a certain directory,apply the previous function, and gives a report on every existing duplicates. Initially I've thought to write a function that generates a file with all the filenames in a certain directory and then, read that file again and gain and compare every two files. Here is that version of the function, that gets all the filenames in a certain directory. void *build_dir_tree(char *dirname, FILE *f) { DIR *cdir = NULL; struct dirent *ent = NULL; struct stat buf; if(f == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "NULL file submitted. [build_dir_tree].\n"); exit(-1); } if(dirname == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "NULL dirname submitted. [build_dir_tree].\n"); exit(-1); } if((cdir = opendir(dirname)) == NULL){ char emsg[MFILE_LEN]; sprintf(emsg, "Cannot open dir: %s [build_dir_tree]\t",dirname); perror(emsg); } chdir(dirname); while ((ent = readdir(cdir)) != NULL) { lstat(ent->d_name, &buf); if (S_ISDIR(buf.st_mode)) { if (strcmp(".", ent->d_name) == 0 || strcmp("..", ent->d_name) == 0) { continue; } build_dir_tree(ent->d_name, f); } else{ fprintf(f, "/%s/%s\n",util_get_cwd(),ent->d_name); } } chdir(".."); closedir(cdir); } Still I consider this approach a little inefficient, as I have to parse the file again and again. In your opinion what are other approaches should I follow: Write a datastructure and hold the files instead of writing them in the file ? I think for a directory with a lot of files, the memory will become very fragmented. Hold all the filenames in auto-expanding array, so that I can easy access every file by their index, because they will in a contiguous memory location. Map this file in memory using mmap() ? But mmap may fail, as the file gets to big. Any opinions on this. I want to choose the most efficient path, and access as few resources as possible. This is the requirement of the program... EDIT: Is there a way to get the numbers of files in a certain directory, without iterating through it ?

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  • Delegates does not work properly

    - by Warrior
    I am new to iPhone development. I am converting the date to the desired format and set it to the delegate and get its value in the another view. The session restarts when I tried to get the value from delegate. If I set the original date and not the formatted date in the set delegate, then i able to get the value in the another view. If I also give any static string value, then also I am able to the static string value back. Only the formatted date which is string is set then the session restarts. If i print and check the value of the formatted date it prints the correct formatted date only.Please help me out.Here is my code for date conversion NSString *dateval=[[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"date"]; NSDateFormatter *inputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [inputFormatter setDateFormat:@"EEE, MMM dd, yyyy"]; NSDate *inputDate = [inputFormatter dateFromString:dateval]; NSDateFormatter *outputFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [outputFormatter setDateFormat:@"MMMM dd"]; NSString *outputDate = [outputFormatter stringFromDate:inputDate]; AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; [delegate setCurrentDates:outputDate]; EDIT: This is displayed in console inside view did load [Session started at 2010-04-21 19:12:53 +0530.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 4216. (gdb) In another view - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"inside view did load"); AppDelegate *delegate=(AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; NSString *titleValue=[delegate getCurrentDates]; self.navigationItem.title =titleValue ; } The get does not work properly.It works fine if i give any static string or the "dateval". Thanks.

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  • stxxl Assertion `it != root_node_.end()' failed

    - by Fabrizio Silvestri
    I am receiving this assertion failed error when trying to insert an element in a stxxl map. The entire assertion error is the following: resCache: /usr/include/stxxl/bits/containers/btree/btree.h:470: std::pair , bool stxxl::btree::btree::insert(const value_type&) [with KeyType = e_my_key, DataType = unsigned int, CompareType = comp_type, unsigned int RawNodeSize = 16384u, unsigned int RawLeafSize = 131072u, PDAllocStrategy = stxxl::SR, stxxl::btree::btree::value_type = std::pair]: Assertion `it != root_node_.end()' failed. Aborted Any idea? Edit: Here's the code fragment void request_handler::handle_request(my_key& query, reply& rep) { c_++; strip(query.content); std::cout << "Received query " << query.content << " by thread " << boost::this_thread::get_id() << ". It is number " << c_ << "\n"; strcpy(element.first.content, query.content); element.second = c_; testcache_.insert(element); STXXL_MSG("Records in map: " << testcache_.size()); } Edit2 here's more details (I omit constants, e.g. MAX_QUERY_LEN) struct comp_type : std::binary_function<my_key, my_key, bool> { bool operator () (const my_key & a, const my_key & b) const { return strncmp(a.content, b.content, MAX_QUERY_LEN) < 0; } static my_key max_value() { return max_key; } static my_key min_value() { return min_key; } }; typedef stxxl::map<my_key, my_data, comp_type> cacheType; cacheType testcache_; request_handler::request_handler() :testcache_(NODE_CACHE_SIZE, LEAF_CACHE_SIZE) { c_ = 0; memset(max_key.content, (std::numeric_limits<unsigned char>::max)(), MAX_QUERY_LEN); memset(min_key.content, (std::numeric_limits<unsigned char>::min)(), MAX_QUERY_LEN); testcache_.enable_prefetching(); STXXL_MSG("Records in map: " << testcache_.size()); }

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  • Format form fields for bootstrap using rails+nokogiri

    - by user1116573
    I have the following in an initializer in a rails app that uses Twitter bootstrap so that it removes the div.field_with_errors that rails applies when validation fails on a field but also the initializer adds the help/validation text after the erroneous input field: require 'nokogiri' ActionView::Base.field_error_proc = Proc.new do |html_tag, instance| html = %(<div class="field_with_errors">#{html_tag}</div>).html_safe form_fields = [ 'textarea', 'input', 'select' ] elements = Nokogiri::HTML::DocumentFragment.parse(html_tag).css("label, " + form_fields.join(', ')) elements.each do |e| if e.node_name.eql? 'label' html = %(#{e}).html_safe elsif form_fields.include? e.node_name if instance.error_message.kind_of?(Array) html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message.join(',')}</span>).html_safe else html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message}</span>).html_safe end end end html end This works fine but I also need to apply the .error class to the surrounding div.control-group for each error. My initializer currently gives the following output: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> but I need something adding to my initializer so that it adds the .error class to the div.control-group like so: <div class="control-group error"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> The solution will probably need to allow for the fact that each validation error could have more than one label and input that are all within the same div.control-group (eg radio buttons / checkboxes / 2 text fields side by side). I assume it needs some sort of e.at_xpath() to find the div.control-group parent and add the .error class to it but I'm not sure how to do this. Can anyone help? PS This may all be possible using the formtastic or simple_form gems but I'd rather just use my own html if possible. EDIT If I put e['class'] = 'foo' in the if e.node_name.eql? 'label' section then it applies the class to the label so I think I just need to find the parent tag of e and then apply an .error class to it but I can't figure out what the xpath would be to get from label to its div.control-group parent; no combination of dots, slashes or whatever seems to work but xpath isn't my strong point.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

    - by Steven Smith
    Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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  • jquery ui is not scaling text properly!

    - by Stephen Belanger
    I'm trying use jquery ui to scale a div that I'm dragging around to make it easier to see what's behind it, but any text inside it is scaling strangely. The text itself becomes smaller, but it seems to have a bunch of padding around it and is floating now. The text extends past the bottom of the div even though it should be contained properly by the div. I put a red border around the lines of text and the borders are the same size as the original text. I'm not really sure what to do to get this to work... HTML: <div class="item draggable" id="item-1'"> <div class="image-block"> <a class="delete-button" title="delete me!" href="/remove/1" onclick="return $(this).confirm(\'Really remove this image?\');">X</a> <a class="image" href="/edit/1"><img src="/someimage.jpg" /></a> <div class="clear-block"></div> </div> <h3>Some title</h3> </div> CSS: div.image-list div.item { float:left; background:#fff; width:150px; padding:5px; margin:4px; border:1px solid #d3d5d6; } div.image-list div.item h3 { margin:0; padding:0; border:solid 1px #F00; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.delete-button { float:right; position:relative; background:#fff; display:none; top:0.8em; margin-bottom:-20.0em; width:3em; height:1.8em; padding:0.2em 1em; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.image { float:left; display:block; } .clear-block { clear:both; } jquery: $(".draggable").draggable({ helper: 'clone', start: function(ev, ui) { $(ui.helper).effect( "scale", { percent: 50 }, 200 ); } });

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  • PHP MySQL Zend-ACL - Find all inherited items (Children / Parents)

    - by Scoobler
    I have one MySQL DB table like the following, the resources table: id | name | type 1 | guest | user 2 | member | user 3 | moderator | user 4 | owner | user 5 | admin | user 6 | index | controller Onto the next table, the rules table: id | user_id | rule | resource_id | extras 1 | 2 | 3 | 1 | null 2 | 3 | 3 | 2 | null 3 | 4 | 3 | 3 | null 4 | 5 | 3 | 4 | null 5 | 6 | 1 | 1 | index,login,register 6 | 6 | 2 | 2 | login,register 7 | 6 | 1 | 2 | logout OK, sorry for the length, but I am trying to give a full picture of what I am trying to do. So the way it works, a role (aka user) can be granted (rule: 1) access to a controller, a role can inherit (rule: 3) access from another role or a role and be denied (rule: 2) access to a controller. (A user is a resource and a controller is a resource) Access to actions are granted / denied using the extras column. This all works, its not a problem with setting up the ACL within zend. What I am now trying to do is show the relationships; to do that I need to find the lowest level a role is granted access to a controller stopping if it has explicitly been removed. I plan on listing the roles. When I click a role, I want it to show all the controllers that role has access to. Then clicking on a controller shows the actions the role is allowed to do. So in the example above, a guest is allowed to view the index action of the index controller along with the login action. A member inherits the same access, but is then denied access to the login action and register action. A moderator inherits the rules of a member. So if I were to select the role moderator. I want to see the controller index listed. If I click on the controller, it should show the allowed actions as being action: index. (which was originally granted to the guest, but hasn't since been dissallowed) Is there any examples to doing this. I am obviously working with the Zend MVC (PHP) and MySQL. Even just a persudo code example would be a helpful starting point - this is one of the last parts of the jigsaw I am putting together. P.S. Obviously I have the ACL object - is it going to be easier to interigate that or is it better to do it my self via PHP/MySQL? The aim will be, show what a role can access which will then allow me to add or edit a role, controller and action in a GUI style (that is somewhat the easy bit) - currently I am updating the DB manually as I have been building the site.

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  • JPanels, JFrames, and Windows, Oh my!

    - by Jonathan
    Simply stated, I am trying to make a game I am working on full-screen. I have the following code I am trying to use: GraphicsEnvironment ge = GraphicsEnvironment.getLocalGraphicsEnvironment(); GraphicsDevice gs = ge.getDefaultScreenDevice(); if(!gs.isFullScreenSupported()) { System.out.println("full-screen not supported"); } Frame frame = new Frame(gs.getDefaultConfiguration()); Window win = new Window(frame); try { // Enter full-screen mode gs.setFullScreenWindow(win); win.validate(); } Problem with this is that I am working within a class that extends JPanel, and while I have a variable of type Frame, I have none of type Window within the class. My understanding of JPanel is that it is a Window of sorts, but I cannot pass 'this' into gs.setFullScreenWindow(Window win)... How should I go about doing this? Is there any easy way of calling that, or a similar method, using a JPanel? Is there a way I can get something of type Window from my JPanel? - EDIT: The following method changes the state of JFrame and is called every 10ms: public void paintScreen() { Graphics g; try{ g = this.getGraphics(); //get Panel's graphic context if(g == null) { frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setExtendedState(frame.getExtendedState()|JFrame.MAXIMIZED_BOTH); frame.add(this); frame.pack(); frame.setResizable(false); frame.setTitle("Game Window"); frame.setVisible(true); } if((g != null) && (dbImage != null)) { g.drawImage(dbImage, 0, 0, null); } Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().sync(); //sync the display on some systems g.dispose(); } catch (Exception e) { if(blockError) { blockError = false; } else { System.out.println("Graphics context error: " + e); } } } I anticipate that there may be a few redundancies or unnecessary calls after the if(g==null) statement (all the frame.somethingOrOther()s), any cleanup advice would be appreciated... Also, the block error is what it seems. I am ignoring an error. The error only occurs once, and this works fine when setup to ignore the first instance of the error... For anyone interested I can post additional info there if anyone wants to see if that block can be removed, but i'm not concerned... I might look into it later.

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  • Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

    - by Bruno Sampaio
    I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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