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• How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

  - by Glacius

  Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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• how to update an Android ListActivity on changing data of the connected SimpleCursorAdapter

  - by 4485670

  I have the following code. What I want to achieve is to update the shown list when I click an entry so I can traverse through the list. I found the two uncommented ways to do it here on stackoverflow, but neither works. I also got the advice to create a new ListActivity on the data update, but that sounds like wasting resources? EDIT: I found the solution myself. All you need to do is call "SimpleCursorAdapter.changeCursor(new Cursor);". No notifying, no things in UI-Thread or whatever. import android.app.ListActivity; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; public class MyActivity extends ListActivity { private DepartmentDbAdapter mDbHelper; private Cursor cursor; private String[] from = new String[] { DepartmentDbAdapter.KEY_NAME }; private int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; private SimpleCursorAdapter notes; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.departments_list); mDbHelper = new DepartmentDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); // Get all of the departments from the database and create the item list cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(1); this.startManagingCursor(cursor); // Now create an array adapter and set it to display using our row notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.department_row, cursor, from, to); this.setListAdapter(notes); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); // get new data and update the list this.updateData(safeLongToInt(id)); } /** * update data for the list * * @param int departmentId id of the parent department */ private void updateData(int departmentId) { // close the old one, get a new one cursor.close(); cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(departmentId); // change the cursor of the adapter to the new one notes.changeCursor(cursor); } /** * safely convert long to in to save memory * * @param long l the long variable * * @return integer */ public static int safeLongToInt(long l) { if (l < Integer.MIN_VALUE || l > Integer.MAX_VALUE) { throw new IllegalArgumentException (l + " cannot be cast to int without changing its value."); } return (int) l; } }

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• How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

  - by Gonan

  I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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• UITableView: Mixing static and dynamic cells

  - by AlexR

  I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. I designed the static cells in Interface Builder and gave them identifiers related to their section and row: "section0static0", "section0static1", "section1static0" and "section1static1". I named the dynamic cell "section2dynamic". My delegate methods, in which I am trying to return the correct cell identifier (static or dynamic) are as follows: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch (section) { case 0: return 2; break; case 1: return 2; break; case 2: return 0; break; default: break; } return 0; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @""; if (indexPath.section <= 1) CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%istatic%i",indexPath.section,indexPath.row]; else CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; return cell; } Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it?

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• ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

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• HttpWebRequest possibly slowing website

  - by Steven Smith

  Using Visual studio 2012, C#.net 4.5 , SQL Server 2008, Feefo, Nopcommerce Hey guys I have Recently implemented a new review service into a current site we have. When the change went live the first day all worked fine. Since then though the sending of sales to Feefo hasnt been working, There are no logs either of anything going wrong. In the OrderProcessingService.cs in Nop Commerce's Service, i call a HttpWebrequest when an order has been confirmed as completed. Here is the code. var email = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.Email.ToString()); var name = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Customer.GetFullName().ToString()); var description = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription != null ? productVariant.ProductVariant.Product.MetaDescription.ToString() : "product"); var orderRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(order.Id.ToString()); var productLink = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(string.Format("myurl/p/{0}/{1}", productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId, productVariant.ProductVariant.Name.Replace(" ", "-"))); string itemRef = ""; try { itemRef = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(productVariant.ProductVariant.ProductId.ToString()); } catch { itemRef = "0"; } var url = string.Format("feefo Url", login, password,email,name,description,orderRef,productLink,itemRef); var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); request.KeepAlive = false; request.Timeout = 5000; request.Proxy = null; using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { if (response.StatusDescription == "OK") { var stream = response.GetResponseStream(); if(stream != null) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { var content = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } } } So as you can see its a simple webrequest that is processed on an order, and all product variants are sent to feefo. Now: this hasnt been happening all week since the 15th (day of the implementation) the site has been grinding to a halt recently. The stream and reader in the the var content is there for debugging. Im wondering does the code redflag anything to you that could relate to the process of website? Also note i have run some SQL statements to see if there is any deadlocks or large escalations, so far seems fine, Logs have also been fine just the usual logging of Bots. Any help would be much appreciated! EDIT: also note that this code is in a method that is called and wrapped in A try catch UPDATE: well forget about the "not sending", thats because i was just told my code was rolled back last week

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• Looping through array in PHP to post several multipart form-data

  - by Léon Pelletier

  I'm trying in an asp web application to code a function that would loop through a list of files in a multiple upload form and send them one by one. Is this something that can be done in ASP? Because I've read some posts about how to attach several files together, but saw nothing about looping through the files. I can easily imagine it in C# via HttpWebRequest or with socket, but in php, I guess there are already function designed to handle it? // This is false/pseudo-code :) for (int index = 0; index < number_of_files; index++) { postfile(file[index]); } And in each iteration, it should send a multipart form-data POST. postfile(TheFileInfos) should make a POST like it: POST /afs.aspx?fn=upload HTTP/1.1 [Header stuff] Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=----------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 [Header stuff] ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filename" myimage1.png ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="fileid" 58e21ede4ead43a5201206101806420000007667212251 ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filedata"; filename="myimage1.png" Content-Type: application/octet-stream [Octet Stream] [Edit] I'll try it: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Document</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> </head> <body> <form name="form1" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="processFiles.php"> <p> <? // start of dynamic form $uploadNeed = $_POST['uploadNeed']; for($x=0;$x<$uploadNeed;$x++){ ?> <input name="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>" type="file" id="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>"> </p> <? // end of for loop } ?> <p><input name="uploadNeed" type="hidden" value="<? echo $uploadNeed;?>"> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </p> </form> </body> </html>

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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• .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

  - by Groxx

  I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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• PHP - JSON Steam API query

  - by Hunter

  First time using "JSON" and I've just been working away at my dissertation and I'm integrating a few features from the steam API.. now I'm a little bit confused as to how to create arrays. function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530'); $test = decode_url($api); var_dump($test['response']['players'][0]['personaname']['steamid']); } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $data = file_get_contents($url); $data_output = json_decode($data, true); return $data_output; } So ea I've wrote a simple method to decode Json as I'll be doing a fair bit.. But just wondering the best way to print out arrays.. I can't for the life of me get it to print more than 1 element without it retunring an error e.g. Warning: Illegal string offset 'steamid' in /opt/lampp/htdocs/lan/lan-includes/scripts/class.steam.php on line 48 string(1) "R" So I can print one element, and if I add another it returns errors. EDIT -- Thanks for help, So this was my solution: function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530,76561197960435530'); $data = decode_url($api); foreach($data ['response']['players'] as $player) { echo "Steam id:" . $player['steamid'] . "\n"; echo "Community visibility :" . $player['communityvisibilitystate'] . "\n"; echo "Player profile" . $player['profileurl'] ."\n"; } } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $json = file_get_contents($decodeURL); $data_output = json_decode($json, true); return $data_output; } Worked this out by taking a look at the data.. and a couple json examples, this returns an array based on the Steam API URL (It works for multiple queries.... just FYI) and you can insert loops inside for items etc.. (if anyone searches for this).

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• Is this postgres function cost efficient or still have to clean

  - by kiranking

  There are two tables in postgres db. english_all and english_glob First table contains words like international,confidential,booting,cooler ...etc I have written the function to get the words from english_all then perform for loop for each word to get word list which are not inserted in anglish_glob table. Word list is like I In Int Inte Inter .. b bo boo boot .. c co coo cool etc.. for some reason zwnj(zero-width non-joiner) is added during insertion to english_all table. But in function I am removing that character with regexp_replace. Postgres function for_loop_test is taking two parameter min and max based on that I am selecting words from english_all table. function code is like DECLARE inMinLength ALIAS FOR $1; inMaxLength ALIAS FOR $2; mviews RECORD; outenglishListRow english_word_list;--custom data type eng_id,english_text BEGIN FOR mviews IN SELECT id,english_all_text FROM english_all where wlength between inMinLength and inMaxLength ORDER BY english_all_text limit 30 LOOP FOR i IN 1..char_length(regexp_replace(mviews.english_all_text,'(?)$','')) LOOP FOR outenglishListRow IN SELECT distinct on (regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','')) mviews.id, regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') where regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') not in(select english_glob.english_text from english_glob where i=english_glob.wlength) order by regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') LOOP RETURN NEXT outenglishListRow; END LOOP; END LOOP; END LOOP; END; Once I get the word list I will insert that into another table english_glob. My question is is there any thing I can add to or remove from function to make it more efficient. edit Let assume english_all table have words like footer,settle,question,overflow,database,kingdom If inMinLength = 5 and inmaxLength=7 then in the outer loop footer,settle,kingdom will be selected. For above 3 words inner two loop will apply to get words like f,fo,foo,foot,foote,footer,s,se,set,sett,settl .... etc. In the final process words which are bold will be entered into english_glob with another parameter like 1 to denote it is a proper word and stored in the another filed of english_glob table. Remaining word will be stored with another parameter 0 because in the next call words which are saved in database should not be fetched again. edit2: This is a complete code CREATE TABLE english_all ( id serial NOT NULL, english_all_text text NOT NULL, wlength integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT english_all PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_all_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_all_text) ) CREATE TABLE english_glob ( id serial NOT NULL, english_text text NOT NULL, is_prop integer default 1, CONSTRAINT english_glob PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_glob_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_text) ) insert into english_all(english_text) values ('ant'),('forget'),('forgive'); on function call with parameter 3 and 6 fallowing rows should fetched a an ant f fo for forg forge forget next is insert to another table based on above row insert into english_glob(english_text,is_prop) values ('a',1),('an',1), ('ant',1),('f',0), ('fo',0),('for',1), ('forg',0),('forge',1), ('forget',1), on function call next time with parameter 3 and 7 fallowing rows should fetched.(because f,fo,for,forg are all entered in english_glob table) forgi forgiv forgive

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• Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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• mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

  - by sas

  I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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• delphi vs c# post returns different strings - utf problem?

  - by argh

  I'm posting two forms - one in c# and one in delphi. But the result string seems to be different: c# returns: ¤@@1@@@@1@@@@1@@xsm˱Â0Ð... delphi returns: #$1E'@@1@@@@1@@@@1@@x'#$009C... and sice both are compressed streams I'm getting errors while trying to decompress it... The C# is 'correct' - ie. extracts. I'm not an expert on delphi - I just need to convert some piece of code from c# to delphi. c# code: string GetData(Hashtable aParam, string ServerURL) { string Result = ""; WebRequest Request = HttpWebRequest.Create(ServerURL); Request.Method = "POST"; Request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8"; UTF8Encoding encUTF8 = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(false); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(Request.GetRequestStream(), encUTF8); foreach (DictionaryEntry element in aParam) { writer.Write(element.Key + "=" + element.Value + "&"); } writer.Close(); writer.Dispose(); WebResponse Response = Request.GetResponse(); StreamReader Reader = new StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.Default); Result = Reader.ReadToEnd(); Reader.Close(); Response.Close(); Reader.Dispose(); return Result; } delphi code: function GetData(aParam:TStringList; ServerURL:string):string; var req: TIdHTTP; res: string; begin req := TIdHTTP.Create(); with req do begin Request.ContentType := 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8'; Request.Method := 'POST'; Request.CharSet := 'utf-8'; Request.AcceptCharSet := 'utf-8'; res := Post(ServerURL, aParam); end; Result := res; req.Free; end; -edit- I'm using delphi 2010

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• howto parse struct to C++ dll from C#

  - by Nerds Rule

  I am trying to call a function in a unmanaged C++ dll. It has this prototype: [DllImport("C:\\Program Files\\MySDK\\VSeries.dll", EntryPoint = "BII_Send_Index_Template_MT" )] internal unsafe static extern Int32 BII_Send_Index_Template_MT(IntPtr pUnitHandle, ref BII_Template template, Int32 option, Boolean async); BII_Template template = new BII_Template(); error_code = BII_Send_Index_Template_MT(pUnitHandle, ref template, option, false); I is how I define the BII_Template struct in C#: public unsafe struct BII_Template { public ulong id; public ulong employee_id; public ulong password; public byte sensor_version; public byte template_version; public fixed char name[16]; public byte finger; public byte admin_level; public byte schedule; public byte security_thresh; public fixed byte noise_level[18]; public byte corramb; public byte reference_x; public byte reference_y; public fixed byte ihcore[3]; public fixed byte ivcore[3]; public byte temp_xoffset; public byte temp_yoffset; public byte index; public fixed byte inphase[5500]; }; It build and when I run it the dll return error_code = "The record checksum is invalid." I assume that I am using the ref keyword in a wrong way or the size of some of the elements in the struct is wrong. ----- EDIT ------------ Here is the struct in C++: typedef struct { unsigned long id; unsigned long employee_id; unsigned long password; unsigned char sensor_version; unsigned char template_version; char name[16]; unsigned char finger; unsigned char admin_level; unsigned char schedule; unsigned char security_thresh; unsigned char noise_level[18]; unsigned char corramb ; unsigned char reference_x ; unsigned char reference_y ; unsigned char ihcore[NUM_CORE]; unsigned char ivcore[NUM_CORE]; unsigned char temp_xoffset; unsigned char temp_yoffset; unsigned char index; unsigned char inphase[PACKED_ARRAY_SIZE]; } BII_Template;

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• WPF DataGrid, Help with Binding to a List<X> where each X has a Dictionary<Y,object> property.

  - by panamack

  I'm building an application which helps someone manage an event and works with data originating from Excel. I want to use the WPF Toolkit DataGrid to display the incoming data but can't guarantee how many Columns there are going to be or what information they will contain. I'd like to have an Info class that stores column information and have each Visitor at my Event own a Dictionary that uses shared references to Info objects for the keys. Here's the general gist: public class Info{ public string Name{get;set;} public int InfoType{get;set;} } public class Visitor{ public Dictionary<Info,object> VisitorInfo {get;set;} } public class Event{ public List<Visitor> Visitors{get;set;} public Event(){ Info i1 = new Info(){ Name = "ID", InfoType = 0};// type 0 for an id Info i2 = new Info(){ Name = "Name", InfoType = 1};// type 1 for a string Info i3 = new Info(){ Name = "City", InfoType = 1}; Visitor v1 = new Visitor(); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i1, 0); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i2, "Foo Harris"); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i3, "Barsville"); Visitor v2 = new Visitor(); ... this.Visitors.Add(v1); this.Visitors.Add(v2); ... } } XAML: <!-- Window1.xaml --> ... <local:Event x:Key="MyEvent"/> ... <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource MyEvent}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Visitors}" /> Disappointingly, DataGrid just sees a collection of Visitors each having a VisitorInfo property and displays one column called VisitorInfo with the string "(Collection)" once for each Visitor. As a workaround I've created a ListTVisitorToDataTableConverter that maps Infos to DataColumns and Visitors to DataRows and used it like this: <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource Event}" ItemsSource{Binding Path=Visitors, Converter={StaticResource MySmellyListTVisitorToDataTableConverter}}" /> I don't think this is good though, I haven't started trying to convert back yet which I guess I'll need to do if I want to be able to edit any data! How can I do better? Thanks.

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• Blit Queue Optimization Algorithm

  - by martona

  I'm looking to implement a module that manages a blit queue. There's a single surface, and portions of this surface (bounded by rectangles) are copied to elsewhere within the surface: add_blt(rect src, point dst); There can be any number of operations posted, in order, to the queue. Eventually the user of the queue will stop posting blits, and ask for an optimal set of operations to actually perform on the surface. The task of the module is to ensure that no pixel is copied unnecessarily. This gets tricky because of overlaps of course. A blit could re-blit a previously copied pixel. Ideally blit operations would be subdivided in the optimization phase in such a way that every block goes to its final place with a single operation. It's tricky but not impossible to put this together. I'm just trying to not reinvent the wheel. I looked around on the 'net, and the only thing I found was the SDL_BlitPool Library which assumes that the source surface differs from the destination. It also does a lot of grunt work, seemingly unnecessarily: regions and similar building blocks are a given. I'm looking for something higher-level. Of course, I'm not going to look a gift horse in the mouth, and I also don't mind doing actual work... If someone can come forward with a basic idea that makes this problem seem less complex than it does right now, that'd be awesome too. EDIT: Thinking about aaronasterling's answer... could this work? Implement customized region handler code that can maintain metadata for every rectangle it contains. When the region handler splits up a rectangle, it will automatically associate the metadata of this rectangle with the resulting sub-rectangles. When the optimization run starts, create an empty region handled by the above customized code, call this the master region Iterate through the blt queue, and for every entry: Let srcrect be the source rectangle for the blt beng examined Get the intersection of srcrect and master region into temp region Remove temp region from master region, so master region no longer covers temp region Promote srcrect to a region (srcrgn) and subtract temp region from it Offset temp region and srcrgn with the vector of the current blt: their union will cover the destination area of the current blt Add to master region all rects in temp region, retaining the original source metadata (step one of adding the current blt to the master region) Add to master region all rects in srcrgn, adding the source information for the current blt (step two of adding the current blt to the master region) Optimize master region by checking if adjacent sub-rectangles that are merge candidates have the same metadata. Two sub-rectangles are merge candidates if (r1.x1 == r2.x1 && r1.x2 == r2.x2) | (r1.y1 == r2.y1 && r1.y2 == r2.y2). If yes, combine them. Enumerate master region's sub-rectangles. Every rectangle returned is an optimized blt operation destination. The associated metadata is the blt operation`s source.

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• Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

  - by andySF

  I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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• NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

  - by Tyler

  I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

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• Why oh why doesn't my asp.net treeview update?

  - by Brendan

  I'm using an ASP.net treeview on a page with a custom XmlDataSource. When the user clicks on a node of the tree, a detailsview pops up and edits a bunch of things about the underlying object. All this works properly, and the underlying object gets updated in my background object-management classes. Yay! However, my treeview just isn't updating the display. Either immediately (which i would like it to), or on full page re-load (which is the minimal useful level i need it to be at). Am i subclassing XmlDataSource poorly? I really don't know. Can anyone point me in a good direction? Thanks! The markup looks about like this (chaff removed): <data:DefinitionDataSource runat="server" ID="DefinitionTreeSource" RootDefinitionID="uri:1"></data:DefinitionDataSource> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView" runat="server" DataSourceID="DefinitionTreeSource"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="definition" TextField="name" ValueField="id" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="Id" DataSourceID="DefinitionSource" DefaultMode="Edit"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" HeaderStyle-Wrap="false" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:CommandField ShowCancelButton="False" ShowInsertButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" ButtonType="Button" /> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And the DefinitionTreeSource code looks like this: public class DefinitionDataSource : XmlDataSource { public string RootDefinitionID { get { if (ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] != null) return ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] as String; return null; } set { if (!Object.Equals(ViewState["RootDefinitionID"], value)) { ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] = value; DataBind(); } } } public DefinitionDataSource() { } public override void DataBind() { base.DataBind(); setData(); } private void setData() { String defXML = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" ?>"; Test.Management.TestManager.Definition root = Test.Management.TestManager.Definition.GetDefinitionById(RootDefinitionID); if (root != null) this.Data = defXML + root.ToXMLString(); else this.Data = defXML + "<definition id=\"null\" name=\"Set Root Node\" />"; } } }

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• UpdatePanel Full Postback

  - by Korivo

  Greetings, here is the scenario. I have and .aspx page with and updatepanel like this <asp:UpdatePanel id="uPanelMain" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc:Calendar id="ucCalendar" runat="server" Visible="true" /> <uc:Scoring id="ucScoring" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </ContentTemplate> The control ucCalendar is loaded first and it contains a grid like this <asp:DataGrid CssClass="grid" ID="gridGames" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HeaderStyle-CssClass="gridHeader" ItemStyle-CssClass="gridScoringRow" GridLines="None" ItemStyle-BackColor="#EEEEEE" AlternatingItemStyle-BackColor="#F5F5F5" OnEditCommand="doScoreGame" OnDeleteCommand="doEditGame" OnCancelCommand="printLineup" OnItemDataBound="gridDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn > <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkDelete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="idGame" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="isClose" Visible="false" /> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Status"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgStatus" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/img/icoX.png" alt="icoStatus" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:TemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkScore" runat="server" CommandName="Edit" Text="Score" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> So when i click the "linkButton", the codebehind of the userControl calls a public method in the .aspx as this: From the userControl protected void doScoreGame(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ((GM)this.Page).showScoring(null, null); } From the .aspx page public void showScoring(object sender, EventArgs e) { removeLastLoadedControl(); ucScoring.Visible = true; } So, here comes the problem: There are two postbacks taking place when I change the visible attribute of the ucScoring control. The first postback is fine, it's handled by the updatePanel. The second postback is a full postback, and i really don't understand why it is happening. I'm really lost here, please help! Thanks Mat

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• Sync services not actually syncing

  - by Paul Mrozowski

  I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

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• JavaScript code inside UpdatePanel

  - by Ed Woodcock

  Ok: I've got an UpdatePanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); } You'll see that the button does not poput the alert message, even though the code is present on the page.

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• Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

  - by mtraut

  EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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