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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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  • DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

    - by singer
    Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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  • In Java, howd do I iterate through lines in a textfile from back to front

    - by rogue780
    Basically I need to take a text file such as : Fred Bernie Henry and be able to read them from the file in the order of Henry Bernie Fred The actual file I'm reading from is 30MB and it would be a less than perfect solution to read the whole file, split it into an array, reverse the array and then go from there. It takes way too long. My specific goal is to find the first occurrence of a string (in this case it's "InitGame") and then return the position beginning of the beginning of that line. I did something like this in python before. My method was to seek to the end of the file - 1024, then read lines until I get to the end, then seek another 1024 from my previous starting point and, by using tell(), I would stop when I got to the previous starting point. So I would read those blocks backwards from the end of the file until I found the text I was looking for. So far, I'm having a heck of a time doing this in Java. Any help would be greatly appreciated and if you live near Baltimore it may even end up with you getting some fresh baked cookies. Thanks!

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  • I deleted a full set of columns in a save, but have the original larger sheet, Can I get that back?

    - by Ben Henley
    I have an original sheet that has over 39000 lines in it. I knocked it down to 1800 lines that I want to improt into my database, however. The Dumb#$$ that I am, I selected only the visible cells and killed like 10 columns that I need. Is there a way to compare to the original sheet using a specific column... i.e. SKU and pull the data from the origianal to put back in the missing columns or do I have to just re-edit the whole thing down again. Please help as this takes a good day or two to minimize. Any and all help is much appreciated. Below is the column list on the edited sheet vs. the original sheet. SKU DESCRIPTION VENDOR PART # RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG BLISH VENDOR # FINE LINE CLASS ITEM ACTION FLAG PRIMARY UPC STOCK U/M WEIGHT LENGTH WIDTH HEIGHT SHIP-VIA EXCLUSION HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL SKU DESCRIPTION RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG FINE LINE CLASS HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL RETAIL SENSITIVITY CODE 2ND UPC CODE 3RD UPC CODE 4TH UPC CODE HEADLINE BULLET #1 BULLET #2 BULLET #3 BULLET #4 BULLET #5 BULLET #6 BULLET #7 BULLET #8 BULLET #9 SIZE COLOR CASE QUANTITY PRODUCT LINE Thanks, Ben

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  • Eclipselink update existing tables

    - by javydreamercsw
    Maybe I got it wrong but i though that JPA was able to update an existing table (model changed adding a column) but is not working in my case. I can see in the logs eclipselink attempting to create it but failing because it already exists. Instead of trying an update to add the column it keeps going. (Had to remove some < so it displays) property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/jwrestling"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.password" value="password"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.user" value="user"/ property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.logger" value="org.eclipse.persistence.logging.DefaultSessionLog"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="INFO"/ And here's the table with the change (online column added) [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.044--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLSyntaxErrorException: Table 'account' already exists Error Code: 1050 Call: CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID)) Query: DataModifyQuery(sql="CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID))") [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.074--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException After this it continues with the following. Am I doing something wrong or is a bug?

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • What is the general feeling about reflection extensions in std::type_info?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've noticed that reflection is one feature that developers from other languages find very lacking in c++. For certain applications I can really see why! It is so much easier to write things like an IDE's auto-complete if you had reflection. And certainly serialization APIs would be a world easier if we had it. On the other side, one of the main tenets of c++ is don't pay for what you don't use. Which makes complete sense. That's something I love about c++. But it occurred to me there could be a compromise. Why don't compilers add extensions to the std::type_info structure? There would be no runtime overhead. The binary could end up being larger, but this could be a simple compiler switch to enable/disable and to be honest, if you are really concerned about the space savings, you'll likely disable exceptions and RTTI anyway. Some people cite issues with templates, but the compiler happily generates std::type_info structures for template types already. I can imagine a g++ switch like -fenable-typeinfo-reflection which could become very popular (and mainstream libs like boost/Qt/etc could easily have a check to generate code which uses it if there, in which case the end user would benefit with no more cost than flipping a switch). I don't find this unreasonable since large portable libraries like this already depend on compiler extensions. So why isn't this more common? I imagine that I'm missing something, what are the technical issues with this?

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  • What is the best way to translate this recursive python method into Java?

    - by Simucal
    In another question I was provided with a great answer involving generating certain sets for the Chinese Postman Problem. The answer provided was: def get_pairs(s): if not s: yield [] else: i = min(s) for j in s - set([i]): for r in get_pairs(s - set([i, j])): yield [(i, j)] + r for x in get_pairs(set([1,2,3,4,5,6])): print x This will output the desire result of: [(1, 2), (3, 4), (5, 6)] [(1, 2), (3, 5), (4, 6)] [(1, 2), (3, 6), (4, 5)] [(1, 3), (2, 4), (5, 6)] [(1, 3), (2, 5), (4, 6)] [(1, 3), (2, 6), (4, 5)] [(1, 4), (2, 3), (5, 6)] [(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)] [(1, 4), (2, 6), (3, 5)] [(1, 5), (2, 3), (4, 6)] [(1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 6)] [(1, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4)] [(1, 6), (2, 3), (4, 5)] [(1, 6), (2, 4), (3, 5)] [(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4)] This really shows off the expressiveness of Python because this is almost exactly how I would write the pseudo-code for the algorithm. I especially like the usage of yield and and the way that sets are treated as first class citizens. However, there in lies my problem. What would be the best way to: 1.Duplicate the functionality of the yield return construct in Java? Would it instead be best to maintain a list and append my partial results to this list? How would you handle the yield keyword. 2.Handle the dealing with the sets? I know that I could probably use one of the Java collections which implements that implements the Set interface and then using things like removeAll() to give me a set difference. Is this what you would do in that case? Ultimately, I'm looking to reduce this method into as concise and straightforward way as possible in Java. I'm thinking the return type of the java version of this method will likely return a list of int arrays or something similar. How would you handle the situations above when converting this method into Java?

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  • mysql prevent displaying a row ONE which has reference in another row TWO but no reference in row THREE

    - by Jayapal Chandran
    I have a table like the following id | name | pid 1 | sam | NULL 2 | sams ref | 1 3 | pam | NULL For the first time the first row gets inserted which will have pid as null I insert a row which is related to the first row and then i insert a row which is new and which may be referred by another row in future. now i want only the third row to be displayed and not the first and second row as the second row contains the reference of first row. so if any row has a reference to another row then both the rows should not be displayed. Only rows which is not having any reference should be displayed. BESIDES, IS IT A GOOD PRACTICE? PLEASE ADVICE ON THIS. Edited When i updated in server the query is always giving empty result. here is what i have and this one When pid is NULL then that row should appear but when another entry in the same table with pid as its parent id or any other rows id appears then both the rows should not appear. so if any pid has been referred then both the rows should not appear. here only one row will refer another row and not more than that. in my localhost i have mysql version 5.0.1 or something like that but when i installed xampp in another system it had 5.5 and in the live server it was 5.3 so in version around 5.0 the query is returning rows but in higher versions it is returning empty rows. so now i this case how to make a query?

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  • Jquery datatable Hidden column showing after calling another script .how can i hide the column specified permanently?

    - by Sreenath Plakkat
    My table is <table id="EmployeesTable" style="width: 100%;" class="grid-table06 border-one"> <thead> <tr> <th width="80%" align="left" valign="middle">Name</th> <th width="20%" align="left" valign="middle">Department</th> <th>Id</th> </tr> </thead> </table> My script as follows $(function () { $(".switchDate").click(function () { var id = $(this).attr("rel"); fetchEmployeedetails(id); }); fetchEmployeedetails(@model.Id); //on load function fetchEmployeedetails(id) { $("#EmployeesTable").dataTable({ "bProcessing": true, "bServerSide": true, "sAjaxSource": "/Employees/FetchDetails?Deptid=" + id + "&thresholdLow=4&threshold=100", "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bDestroy": true, "aaSorting": [[1, 'desc']], "asStripClasses": ['color01', 'color03'], "aoColumnDefs": [{ "aTargets": [2], "bVisible": false }, { "aTargets": [1], "fnRender": function (oObj) { return "<a href='#showemployees' rel='" + oObj.aData[2] + "'></a>"; } }] }); } }); On load it works fine not showing the hidden "Id" column but in case when I choose the id by switchDate on click function it causes the hidden column to be visible for second. How can I hide the column permanently?

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • Ibator didn't generate Oracle varchar2 field

    - by bugbug
    I have table APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE with following fields: "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "TRACK_NO" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "REQ_DATE" DATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "OFFCODE" CHAR(6 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "COMPARE_CASE_ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "VEHICLE_NAME" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "ENGINE_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "BODY_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "HOLD_SHIP" NUMBER, "OWNERSHIP" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "RENT_NAME" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "CONTRACT" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_DATE" DATE, "ISLAWBREAKERRENT" CHAR(1 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "MISTAKE_DETAIL" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "COMPARE_REASON" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "CREATE_BY" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "CREATE_ON" DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "UPDATE_BY" NUMBER, "UPDATE_ON" DATE, When I generate a java bean using Ibator , I didn't find trackNo, VehicalName, ... (all fields defined as varchar2). What is the problem in my case? Here is my Ibator configuration file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE ibatorConfiguration PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Apache iBATIS Ibator Configuration 1.0//EN" "http://ibatis.apache.org/dtd/ibator-config_1_0.dtd"> <ibatorConfiguration> <classPathEntry location="/dos/connector/oracle_jdbc.jar"/> <ibatorContext id="autoPerson" defaultModelType="flat" targetRuntime="Ibatis2Java2"> <jdbcConnection connectionURL="jdbc:oracle:thin:@192.168.42.144:1521:orcl" driverClass="oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver" userId="user" password="password"/> <javaModelGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> <property name="trimStrings" value="true"/> </javaModelGenerator> <sqlMapGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.map" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> </sqlMapGenerator> <daoGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model.dao" type="SPRING" targetProject="FormConfig" implementationPackage="com.ko.model.dao.impl" > <property name="enableSubPackges" value="true"/> <property name="methodNameCalculator" value="extended"/> </daoGenerator> <table tableName="APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE" domainObjectName="AppReqApproveCompare"/> <ibatorConfiguration>

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  • Design suggestion for expression tree evaluation with time-series data

    - by Lirik
    I have a (C#) genetic program that uses financial time-series data and it's currently working but I want to re-design the architecture to be more robust. My main goals are: sequentially present the time-series data to the expression trees. allow expression trees to access previous data rows when needed. to optimize performance of the data access while evaluating the expression trees. keep a common interface so various types of data can be used. Here are the possible approaches I've thought about: I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in a data row into the root node and let each child node use the same data row. I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in the data row index and letting each node get the data row from a shared DataSet (currently I'm passing the row index and going to multiple synchronized arrays to get the data). Hybrid: an immutable data set is accessible by all of the expression trees and each expression tree is evaluated by passing in a data row. The benefit of the first approach is that the data row is being passed into the expression tree and there is no further query done on the data set (which should increase performance in a multithreaded environment). The drawback is that the expression tree does not have access to the rest of the data (in case some of the functions need to do calculations using previous data rows). The benefit of the second approach is that the expression trees can access any data up to the latest data row, but unless I specify what that row is, I'll have to iterate through the rows and figure out which one is the last one. The benefit of the hybrid is that it should generally perform better and still provide access to the earlier data. It supports two basic "views" of data: the latest row and the previous rows. Do you guys know of any design patterns or do you have any tips that can help me build this type of system? Should I use a DataSet to hold and present the data, or are there more efficient ways to present rows of data while maintaining a simple interface? FYI: All of my code is written in C#.

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  • MFC Combo-Box Control is not showing the full list of items when I click the drop-down menu...

    - by shan23
    I'm coding an app in MSVS 2008, which has a ComboBox control which I initialize thru the code as below: static char* OptionString[4] = {"Opt1", "Opt2", "Opt3", "Opt4"}; BOOL CMyAppDlg::OnInitDialog() { CDialog::OnInitDialog(); // Set the icon for this dialog. The framework does this automatically // when the application's main window is not a dialog SetIcon(m_hIcon, TRUE); // Set big icon SetIcon(m_hIcon, FALSE); // Set small icon // TODO: Add extra initialization here m_Option.AddString(OptionString[0]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[1]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[2]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[3]); m_Option.SetCurSel(0); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } Now, when I build the app and click the down-arrow, the drop-down box shows the first option ONLY(since I've selected that thru my code). But, if i press down-arrow key on keyboard, it cycles thru the options in the order I've inserted, but never does it show more than 1 option in the box. So, In case an user wants to select option3, he has to cycle through options 1 and 2 !! Though once I select any option using the keyboard, the appropriate event handlers are fired, I'm miffed by this behaviour , as is understandable. I'm listing the properties of the combo-box control as well - only the properties that are true(rest are set to false): Type - Dropdown Vertical Scrollbar Visible Tabstop This has bugged me for weeks now. Can anyone pls enlighten me ?

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  • How to insert an Array/Objet into SQL (bestpractice)

    - by Jason
    I need to store three items as an array in a single column and be able to quickly/easily modify that data in later functions. [---YOU CAN SKIP THIS PART IF YOU TRUST ME--] To be clear, I love and use x_ref tables all the time but an x_ref doesn't work here because this is not a one-to-many relationship. I am making a project management tool that among other things, assigns a user to a project and assigns hours to that project on a weekly basis, per user, sometimes for weeks many weeks into the future. Of course there are many projects, a project can have many team members, a team member can be involved with many projects at one time BUT its not one-to-many because a team member can be working many weeks on the same project but have different hours for different weeks. In other words, each object really is unique. Also/finally, this data can be changed at any time by any team-member - hence it needs to be easily to manipulate. Basically, I need to handle three values (the team member, the week we're talking about, and how many hours) dropped into a project row in the projects table (under the column for project team members) and treated as one item - a team member - that will actually be part of a larger array of all the team members involved on the project. [--END SKIP, START READING HERE :) --] So assuming that the application's general schema and relation tables aren't total crap and that we are in fact up against a wall in this one case to use an array/object as a value for this column, is there a best practice for that? Like a particular SQL data-type? A particular object/array format? CSV? JSON? XML? Most of the app is in C# but (for very odd reasons that I won't explain) we could really use any environment if there is a particular one that handles this well. For the moment, I am thinking either (webservice + JS/JSON) or PHP unserialize/serialize (but I am bit sketched out by the PHP solution because it seems a bit cumbersome when using ajax?) Thoughts anyone?

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  • Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

    - by BlueRaja
    Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • MyMessage<T> throws an exception when calling XmlSerializer

    - by Arthis
    I am very new to nservicebus. I am using version 3.0.1, the last one up to date. And I wonder if my case is a normal limitation of NSB, I am not aware of. I have an asp.net MVC application, I am trying to setup and in my global.asax, I have the following : var configure = Configure.WithWeb() .DefaultBuilder() .ForMvc() .XmlSerializer(); But I have an error with the XmlSerializer when dealing with one of my object: [Serializable] public class MyMessage<T> : IMessage { public T myobject { get; set; } } I pass trough : XmlSerializer() instance.Initialize(types); this.InitType(type, moduleBuilder); this.InitType(info2.PropertyType, moduleBuilder); and then when dealing With T, string typeName = GetTypeName(t); typename is null and the following instruction : if (!nameToType.ContainsKey(typeName)) ends in error. null value not allowed. Is this some limitations to Nservicebus, or am I messing something up?

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  • EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

    - by quixoto
    Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • c# web extracting programming, which libraries, examples samples please

    - by user287745
    I have just started programming and have made a few small applications in C and C#. My understanding is that programming for web and thing related to web is nowadays a very easy task. Please note this is for personnel learning, not for rent a coder or any money making. An application which can run on any Windows platform even Windows 98. The application should start automatically at a scheduled time and do the following. Connect to a site which displays stock prices summary (high low current open). Capture the data (excluding the other things in the site.) And save it to disk (an SQL database) Please note:- Internet connection is assumed to be there always. Do not want to know how to make database schema or database. The stock exchange has no law prohibiting the use of the data provided on its site, but I do not want to mention the name in case I am wrong, but it's for personal private use only. The data of summary of pricing is arranged in a table such that when copied pasted to MS Excel it automatically forms a table. need steps guidance please, examples, lbraries

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