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• One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

  - by NC1

  My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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• Grid sorting with persistent master sort

  - by MikeWyatt

  I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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• User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

  - by krismeld

  I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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• Format form fields for bootstrap using rails+nokogiri

  - by user1116573

  I have the following in an initializer in a rails app that uses Twitter bootstrap so that it removes the div.field_with_errors that rails applies when validation fails on a field but also the initializer adds the help/validation text after the erroneous input field: require 'nokogiri' ActionView::Base.field_error_proc = Proc.new do |html_tag, instance| html = %(<div class="field_with_errors">#{html_tag}</div>).html_safe form_fields = [ 'textarea', 'input', 'select' ] elements = Nokogiri::HTML::DocumentFragment.parse(html_tag).css("label, " + form_fields.join(', ')) elements.each do |e| if e.node_name.eql? 'label' html = %(#{e}).html_safe elsif form_fields.include? e.node_name if instance.error_message.kind_of?(Array) html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message.join(',')}</span>).html_safe else html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message}</span>).html_safe end end end html end This works fine but I also need to apply the .error class to the surrounding div.control-group for each error. My initializer currently gives the following output: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> but I need something adding to my initializer so that it adds the .error class to the div.control-group like so: <div class="control-group error"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> The solution will probably need to allow for the fact that each validation error could have more than one label and input that are all within the same div.control-group (eg radio buttons / checkboxes / 2 text fields side by side). I assume it needs some sort of e.at_xpath() to find the div.control-group parent and add the .error class to it but I'm not sure how to do this. Can anyone help? PS This may all be possible using the formtastic or simple_form gems but I'd rather just use my own html if possible. EDIT If I put e['class'] = 'foo' in the if e.node_name.eql? 'label' section then it applies the class to the label so I think I just need to find the parent tag of e and then apply an .error class to it but I can't figure out what the xpath would be to get from label to its div.control-group parent; no combination of dots, slashes or whatever seems to work but xpath isn't my strong point.

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• Looping through array in PHP to post several multipart form-data

  - by Léon Pelletier

  I'm trying in an asp web application to code a function that would loop through a list of files in a multiple upload form and send them one by one. Is this something that can be done in ASP? Because I've read some posts about how to attach several files together, but saw nothing about looping through the files. I can easily imagine it in C# via HttpWebRequest or with socket, but in php, I guess there are already function designed to handle it? // This is false/pseudo-code :) for (int index = 0; index < number_of_files; index++) { postfile(file[index]); } And in each iteration, it should send a multipart form-data POST. postfile(TheFileInfos) should make a POST like it: POST /afs.aspx?fn=upload HTTP/1.1 [Header stuff] Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=----------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 [Header stuff] ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filename" myimage1.png ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="fileid" 58e21ede4ead43a5201206101806420000007667212251 ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filedata"; filename="myimage1.png" Content-Type: application/octet-stream [Octet Stream] [Edit] I'll try it: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Document</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> </head> <body> <form name="form1" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="processFiles.php"> <p> <? // start of dynamic form $uploadNeed = $_POST['uploadNeed']; for($x=0;$x<$uploadNeed;$x++){ ?> <input name="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>" type="file" id="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>"> </p> <? // end of for loop } ?> <p><input name="uploadNeed" type="hidden" value="<? echo $uploadNeed;?>"> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </p> </form> </body> </html>

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• How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

  - by Joe

  I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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• Mysql select - improve performances

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated. Edit: Here is the explain +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | products_loans | range | CENA_OD,CENA_DO,KOD | KOD | 92 | NULL | 190158 | Using where | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ I have tried the combined index and it improved the performance on the test server from 0.44 sec to 0.06 sec, I cant access the production server from home though, so I will have to try it tomorrow.

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• Changing Data in ListView

  - by legr3c

  Hi In my app I use a ListView to display data from the database. The data changes sometimes, for example when the user applies new filters or changes the sorting method. I use AsyncTask to get the databsase cursor that points to the new data set because sometimes data needs to be loaded from the net which can take some time. What I do now looks something like this: private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); mCursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(MyActivity.this, mCursor); mListView.setAdapter(mCursorAdapter); } } } This works so far but I realize that creating a new CursorAdapter and calling setAdapter on my ListView each time isn't the correct way to do it. Also, after setAdapter the scroll position of the list is set back to the top. I found this post which describes how to do it properly. So now I want to do something like this: onCreate(){ // ... // create the CursorAdapter using null as the initial cursor MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(this, null); mListView.setAdapter(cursorAdapter); // ... } private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ // this returns null! MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); Cursor oldCursor = cursorAdapter.getCursor(); if(oldCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.stopManagingCursor(oldCursor); oldCursor.close(); } if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); cursorAdapter.changeCursor(mCursor); } } } This however doesn't work for me because (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); always returns null. Why does this happen? What am I doing wrong? Edit: Some additional information: my adapter implements SectionIndexer. I don't really think that this has anything to do with my problem but it has caused me some troubles before so I thought I'd mention it.

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• .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

  - by Groxx

  I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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• Subband decomposition using Daubechies filter

  - by misha

  I have the following two 8-tap filters: h0 ['-0.010597', '0.032883', '0.030841', '-0.187035', '-0.027984', '0.630881', '0.714847', '0.230378'] h1 ['-0.230378', '0.714847', '-0.630881', '-0.027984', '0.187035', '0.030841', '-0.032883', '-0.010597'] Here they are on a graph: I'm using it to obtain the approximation (lower subband of an image). This is a(m,n) in the following diagram: I got the coefficients and diagram from the book Digital Image Processing, 3rd Edition, so I trust that they are correct. The star symbol denotes one dimensional convolution (either over rows or over columns). The down arrow denotes downsampling in one dimension (either over rows, or columns). My problem is that the filter coefficients for h0 and h1 sum to greater than 1 (approximately 1.4 or sqrt(2) to be exact). Naturally, if I convolve any image with the filter, the image will get brighter. Indeed, here's what I get (expected result on right): Can somebody suggest what the problem is here? Why should it work if the convolution filter coefficients sum to greater than 1? I have the source code, but it's quite long so I'm hoping to avoid posting it here. If it's absolutely necessary, I'll put it up later. EDIT What I'm doing is: Decompose into subbands Filter one of the subbands Recompose subbands into original image Note that the point isn't just to have a displayable subband-decomposed image -- I have to be able to perfectly reconstruct the original image from the subbands as well. So if I scale the filtered image in order to compensate for my decomposition filter making the image brighter, this is what I will have to do: Decompose into subbands Apply intensity scaling Filter one of the subbands Apply inverse intensity scaling Recompose subbands into original image Step 2 performs the scaling. This is what @Benjamin is suggesting. The problem is that then step 4 becomes necessary, or the original image will not be properly reconstructed. This longer method will work. However, the textbook explicitly says that no scaling is performed on the approximation subband. Of course, it's possible that the textbook is wrong. However, what's more possible is I'm misunderstanding something about the way this all works -- this is why I'm asking this question.

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• Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

  - by Krisc

  Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

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• Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

  - by steve.tse

  I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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• Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

  - by mstksg

  Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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• UIVIewController not released when view is dismissed

  - by Nelson Ko

  I have a main view, mainWindow, which presents a couple of buttons. Both buttons create a new UIViewController (mapViewController), but one will start a game and the other will resume it. Both buttons are linked via StoryBoard to the same View. They are segued to modal views as I'm not using the NavigationController. So in a typical game, if a person starts a game, but then goes back to the main menu, he triggers: [self dismissViewControllerAnimated:YES completion:nil ]; to return to the main menu. I would assume the view controller is released at this point. The user resumes the game with the second button by opening another instance of mapViewController. What is happening, tho, is some touch events will trigger methods on the original instance (and write status updates to them - therefore invisible to the current view). When I put a breakpoint in the mapViewController code, I can see the instance will be one or the other (one of which should be released). I have tried putting a delegate to the mainWindow clearing the view: [self.delegate clearMapView]; where in the mainWindow - (void) clearMapView{ gameWindow = nil; } I have also tried self.view=nil; in the mapViewController. The mapViewController code contains MVC code, where the model is static. I wonder if this may prevent ARC from releasing the view. The model.m contains: static CanShieldModel *sharedInstance; + (CanShieldModel *) sharedModel { @synchronized(self) { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [[CanShieldModel alloc] init]; return sharedInstance; } return sharedInstance; } Another post which may have a lead, but so far not successful, is UIViewController not being released when popped I have in ViewDidLoad: // checks to see if app goes inactive - saves. [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resignActive) name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; with the corresponding in ViewDidUnload: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self name:UIApplicationWillResignActiveNotification object:nil]; Does anyone have any suggestions? EDIT: - (void) prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender{ NSString *identifier = segue.identifier; if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Start Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=-1; gameWindow.delegate = self; } else if ([identifier isEqualToString: @"Resume Game"]){ gameWindow = (ViewController *)[segue destinationViewController]; gameWindow.newgame=0; gameWindow.delegate = self;

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• How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

  - by scott jarvis

  I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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• Codeigniter not returning me to upload form after image upload.

  - by Drew

  I'm still very new to codeigniter. The issue i'm having is that the file uploads fine and it writes to the database without issue but it just doesn't return me to the upload form. Instead it stays in the do_upload and doesn't display anything. Even more bizarrely there is some source code behind the scenes. Can someone tell my what it is i'm doing wrong because I want to be returning to my upload form after submission. Thanks in advance. Below is my code: Controller: function do_upload() { if($this->Upload_model->do_upload()) { $this->load->view('home/upload_form'); }else{ $this->load->view('home/upload_success', $error); } } Model: function do_upload() { $config['upload_path'] = './uploads/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2000'; $this->load->library('upload', $config); if ( ! $this->upload->do_upload()) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { $data = $this->upload->data(); $full_path = 'uploads/' . $data['file_name']; $spam = array( 'image_url' => $full_path, 'url' => $this->input->post('url') ); $id = $this->input->post('id'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update('NavItemData', $spam); return true; } } View (called upload_form): <html> <head> <title>Upload Form</title> </head> <body> <?php if(isset($buttons)) : foreach($buttons as $row) : ?> <h2><?php echo $row->image_url; ?></h2> <p><?php echo $row->url; ?></p> <p><?php echo $row->name; ?></p> <p><?php echo anchor("upload/update_nav/$row->id", 'edit'); ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php endif; ?> </body> </html>

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• JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

  - by Charles Anderson

  I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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• Still failing a function, not sure why...ideas on test cases to run?

  - by igor

  I've been trying to get this Sudoku game working, and I am still failing some of the individual functions. All together the game works, but when I run it through an "autograder", some test cases fail.. Currently I am stuck on the following function, placeValue, failing. I do have the output that I get vs. what the correct one should be, but am confused..what is something going on? EDIT: I do not know what input/calls they make to the function. What happens is that "invalid row" is outputted after every placeValue call, and I can't trace why.. Here is the output (mine + correct one) if it's at all helpful: http://pastebin.com/Wd3P3nDA Here is placeValue, and following is getCoords that placeValue calls.. void placeValue(Square board[BOARD_SIZE][BOARD_SIZE]) { int x,y,value; if(getCoords(x,y)) { cin>>value; if(board[x][y].permanent) { cout<< endl << "That location cannot be changed"; } else if(!(value>=1 && value<=9)) { cout << "Invalid number"<< endl; clearInput(); } else if(validMove(board, x, y, value)) { board[x][y].number=value; } } } bool getCoords(int & x, int & y) { char row; y=0; cin>>row>>y; x = static_cast<int>(toupper(row)); if (isalpha(row) && (x >= 'A' && x <= 'I') && y >= 1 && y <= 9) { x = x - 'A'; // converts x from a letter to corresponding index in matrix y = y - 1; // converts y to corresponding index in matrix return (true); } else if (!(x >= 'A' && x <= 'I')) { cout<<"Invalid row"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } else { cout<<"Invalid column"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } }

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• Rendering of graphics different depending on position

  - by jedierikb

  When drawing parallel vertical lines with a fixed distance between them (1.75 pixels) with a non-integer x-value-offset to both lines, the lines are drawn differently based on the offset. In the picture below are two pairs of very close together vertical lines. As you can see, they look very different. This is frustrating, especially when animating the sprite. Any ideas how ensure that sprites-with-non-integer-positions' graphics will visually display the same? package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.StageAlign; import flash.display.StageScaleMode; import flash.events.Event; public class tmpa extends Sprite { private var _sp1:Sprite; private var _sp2:Sprite; private var _num:Number; public function tmpa( ):void { stage.align = StageAlign.TOP_LEFT; stage.scaleMode = StageScaleMode.NO_SCALE; _sp1 = new Sprite( ); drawButt( _sp1, 0 ); _sp1.x = 100; _sp1.y = 100; _num = 0; _sp2 = new Sprite( ); drawButt( _sp2, _num ); _sp2.x = 100; _sp2.y = 200; addChild( _sp1 ); addChild( _sp2 ); addEventListener( Event.ENTER_FRAME, efCb, false, 0, true ); } private function efCb( evt:Event ):void { _num += .1; if (_num > 400) { _num = 0; } drawButt( _sp2, _num ); } private function drawButt( sp:Sprite, offset:Number ):void { var px1:Number = 1 + offset; var px2:Number = 2.75 + offset; sp.graphics.clear( ); sp.graphics.lineStyle( 1, 0, 1, true ); sp.graphics.moveTo( px1, 1 ); sp.graphics.lineTo( px1, 100 ); sp.graphics.lineStyle( 1, 0, 1, true ); sp.graphics.moveTo( px2, 1 ); sp.graphics.lineTo( px2, 100 ); } } } edit from original post which thought the problem was tied to the x-position of the sprite.

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• Truth tables in code? How to structure state machine?

  - by HanClinto

  I have a (somewhat) large truth table / state machine that I need to implement in my code (embedded C). I anticipate the behavior specification of this state machine to change in the future, and so I'd like to keep this easily modifiable in the future. My truth table has 4 inputs and 4 outputs. I have it all in an Excel spreadsheet, and if I could just paste that into my code with a little formatting, that would be ideal. I was thinking I would like to access my truth table like so: u8 newState[] = decisionTable[input1][input2][input3][input4]; And then I could access the output values with: setOutputPin( LINE_0, newState[0] ); setOutputPin( LINE_1, newState[1] ); setOutputPin( LINE_2, newState[2] ); setOutputPin( LINE_3, newState[3] ); But in order to get that, it looks like I would have to do a fairly confusing table like so: static u8 decisionTable[][][][][] = {{{{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}, {{ 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }}}, {{{ 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}, {{{{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}, {{{ 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }}, {{ 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}}}; Those nested brackets can be somewhat confusing -- does anyone have a better idea for how I can keep a pretty looking table in my code? Thanks! Edit based on HUAGHAGUAH's answer: Using an amalgamation of everyone's input (thanks -- I wish I could "accept" 3 or 4 of these answers), I think I'm going to try it as a two dimensional array. I'll index into my array using a small bit-shifting macro: #define SM_INPUTS( in0, in1, in2, in3 ) ((in0 << 0) | (in1 << 1) | (in2 << 2) | (in3 << 3)) And that will let my truth table array look like this: static u8 decisionTable[][] = { { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 0, 0 }, { 0, 0, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 1, 1 }, { 0, 1, 0, 1 }, { 1, 1, 1, 1 }}; And I can then access my truth table like so: decisionTable[ SM_INPUTS( line1, line2, line3, line4 ) ] I'll give that a shot and see how it works out. I'll also be replacing the 0's and 1's with more helpful #defines that express what each state means, along with /**/ comments that explain the inputs for each line of outputs. Thanks for the help, everyone!

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• Maximum nametable char count exceeded

  - by doc

  I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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• appendTo() inside $.each in jquery seems to cause flicker....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  appendTo() causes flicker when it is inside $.each.... $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { $('<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>').appendTo('#ResultsDiv'); }); Right now i am appending every new div to #ResultsDiv inside$.each is it good/bad to do so... If it is bad What can be done to make my divs appendTo() after the loop so that i it wont flicker.... EDIT:(based on answer) var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs); But that too doesn't stop the flicker...

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• Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

  - by tbehunin

  When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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• Is this postgres function cost efficient or still have to clean

  - by kiranking

  There are two tables in postgres db. english_all and english_glob First table contains words like international,confidential,booting,cooler ...etc I have written the function to get the words from english_all then perform for loop for each word to get word list which are not inserted in anglish_glob table. Word list is like I In Int Inte Inter .. b bo boo boot .. c co coo cool etc.. for some reason zwnj(zero-width non-joiner) is added during insertion to english_all table. But in function I am removing that character with regexp_replace. Postgres function for_loop_test is taking two parameter min and max based on that I am selecting words from english_all table. function code is like DECLARE inMinLength ALIAS FOR $1; inMaxLength ALIAS FOR $2; mviews RECORD; outenglishListRow english_word_list;--custom data type eng_id,english_text BEGIN FOR mviews IN SELECT id,english_all_text FROM english_all where wlength between inMinLength and inMaxLength ORDER BY english_all_text limit 30 LOOP FOR i IN 1..char_length(regexp_replace(mviews.english_all_text,'(?)$','')) LOOP FOR outenglishListRow IN SELECT distinct on (regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','')) mviews.id, regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') where regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') not in(select english_glob.english_text from english_glob where i=english_glob.wlength) order by regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') LOOP RETURN NEXT outenglishListRow; END LOOP; END LOOP; END LOOP; END; Once I get the word list I will insert that into another table english_glob. My question is is there any thing I can add to or remove from function to make it more efficient. edit Let assume english_all table have words like footer,settle,question,overflow,database,kingdom If inMinLength = 5 and inmaxLength=7 then in the outer loop footer,settle,kingdom will be selected. For above 3 words inner two loop will apply to get words like f,fo,foo,foot,foote,footer,s,se,set,sett,settl .... etc. In the final process words which are bold will be entered into english_glob with another parameter like 1 to denote it is a proper word and stored in the another filed of english_glob table. Remaining word will be stored with another parameter 0 because in the next call words which are saved in database should not be fetched again. edit2: This is a complete code CREATE TABLE english_all ( id serial NOT NULL, english_all_text text NOT NULL, wlength integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT english_all PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_all_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_all_text) ) CREATE TABLE english_glob ( id serial NOT NULL, english_text text NOT NULL, is_prop integer default 1, CONSTRAINT english_glob PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_glob_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_text) ) insert into english_all(english_text) values ('ant'),('forget'),('forgive'); on function call with parameter 3 and 6 fallowing rows should fetched a an ant f fo for forg forge forget next is insert to another table based on above row insert into english_glob(english_text,is_prop) values ('a',1),('an',1), ('ant',1),('f',0), ('fo',0),('for',1), ('forg',0),('forge',1), ('forget',1), on function call next time with parameter 3 and 7 fallowing rows should fetched.(because f,fo,for,forg are all entered in english_glob table) forgi forgiv forgive

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