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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • how to update an Android ListActivity on changing data of the connected SimpleCursorAdapter

    - by 4485670
    I have the following code. What I want to achieve is to update the shown list when I click an entry so I can traverse through the list. I found the two uncommented ways to do it here on stackoverflow, but neither works. I also got the advice to create a new ListActivity on the data update, but that sounds like wasting resources? EDIT: I found the solution myself. All you need to do is call "SimpleCursorAdapter.changeCursor(new Cursor);". No notifying, no things in UI-Thread or whatever. import android.app.ListActivity; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; public class MyActivity extends ListActivity { private DepartmentDbAdapter mDbHelper; private Cursor cursor; private String[] from = new String[] { DepartmentDbAdapter.KEY_NAME }; private int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; private SimpleCursorAdapter notes; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.departments_list); mDbHelper = new DepartmentDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); // Get all of the departments from the database and create the item list cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(1); this.startManagingCursor(cursor); // Now create an array adapter and set it to display using our row notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.department_row, cursor, from, to); this.setListAdapter(notes); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); // get new data and update the list this.updateData(safeLongToInt(id)); } /** * update data for the list * * @param int departmentId id of the parent department */ private void updateData(int departmentId) { // close the old one, get a new one cursor.close(); cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(departmentId); // change the cursor of the adapter to the new one notes.changeCursor(cursor); } /** * safely convert long to in to save memory * * @param long l the long variable * * @return integer */ public static int safeLongToInt(long l) { if (l < Integer.MIN_VALUE || l > Integer.MAX_VALUE) { throw new IllegalArgumentException (l + " cannot be cast to int without changing its value."); } return (int) l; } }

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

    - by Charles Anderson
    I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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  • Codeigniter not returning me to upload form after image upload.

    - by Drew
    I'm still very new to codeigniter. The issue i'm having is that the file uploads fine and it writes to the database without issue but it just doesn't return me to the upload form. Instead it stays in the do_upload and doesn't display anything. Even more bizarrely there is some source code behind the scenes. Can someone tell my what it is i'm doing wrong because I want to be returning to my upload form after submission. Thanks in advance. Below is my code: Controller: function do_upload() { if($this->Upload_model->do_upload()) { $this->load->view('home/upload_form'); }else{ $this->load->view('home/upload_success', $error); } } Model: function do_upload() { $config['upload_path'] = './uploads/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2000'; $this->load->library('upload', $config); if ( ! $this->upload->do_upload()) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { $data = $this->upload->data(); $full_path = 'uploads/' . $data['file_name']; $spam = array( 'image_url' => $full_path, 'url' => $this->input->post('url') ); $id = $this->input->post('id'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update('NavItemData', $spam); return true; } } View (called upload_form): <html> <head> <title>Upload Form</title> </head> <body> <?php if(isset($buttons)) : foreach($buttons as $row) : ?> <h2><?php echo $row->image_url; ?></h2> <p><?php echo $row->url; ?></p> <p><?php echo $row->name; ?></p> <p><?php echo anchor("upload/update_nav/$row->id", 'edit'); ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php endif; ?> </body> </html>

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • Is this postgres function cost efficient or still have to clean

    - by kiranking
    There are two tables in postgres db. english_all and english_glob First table contains words like international,confidential,booting,cooler ...etc I have written the function to get the words from english_all then perform for loop for each word to get word list which are not inserted in anglish_glob table. Word list is like I In Int Inte Inter .. b bo boo boot .. c co coo cool etc.. for some reason zwnj(zero-width non-joiner) is added during insertion to english_all table. But in function I am removing that character with regexp_replace. Postgres function for_loop_test is taking two parameter min and max based on that I am selecting words from english_all table. function code is like DECLARE inMinLength ALIAS FOR $1; inMaxLength ALIAS FOR $2; mviews RECORD; outenglishListRow english_word_list;--custom data type eng_id,english_text BEGIN FOR mviews IN SELECT id,english_all_text FROM english_all where wlength between inMinLength and inMaxLength ORDER BY english_all_text limit 30 LOOP FOR i IN 1..char_length(regexp_replace(mviews.english_all_text,'(?)$','')) LOOP FOR outenglishListRow IN SELECT distinct on (regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','')) mviews.id, regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') where regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') not in(select english_glob.english_text from english_glob where i=english_glob.wlength) order by regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') LOOP RETURN NEXT outenglishListRow; END LOOP; END LOOP; END LOOP; END; Once I get the word list I will insert that into another table english_glob. My question is is there any thing I can add to or remove from function to make it more efficient. edit Let assume english_all table have words like footer,settle,question,overflow,database,kingdom If inMinLength = 5 and inmaxLength=7 then in the outer loop footer,settle,kingdom will be selected. For above 3 words inner two loop will apply to get words like f,fo,foo,foot,foote,footer,s,se,set,sett,settl .... etc. In the final process words which are bold will be entered into english_glob with another parameter like 1 to denote it is a proper word and stored in the another filed of english_glob table. Remaining word will be stored with another parameter 0 because in the next call words which are saved in database should not be fetched again. edit2: This is a complete code CREATE TABLE english_all ( id serial NOT NULL, english_all_text text NOT NULL, wlength integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT english_all PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_all_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_all_text) ) CREATE TABLE english_glob ( id serial NOT NULL, english_text text NOT NULL, is_prop integer default 1, CONSTRAINT english_glob PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_glob_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_text) ) insert into english_all(english_text) values ('ant'),('forget'),('forgive'); on function call with parameter 3 and 6 fallowing rows should fetched a an ant f fo for forg forge forget next is insert to another table based on above row insert into english_glob(english_text,is_prop) values ('a',1),('an',1), ('ant',1),('f',0), ('fo',0),('for',1), ('forg',0),('forge',1), ('forget',1), on function call next time with parameter 3 and 7 fallowing rows should fetched.(because f,fo,for,forg are all entered in english_glob table) forgi forgiv forgive

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  • How do you remind your Scrum Product Owner about his promises/actions?

    - by Felix Ogg
    ** EDIT: Rephrased the question to re-focus ** Our Scrum team meets as seldomly as possible, but we meet with the product owner every chance we get. We track everyone's agreed action points (particularly theirs). We are 100% agile, but our product owner lives in traditional world, we remain off-site. We facilitate him in crossing over to our fast-paced world. There's not much wrong. The team and the PO are in good spirits. PO is present at every meeting and positively energized. Just imagine this person as a 70 year old, slow grandpa, who is forgetful, yet kind. In reality he isn't, but he is used to a working environment (public servants) that is much slooooower. Manyana-manyana etc. It is frustrating for my team to cooperate: PO lives in a non-prioritized environment, and everyone in it has learned the productivity-technique of NGTD (Not Getting Things Done). He WANTS to, it's just that he forgets or 'sinks' somewhere along the away. We have experimented with a text file, maintained by the Scrum master (low-tech), which he broadcasts by e-mail every day JIRA, our issue tracker. Turns out this is nice for programmers, but too steep for 'regular people' I Googled for Issue tracking webtools but came up empty handed: All tools are aimed at IT issue tracking, instead of meeting action point tracking/planning for mere mortals. I did find TODO-lists like RememberTheMilk, but they don't track comments, and - to be honest - I doubt we could get our product owner to use it (too complicated). We have three requirements: Register action points, assign to a team member and a deadline Offer anyone to 'comment' on progress of any action point Do not build our own tool from scratch We do not need: - impressive authorization models, - multi-project, - workflow, - crosslinking. Is there any trick/tool you use to assist your product owner 'fly' like the rest of the rest of the team? Communication before tools I agree with the general consensus that one should not try to apply technology to a communication problem, however in this case I am merely looking for a tool to save me time in setting up prioritized lists. I found www.thymer.com today, may be what I am looking for. The guys are cool. It is getting rather feature-bloated though.

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  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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  • Looping through array in PHP to post several multipart form-data

    - by Léon Pelletier
    I'm trying in an asp web application to code a function that would loop through a list of files in a multiple upload form and send them one by one. Is this something that can be done in ASP? Because I've read some posts about how to attach several files together, but saw nothing about looping through the files. I can easily imagine it in C# via HttpWebRequest or with socket, but in php, I guess there are already function designed to handle it? // This is false/pseudo-code :) for (int index = 0; index < number_of_files; index++) { postfile(file[index]); } And in each iteration, it should send a multipart form-data POST. postfile(TheFileInfos) should make a POST like it: POST /afs.aspx?fn=upload HTTP/1.1 [Header stuff] Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=----------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 [Header stuff] ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filename" myimage1.png ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="fileid" 58e21ede4ead43a5201206101806420000007667212251 ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filedata"; filename="myimage1.png" Content-Type: application/octet-stream [Octet Stream] [Edit] I'll try it: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Document</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> </head> <body> <form name="form1" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="processFiles.php"> <p> <? // start of dynamic form $uploadNeed = $_POST['uploadNeed']; for($x=0;$x<$uploadNeed;$x++){ ?> <input name="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>" type="file" id="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>"> </p> <? // end of for loop } ?> <p><input name="uploadNeed" type="hidden" value="<? echo $uploadNeed;?>"> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </p> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Format form fields for bootstrap using rails+nokogiri

    - by user1116573
    I have the following in an initializer in a rails app that uses Twitter bootstrap so that it removes the div.field_with_errors that rails applies when validation fails on a field but also the initializer adds the help/validation text after the erroneous input field: require 'nokogiri' ActionView::Base.field_error_proc = Proc.new do |html_tag, instance| html = %(<div class="field_with_errors">#{html_tag}</div>).html_safe form_fields = [ 'textarea', 'input', 'select' ] elements = Nokogiri::HTML::DocumentFragment.parse(html_tag).css("label, " + form_fields.join(', ')) elements.each do |e| if e.node_name.eql? 'label' html = %(#{e}).html_safe elsif form_fields.include? e.node_name if instance.error_message.kind_of?(Array) html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message.join(',')}</span>).html_safe else html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message}</span>).html_safe end end end html end This works fine but I also need to apply the .error class to the surrounding div.control-group for each error. My initializer currently gives the following output: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> but I need something adding to my initializer so that it adds the .error class to the div.control-group like so: <div class="control-group error"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> The solution will probably need to allow for the fact that each validation error could have more than one label and input that are all within the same div.control-group (eg radio buttons / checkboxes / 2 text fields side by side). I assume it needs some sort of e.at_xpath() to find the div.control-group parent and add the .error class to it but I'm not sure how to do this. Can anyone help? PS This may all be possible using the formtastic or simple_form gems but I'd rather just use my own html if possible. EDIT If I put e['class'] = 'foo' in the if e.node_name.eql? 'label' section then it applies the class to the label so I think I just need to find the parent tag of e and then apply an .error class to it but I can't figure out what the xpath would be to get from label to its div.control-group parent; no combination of dots, slashes or whatever seems to work but xpath isn't my strong point.

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  • ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

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  • One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

    - by NC1
    My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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  • delphi vs c# post returns different strings - utf problem?

    - by argh
    I'm posting two forms - one in c# and one in delphi. But the result string seems to be different: c# returns: ¤@@1@@@@1@@@@1@@xsm˱Â0Ð... delphi returns: #$1E'@@1@@@@1@@@@1@@x'#$009C... and sice both are compressed streams I'm getting errors while trying to decompress it... The C# is 'correct' - ie. extracts. I'm not an expert on delphi - I just need to convert some piece of code from c# to delphi. c# code: string GetData(Hashtable aParam, string ServerURL) { string Result = ""; WebRequest Request = HttpWebRequest.Create(ServerURL); Request.Method = "POST"; Request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8"; UTF8Encoding encUTF8 = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(false); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(Request.GetRequestStream(), encUTF8); foreach (DictionaryEntry element in aParam) { writer.Write(element.Key + "=" + element.Value + "&"); } writer.Close(); writer.Dispose(); WebResponse Response = Request.GetResponse(); StreamReader Reader = new StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.Default); Result = Reader.ReadToEnd(); Reader.Close(); Response.Close(); Reader.Dispose(); return Result; } delphi code: function GetData(aParam:TStringList; ServerURL:string):string; var req: TIdHTTP; res: string; begin req := TIdHTTP.Create(); with req do begin Request.ContentType := 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8'; Request.Method := 'POST'; Request.CharSet := 'utf-8'; Request.AcceptCharSet := 'utf-8'; res := Post(ServerURL, aParam); end; Result := res; req.Free; end; -edit- I'm using delphi 2010

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  • NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

    - by Tyler
    I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

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  • Getting field of type bytea in helper table when using GenerationType.IDENTITY

    - by dtrunk
    I'm creating my db scheme using Hibernate. There's a Table called "tbl_articles" and another one called "tbl_categories". To have a n-n relationship a helper table ("tbl_articles_categories") is needed. Here are all necessary Entities: @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles" ) public class Article implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields... public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_categories" ) public class Category implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles_categories" ) @AssociationOverrides({ @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.article", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "article_id" ) ), @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.category", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "category_id" ) ) }) public class ArticleCategory { private ArticleCategoryPK pk = new ArticleCategoryPK(); public void setPk( ArticleCategoryPK pk ) { this.pk = pk; } @EmbeddedId public ArticleCategoryPK getPk() { return pk; } @Transient public Article getArticle() { return pk.getArticle(); } public void setArticle( Article article ) { pk.setArticle( article ); } @Transient public Category getCategory() { return pk.getCategory(); } public void setCategory( Category category ) { pk.setCategory( category ); } } @Embeddable public class ArticleCategoryPK implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_article_id" ) private Article article; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_category_id" ) private Category category; public ArticleCategoryPK( Article article, Category category ) { setArticle( article ); setCategory( category ); } public ArticleCategoryPK() { } public Article getArticle() { return article; } public void setArticle( Article article ) { this.article = article; } public Category getCategory() { return category; } public void setCategory( Category category ) { this.category = category; } } Now, I'm getting a serial type what I wanted in my articles table as well as in my categories table. But looking into my helper table, there aren't the expected fields article_id and category_id each of type integer - instead there are article and category of type bytea. What's wrong here? EDIT: Sorry, forgot to mention that I'm using PostgreSQL.

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  • UpdatePanel Full Postback

    - by Korivo
    Greetings, here is the scenario. I have and .aspx page with and updatepanel like this <asp:UpdatePanel id="uPanelMain" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc:Calendar id="ucCalendar" runat="server" Visible="true" /> <uc:Scoring id="ucScoring" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </ContentTemplate> The control ucCalendar is loaded first and it contains a grid like this <asp:DataGrid CssClass="grid" ID="gridGames" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HeaderStyle-CssClass="gridHeader" ItemStyle-CssClass="gridScoringRow" GridLines="None" ItemStyle-BackColor="#EEEEEE" AlternatingItemStyle-BackColor="#F5F5F5" OnEditCommand="doScoreGame" OnDeleteCommand="doEditGame" OnCancelCommand="printLineup" OnItemDataBound="gridDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn > <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkDelete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="idGame" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="isClose" Visible="false" /> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Status"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgStatus" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/img/icoX.png" alt="icoStatus" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:TemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkScore" runat="server" CommandName="Edit" Text="Score" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> So when i click the "linkButton", the codebehind of the userControl calls a public method in the .aspx as this: From the userControl protected void doScoreGame(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ((GM)this.Page).showScoring(null, null); } From the .aspx page public void showScoring(object sender, EventArgs e) { removeLastLoadedControl(); ucScoring.Visible = true; } So, here comes the problem: There are two postbacks taking place when I change the visible attribute of the ucScoring control. The first postback is fine, it's handled by the updatePanel. The second postback is a full postback, and i really don't understand why it is happening. I'm really lost here, please help! Thanks Mat

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  • Why oh why doesn't my asp.net treeview update?

    - by Brendan
    I'm using an ASP.net treeview on a page with a custom XmlDataSource. When the user clicks on a node of the tree, a detailsview pops up and edits a bunch of things about the underlying object. All this works properly, and the underlying object gets updated in my background object-management classes. Yay! However, my treeview just isn't updating the display. Either immediately (which i would like it to), or on full page re-load (which is the minimal useful level i need it to be at). Am i subclassing XmlDataSource poorly? I really don't know. Can anyone point me in a good direction? Thanks! The markup looks about like this (chaff removed): <data:DefinitionDataSource runat="server" ID="DefinitionTreeSource" RootDefinitionID="uri:1"></data:DefinitionDataSource> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView" runat="server" DataSourceID="DefinitionTreeSource"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="definition" TextField="name" ValueField="id" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="Id" DataSourceID="DefinitionSource" DefaultMode="Edit"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" HeaderStyle-Wrap="false" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:CommandField ShowCancelButton="False" ShowInsertButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" ButtonType="Button" /> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And the DefinitionTreeSource code looks like this: public class DefinitionDataSource : XmlDataSource { public string RootDefinitionID { get { if (ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] != null) return ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] as String; return null; } set { if (!Object.Equals(ViewState["RootDefinitionID"], value)) { ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] = value; DataBind(); } } } public DefinitionDataSource() { } public override void DataBind() { base.DataBind(); setData(); } private void setData() { String defXML = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" ?>"; Test.Management.TestManager.Definition root = Test.Management.TestManager.Definition.GetDefinitionById(RootDefinitionID); if (root != null) this.Data = defXML + root.ToXMLString(); else this.Data = defXML + "<definition id=\"null\" name=\"Set Root Node\" />"; } } }

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  • Blit Queue Optimization Algorithm

    - by martona
    I'm looking to implement a module that manages a blit queue. There's a single surface, and portions of this surface (bounded by rectangles) are copied to elsewhere within the surface: add_blt(rect src, point dst); There can be any number of operations posted, in order, to the queue. Eventually the user of the queue will stop posting blits, and ask for an optimal set of operations to actually perform on the surface. The task of the module is to ensure that no pixel is copied unnecessarily. This gets tricky because of overlaps of course. A blit could re-blit a previously copied pixel. Ideally blit operations would be subdivided in the optimization phase in such a way that every block goes to its final place with a single operation. It's tricky but not impossible to put this together. I'm just trying to not reinvent the wheel. I looked around on the 'net, and the only thing I found was the SDL_BlitPool Library which assumes that the source surface differs from the destination. It also does a lot of grunt work, seemingly unnecessarily: regions and similar building blocks are a given. I'm looking for something higher-level. Of course, I'm not going to look a gift horse in the mouth, and I also don't mind doing actual work... If someone can come forward with a basic idea that makes this problem seem less complex than it does right now, that'd be awesome too. EDIT: Thinking about aaronasterling's answer... could this work? Implement customized region handler code that can maintain metadata for every rectangle it contains. When the region handler splits up a rectangle, it will automatically associate the metadata of this rectangle with the resulting sub-rectangles. When the optimization run starts, create an empty region handled by the above customized code, call this the master region Iterate through the blt queue, and for every entry: Let srcrect be the source rectangle for the blt beng examined Get the intersection of srcrect and master region into temp region Remove temp region from master region, so master region no longer covers temp region Promote srcrect to a region (srcrgn) and subtract temp region from it Offset temp region and srcrgn with the vector of the current blt: their union will cover the destination area of the current blt Add to master region all rects in temp region, retaining the original source metadata (step one of adding the current blt to the master region) Add to master region all rects in srcrgn, adding the source information for the current blt (step two of adding the current blt to the master region) Optimize master region by checking if adjacent sub-rectangles that are merge candidates have the same metadata. Two sub-rectangles are merge candidates if (r1.x1 == r2.x1 && r1.x2 == r2.x2) | (r1.y1 == r2.y1 && r1.y2 == r2.y2). If yes, combine them. Enumerate master region's sub-rectangles. Every rectangle returned is an optimized blt operation destination. The associated metadata is the blt operation`s source.

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  • Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

    - by andySF
    I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • WPF DataGrid, Help with Binding to a List<X> where each X has a Dictionary<Y,object> property.

    - by panamack
    I'm building an application which helps someone manage an event and works with data originating from Excel. I want to use the WPF Toolkit DataGrid to display the incoming data but can't guarantee how many Columns there are going to be or what information they will contain. I'd like to have an Info class that stores column information and have each Visitor at my Event own a Dictionary that uses shared references to Info objects for the keys. Here's the general gist: public class Info{ public string Name{get;set;} public int InfoType{get;set;} } public class Visitor{ public Dictionary<Info,object> VisitorInfo {get;set;} } public class Event{ public List<Visitor> Visitors{get;set;} public Event(){ Info i1 = new Info(){ Name = "ID", InfoType = 0};// type 0 for an id Info i2 = new Info(){ Name = "Name", InfoType = 1};// type 1 for a string Info i3 = new Info(){ Name = "City", InfoType = 1}; Visitor v1 = new Visitor(); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i1, 0); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i2, "Foo Harris"); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i3, "Barsville"); Visitor v2 = new Visitor(); ... this.Visitors.Add(v1); this.Visitors.Add(v2); ... } } XAML: <!-- Window1.xaml --> ... <local:Event x:Key="MyEvent"/> ... <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource MyEvent}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Visitors}" /> Disappointingly, DataGrid just sees a collection of Visitors each having a VisitorInfo property and displays one column called VisitorInfo with the string "(Collection)" once for each Visitor. As a workaround I've created a ListTVisitorToDataTableConverter that maps Infos to DataColumns and Visitors to DataRows and used it like this: <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource Event}" ItemsSource{Binding Path=Visitors, Converter={StaticResource MySmellyListTVisitorToDataTableConverter}}" /> I don't think this is good though, I haven't started trying to convert back yet which I guess I'll need to do if I want to be able to edit any data! How can I do better? Thanks.

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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