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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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  • Dojo dialog, the iPad and the virtual keyboard issue

    - by Chris Butler
    Recently, I have been working on a project where the interface should work for desktop and tablets (in particular the iPad). One issue I am coming across is with a Dojo dialog on the iPad when text entry is taking place. Basically here is what happens: Load Dojo interface with buttons on iPad - OK Press button (touch) to show dialog (90% height and width) - OK Click on text box (touch) like DateTextBox or TimeTextBox - OK, the virtual keyboard is opened Click the date or time I want in the UI (touch) - OK, but I can't see all of the options since it is longer than the screen size... Try to scroll down (swipe up with two fingers or click 'next' in the keyboard) - not OK and the dialog repositions itself to have it's top at the top of the viewport area. Basically, the issue is that the dialog keeps trying to reposition itself. Am I able to stop dialog resizing and positioning if I catch the window onResize events? Does anyone else have this issue with the iPad and Dojo dialogs? Also, I found this StackOverflow topic on detecting the virtual keyboard, but it wasn't much help in this case... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2593139/ipad-web-app-detect-virtual-keyboard-using-javascript-in-safari Thanks!

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  • CreateDelegate with unknown types

    - by Giorgi
    Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

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  • How to float a <div> echoed in the footer over a <div> located elsewhere (PHP/jQuery/HTML/CSS)

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello All! I'm embarking on a major project, but am stuck on a tiny issue at the very start. I'll try to be as concise as possible. I have a PHP script that will be echoing into the footer of the page (the last stuff before a bunch of s containing visible buttons and s containing hidden dialog boxes. The plan is to have the buttons float in the upper-right corner of corresponding s in the main content area of the page. i.e. - button-1 echoed into the footer will float in the corner of content-box-1, and will be tied to the hidden 'dialog-1'. I'll be using jQuery and jQuery UI Dialog throughout the page(s). I'm not sure if that's particularly relevant to this question, but thought it worth mentioning just in case. So my question, put simply, is how do I echo a Button 1 into the footer with PHP, but have it float in the upper-right corner (with maybe 5px margin) of Content 1 is full of content? A picture says a thousand words: As shown above, I want the little blue gear button things in the corner of content pieces, locked and loaded with hidden s containing dialog boxes. Again, the catch is that all buttons and hidden divs will be the very last items echoed into the page footer. I've found plenty of info on how to float divs on top of divs, but all the examples I saw showed the s in close proximity to each other in the page source; not with a hundred lines of source code between the two s I'm not sure if the solution is pure CSS, pure jQuery/jQueryUI or a combination of the two. Any advice will be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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  • Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

    - by user304361
    I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • Why use INCLUDE in a SQL index

    - by StarLite
    I recently encountered an index in a database I maintain that was of the form: CREATE INDEX [IX_Foo] ON [Foo] ( Id ASC ) INCLUDE ( SubId ) In this particular case, the performance problem that I was encountering (a slow SELECT filtering on both Id and SubId) could be fixed by simply moving the SubId column into the index proper rather than as an included column. This got me thinking however that I don't understand the reasoning behind included columns at all, when generally, they could simply be a part of the index itself. Even if I don't particularly care about the items being in the index itself is there any downside to having column in the index rather than simply being included. After some research, I am aware that there are a number of restrictions on what can go into an indexed column (maximum width of the index, and some column types that can't be indexed like 'image'). In these cases I can see that you would be forced to include the column in the index page data. The only thing I can think of is that if there are updates on SubId, the row will not need to be relocated if the column is included (though the value in the index would need to be changed). Is there something else that I'm missing? I'm considering going through the other indexes in the database and shifting included columns in the index proper where possible. Would this be a mistake? I'm primarily interested in MS SQL Server, but information on other DB engines is welcome also.

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  • DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

    - by Harryboy
    Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

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  • Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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  • How to fix codesign when it says user cancelled the operation? (And I didn't)

    - by eipipuz
    I'm compiling an iPhone app meant to be Distributed. It's my first app so I followed the "iPhone Provisioning Profiles" instructions. Unfortunately it fails with this: CodeSign build/*_*_.app cd "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_" setenv IGNORE_CODESIGN_ALLOCATE_RADAR_7181968 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/codesign_allocate setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: ******" "--resource-rules=/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app/ResourceRules.plist" --entitlements "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent" "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app" /Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app: The operation was cancelled by the user. Command /usr/bin/codesign failed with exit code 1 I thought Keychain wasn't allowing Codesign to work but as far as I can tell that isn't the case. I also attempted running these commands from a terminal and it failed with this message: Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent: cannot read entitlement data I have made the xcode setting from scratch three times. Googled it. No results. I don't have any idea what else to try. Any suggestions?

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  • How can I work around SQL Server - Inline Table Value Function execution plan variation based on par

    - by Ovidiu Pacurar
    Here is the situation: I have a table value function with a datetime parameter ,lest's say tdf(p_date) , that filters about two million rows selecting those with column date smaller than p_date and computes some aggregate values on other columns. It works great but if p_date is a custom scalar value function (returning the end of day in my case) the execution plan is altered an the query goes from 1 sec to 1 minute execution time. A proof of concept table - 1K products, 2M rows: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[POC]( [Date] [datetime] NOT NULL, [idProduct] [int] NOT NULL, [Quantity] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The inline table value function: CREATE FUNCTION tdf (@p_date datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT idProduct, SUM(Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, max(Date) as LastDate FROM POC WHERE (Date < @p_date) GROUP BY idProduct ) The scalar value function: CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[EndOfDay] (@date datetime) RETURNS datetime AS BEGIN DECLARE @res datetime SET @res=dateadd(second, -1, dateadd(day, 1, dateadd(ms, -datepart(ms, @date), dateadd(ss, -datepart(ss, @date), dateadd(mi,- datepart(mi,@date), dateadd(hh, -datepart(hh, @date), @date)))))) RETURN @res END Query 1 - Working great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (getdate()) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 13% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86% Query 2 - Not so great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (dbo.EndOfDay(getdate())) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 4% <--- Filter Cost 12% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86%

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  • Python: deleting rows in a text file

    - by Jenny
    A sample of the following text file i have is: > 1 -4.6 -4.6 -7.6 > > 2 -1.7 -3.8 -3.1 > > 3 -1.6 -1.6 -3.1 the data is separated by tabs in the text file and the first column indicates the position. I need to iterate through every value in the text file apart from column 0 and find the lowest value. once the lowest value has been found that value needs to be written to a new text file along with the column name and position. Column 0 has the name "position" Column 1 "fifteen", column 2 "sixteen" and column 3 "seventeen" for example the lowest value in the above data is "-7.6" and is in column 3 which has the name "seventeen". Therefore "7.6", "seventeen" and its position value which in this case is 1 need to be written to the new text file. I then need a number of rows deleted from the above text file. E.G. the lowest value above is "-7.6" and is found at position "1" and is found in column 3 which as the name "seventeen". I therefore need seventeen rows deleted from the text file starting from and including position 1 so the the column in which the lowest value is found denotes the amount of rows that needs to be deleted and the position it is found at states the start point of the deletion

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  • Multhreading in Java

    - by Vijay Selvaraj
    I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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  • Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

    - by morpheous
    I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • Can addition of an ActionListener be short? Can I add arguments to the actionPerformed?

    - by Roman
    I have a big table containing a button in each cell. These buttons are very similar and do almost the same. If I add an action listener to every button in this way: tmp.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { proposition = proposition + action; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { updatePropositionPanel(); } }); } }); Actually, every action listener differ from all others by the value of the action. proposition and updatePropositionPanel are a field and a method of the class. First i thought that I can make it shorter if I do not use inner classes. So, I decided to program a new ActionListener class. But than I realized that in this case "proposition" will not be visible to the instances of this class. Then I decided to add the actionPerformed method to the current class and do that: addActionListener(this). But than I realized that I do not know how give arguments to the actionPerformed method. So, how does it work. Can I add an action listener in a short and elegent way?

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  • How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

    - by Paul Lalonde
    I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • Bash: how to simply parallelize tasks?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm writing a tiny script that calls the "PNGOUT" util on a few hundred PNG files. I simply did this: find $BASEDIR -iname "*png" -exec pngout {} \; And then I looked at my CPU monitor and noticed only one of the core was used, which is quite sad. In this day and age of dual, quad, octo and hexa (?) cores desktop, how do I simply parallelize this task with Bash? (it's not the first time I've had such a need, for quite a lot of these utils are mono-threaded... I already had the case with mp3 encoders). Would simply running all the pngout in the background do? How would my find command look like then? (I'm not too sure how to mix find and the '&' character) I if have three hundreds pictures, this would mean swapping between three hundreds processes, which doesn't seem great anyway!? Or should I copy my three hundreds files or so in "nb dirs", where "nb dirs" would be the number of cores, then run concurrently "nb finds"? (which would be close enough) But how would I do this?

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  • .NET RegEx - First N chars of First M lines

    - by George
    Hello! I want 4 general RegEx expressions for the following 4 basic cases: Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines occurring before D lines from end of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting before D lines from end of file These would allow to select arbitrary text blocks anywhere in the file. So far I have managed to come up with cases that only work for lines and chars separately: (?<=(?m:^[^\r]{N}))[^\r]{1,M} = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, AFTER FIRST N chars [^\r]{1,M}(?=(?m:.{N}\r$)) = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, BEFORE LAST N chars The above 2 expressions are for chars, and they return MANY matches (one for each line). (?<=(\A([^\r]*\r\n){N}))(?m:\n*[^\r]*\r$){1,M} = UP TO M lines AFTER FIRST N lines (((?=\r?)\n[^\r]*\r)|((?=\r?)\n[^\r]+\r?)){1,M}(?=((\n[^\r]*\r)|(\n[^\r]+\r?)){N}\Z) = UP TO M lines BEFORE LAST N lines from end These 2 expressions are equivalents for the lines, but they always return just ONE match. The task is to combine these expressions to allow for scenarios 1-4. Anyone can help? Note that the case in the title of the question, is just a subclass of scenario #1, where both B = 0 and D = 0. EXAMPLE: SOURCE: line1 blah 1 line2 blah 2 line3 blah 3 line4 blah 4 line5 blah 5 line6 blah 6 DESIRED RESULT: Characters 3-6 of lines 3-5: A total of 3 matches: <match>ne3 </match> <match>ne4 </match> <match>ne5 </match>

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  • What is the general feeling about reflection extensions in std::type_info?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've noticed that reflection is one feature that developers from other languages find very lacking in c++. For certain applications I can really see why! It is so much easier to write things like an IDE's auto-complete if you had reflection. And certainly serialization APIs would be a world easier if we had it. On the other side, one of the main tenets of c++ is don't pay for what you don't use. Which makes complete sense. That's something I love about c++. But it occurred to me there could be a compromise. Why don't compilers add extensions to the std::type_info structure? There would be no runtime overhead. The binary could end up being larger, but this could be a simple compiler switch to enable/disable and to be honest, if you are really concerned about the space savings, you'll likely disable exceptions and RTTI anyway. Some people cite issues with templates, but the compiler happily generates std::type_info structures for template types already. I can imagine a g++ switch like -fenable-typeinfo-reflection which could become very popular (and mainstream libs like boost/Qt/etc could easily have a check to generate code which uses it if there, in which case the end user would benefit with no more cost than flipping a switch). I don't find this unreasonable since large portable libraries like this already depend on compiler extensions. So why isn't this more common? I imagine that I'm missing something, what are the technical issues with this?

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  • how to access control in templatefield gridview with custom id

    - by Mohsen.Tavoosi
    i have a customized gridview.my grid is able to sort for each column just by 1 click in the header without any setting and overloading methods such as sorting,etc by user(programmer).(i do this successfully and work fine) users(programmers) maybe add each column in grid.such as template field,hyperlinkfield,boundfield... . for sorting, i must access datafield of columns. i can access boundfield column by this code.i can access datafield and header text and ... sample: for (int j = 0; j < this.Columns.Count; j++) { BoundField bf; bf = this.Columns[j] as BoundField; if (bf != null) { string ht = bf.HeaderText; string df = bf.DataField; } } but i can access control in the templateField.such as ColumnBound. sample: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Name") %>'></asp:Label> i want access "Name" (Bind ("Name") or Eval ("Name")) . how can i? there is a point: i dont now what is the ID (in this case "Label1") of control in templatefield. special thanks

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