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  • Static variable not initialized

    - by Simon Linder
    Hi all, I've got a strange problem with a static variable that is obviously not initialized as it should be. I have a huge project that runs with Windows and Linux. As the Linux developer doesn't have this problem I would suggest that this is some kind of wired Visual Studio stuff. Header file class MyClass { // some other stuff here ... private: static AnotherClass* const Default_; }; CPP file AnotherClass* const Default_(new AnotherClass("")); MyClass(AnotherClass* const var) { assert(Default_); ... } Problem is that Default_is always NULL. I also tried a breakpoint at the initialization of that variable but I cannot catch it. There is a similar problem in another class. CPP file std::string const MyClass::MyString_ ("someText"); MyClass::MyClass() { assert(MyString_ != ""); ... } In this case MyString_is always empty. So again not initialized. Does anyone have an idea about that? Is this a Visual Studio settings problem? Cheers Simon

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  • Why does the page posts take so long?

    - by Olle
    Hi! I am having some problems with some page post backs that take a loooong time to execute. If I do a "appcmd list requests" I can get something like this: REQUEST "79000001800004e3" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:87219 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:ExecuteRequestHandler, module:ManagedPipelineHandler) REQUEST "8600000080002f82" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:61391 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) REQUEST "5e00010280000420" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:21047 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) It's one particular file that causes the problem (dir/file.aspx in this case). It comes from the same IP-adress. And the first on is from ManagedPipelineHandler module and the two after that from Session module. I do not have any details about the web browser, or anything more about the client for that matter. I have looked for sql dead locks and did not find any. There are no long running sql queries at all. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem? Regards.

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  • click event launched only once problem

    - by user281180
    I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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  • Accessing selected node of richfaces tree from Javascript

    - by kazanaki
    Hello This should be a very simple question. I have a richfaces tree that is rendered using JSF. When the user clicks on a node I want a javascript function to run. Nothing more nothing less. No redirects, no re-submit, no-rerender, no Ajax. Just plain old Javascript. I have seen the onselected attribute of the tree and it indeed fires a Javascript method. But of course I want to know which node was clicked. Here is what I have so far <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function documentClicked(nodeRef) { alert("Node is "+nodeRef); } </script> </head> <rich:tree switchType="client" value="#{ajaxDocumentTree.rootNode}" var="document" onselected="documentClicked()" > <rich:treeNode iconLeaf="../images/tree/doc.gif" icon="../images/tree/doc.gif"> <h:outputText value="#{doc.friendlyName}" /> </rich:treeNode> But this does not work because nodeRef is undefined. I expected that the first argument of the callback would be the selected node but this is not the case. So the question is this: How do I fire a Javascript function with the selected node from a richfaces tree?

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  • radgrid insert using radwinow

    - by Hamza
    Hello Everybody, The company details page in my system has a user control to show the founders of the company, that user control represents the founders by using a Rad Grid and three buttons for insert/edit/delete founders, the founders grid is being bind by using a WCF service. the insert button calls a javascript method that opens a Rad Window in which the user can insert the data for a new founder my problem is: in the Add Founder Rad Window I shouldn't save the new founder in the database, when I press Add the Rad Grid should be closed and the new founder should be added to the founders Grid's datasource, and then the grid should be bind again the questions is: what is the best way to do that, I don't want to use sessions nor json, I tried to use another wcf service which takes two parameters: reference to the grid and the new founder, and in this wcf service I get the old datasource then add the new founder to it and finally rebind the grid again, but I have faced some problems like how can I send the reference to the grid from javascript method to a WCF service, also if I add more than one founder how can keep track of the new founders and the original datasource if any of you can lead me to an example similar to my case this would be very much appreciated, also any comments and feedback are most welcomed

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  • ObjectContext disposed puzzle

    - by jaklucky
    Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

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  • jQuery Colorbox Iframe and Selector

    - by Joker
    I have this: $("a.money").colorbox({href:$("a.money").attr("href")+" div#content"}); Which opens an overlay but only of the content within the #content selector. If I add iframe:true, this will no longer work. Is there a way to get it to work with an iframe? Edit: The closest I could get it to work was by doing this: $("a.money").colorbox({iframe:true, width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { alert('test'); $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); Although without the alert it doesn't appear to work, I looked into that and I think I need to use .live(), which led me to trying this: $('a.money').live('click', function() { url = this.href; // this is the url of the element event is triggered from $.fn.colorbox({href: url, iframe:true,width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); return false; }); Didn't work, I still needed to add an alert to make it work. In case you might be wondering what I'm trying to do. The webpage is loaded in the iframe, with all the elements in the #container, so that includes #header, #sidebars, but I only want to show the #content inside the iframe. However, this led me to another problem I realized. Assuming I got this to work without the alert, it will only work for that initial page. For example, if I loaded up a form in the iframe, after submitting the form, I would once again see the whole layout instead of just the #content portion. Is it possible to continue only showing the #content portion of the page upon further navigation?

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  • "error creating files compilation failed" when publishing for iOS on Flash CS5.5

    - by user1662660
    I'm currently developing an app using Flash CS5.5 for iOS. All of my .ipa files have been created and tested with no problems so far. Until now. I'm using Windows. It only started today and happens to every file I try to publish. I get the error "error creating files. compilation failed..." That is the only piece of information I am given about the error. All of my certificates and provisioning profiles are legit and still valid. Has anyone had any experience with this before? Since posting the question I have found a resolution that I will post for anyone who encounters the same problem. In this case I was unable to publish my .ipa file as I was opening the document (and Flash) from the start menu in Windows 7. To fix this instance of the issue I simply opened Flash first and then opened my document and I was able to publish.

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  • How to get the ui:param value in Javabean

    - by mihaela
    Hello, I am learning facelets and Seam and I'm facing the following problem: I'm have 2 xhtml files, one includes the other and each one has its own Seam component as backing bean. I want to send and object to the included facelet and obtain that object in the backing bean corresponding to the included facelet. I'll take an example to explain better the situation: registration.xhtml with Seam component as backing bean Registration.java. In this class I have an object of type Person address.html with Seam component as backing bean Address.java. In this class i want to obtain the Person object from the Registration component and set the address. registration.xhtml includes the address.xhtml and passes an object using How to obtain this object in Address bean? Will be the same reference of the object from the Registration bean? is the solution of passing this object or there is another solution for that? (maybe f:attribute, but even in this case how do I obtain the object in bean) This example is simple and not necessarily realistic but I have a similar problem and I don't know how to solve it. Thanks in advance.

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  • PHP (A few questions) OO, refactoring, eclipse

    - by jax
    I am using PHP in eclipse. It works ok, I can connect to my remote site, there is colour coding of code elements and some code hints. I realise this may be too long to answer all questions, if you have a good answer for one part, answering just that is ok. Firstly General Coding I have found that it is easy to loose track of included files and their variables. For example if there was a database $cursor it is difficult to remember or even know that it was declared in the included file (this becomes much worse the more files you include). How are people dealing with this? How are people documenting their code - in particular the required GET and POST data? Secondly OO Development: Should I be going full OO in my development. Currently I have a functions library which I can include and have separated each "task" into a separate file. It is a bit nasty but it works. If I go OO how do I structure the directories in PHP, java uses packages - what about php? How should I name my files, should I use all lower case with _ for spaces "hello_world.php"? Should I name classes with Uppercase like Java "HelloWorld.php"? Is there a different naming convention for Classes and regular function files? Thirdly Refactoring I must say this is a real pain. If I change the name of a variable in one place I have to go through whole document and each file that included this file and change the name their too. Of course, errors everywhere is what results. How are people dealing with this problem? In Java if you change the name in one place it changes everywhere. Are there any plugins to improve php refactoring? I am using the official PHP version of Eclipse from their website. thanks

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  • Why does my call to Activator.CreateInstance intermittently fail?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I'm using the following code to access the Windows Explorer Shell's band site service: Guid GUID_TrayBandSiteService = new Guid(0xF60AD0A0, 0xE5E1, 0x45cb, 0xB5, 0x1A, 0xE1, 0x5B, 0x9F, 0x8B, 0x29, 0x34); Type shellTrayBandSiteService = Type.GetTypeFromCLSID(GUID_TrayBandSiteService, true); site = Activator.CreateInstance(shellTrayBandSiteService) as IBandSite; Mostly, it works great. A very small percentage of the time (less than 1%), the call to Activator.CreateInstance throws the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80040154): Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {F60AD0A0-E5E1-45CB-B51A-E15B9F8B2934} failed due to the following error: 80040154. at System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandle& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean fillCache) at System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceImpl(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean fillCache) at System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) I've looked up the error code, and it appears to indicate that the service isn't registered. That's nonsense in my case, since I'm trying to access a service provided by the operating system (explorer.exe, to be specific). I'm stumped. What might cause Activator.CreateInstance fail, but only rarely?

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  • Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

    - by Thang Pham
    when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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  • My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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  • Nested Groups in Regex

    - by cryptic-star
    I'm constructing a regex that is looking for dates. I would like to return the date found and the sentence it was found in. In the code below, the strings on either side of date_string should check for the conditions of a sentence. For your sake, I've omitted the regex for date_string - sufficed to say, it works for picking out dates. While the inside of date_string isn't important, it is grouped as one entire regex. "((?:[^.|?|!]*)"+date_string+"(?:[^.|?|!]*[.|?|!]\s*))" The problem is that date_string is only matching the last number of any given date, presumably because the regex in front of date_string is matching too far and overrunning the date regex. For example, if I say "Independence Day is July 4.", I will get the sentence and 4, even though it should match 'July 4'. In case you're wondering, my regex inside date_string are ordered in such a way that 'July 4' should match first. Is there any way to do this all in one regex? Or do I need to split it up somehow (i.e. split up all text into sentences, and then check each sentence)?

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  • Name Values in Excel Object model

    - by mcoolbeth
    I am using VSTO to create an Excel add-in. My plan is to persist objects inside of excel workbooks by serializing them to strings and assigning those strings to be the values of names in the workbook. However, when I call the API function to add the new name, I get a mysterious exception from the COM library. More precisely, I am calling _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, value, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); where name = "an_object" and value = "TestTemplate|'Sheet1'!$A$1| 1Cube=(0,1):(1,2)| 2EntryNumber=(1,1):(2,2)| 3Description=(2,1):(3,2)| 4Group=(4,1):(5,2)| 5Repost=(3,1):(4,2)| 6Debit=(13,3):(16,4)| 7Credit=(13,2):(16,3)|Company=(6,1):(7,2)|Company Partner=(7,1):(8,2)|Time Monthly=(8,1):(9,2)|Currency=(9,1):(10,2)|Version=(10,1):(11,2)|Department=(13,0):(16,1)|Account=(13,1):(16,2)|" A hypothesis is that the value string does not qualify as a string that can be stored in a name (illegal characters, too long, etc) but I cannot find any documentation about what the restrictions are. Does anyone know what is going wrong here? The error message, in case anyone wants it, is Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC Thanks alot.

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  • Why does std::cout convert volatile pointers to bool?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    If you try to cout a volatile pointer, even a volatile char pointer where you would normally expect cout to print the string, you will instead simply get '1' (assuming the pointer is not null I think). I assume output stream operator<< is template specialized for volatile pointers, but my question is, why? What use case motivates this behavior? Example code: #include <iostream> #include <cstring> int main() { char x[500]; std::strcpy(x, "Hello world"); int y; int *z = &y; std::cout << x << std::endl; std::cout << (char volatile*)x << std::endl; std::cout << z << std::endl; std::cout << (int volatile*)z << std::endl; return 0; } Output: Hello world 1 0x8046b6c 1

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Find actual value of PHP variable

    - by Simon S
    Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

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  • AppEngine JDO-QL : Problem with multiple AND and OR in query

    - by KlasE
    Hi, I'm working with App Engine(Java/JDO) and are trying to do some querying with lists. So I have the following class: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION, detachable="true") public class MyEntity { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Key key; @Persistent List<String> tags = new ArrayList<String>(); @Persistent String otherVar; } The following JDO-QL works for me: ( tags.contains('a') || tags.contains('b') || tags.contains('c') || tags.contains('d') ) && otherVar > 'a' && otherVar < 'z' This seem to return all results where tags has one or more strings with one or more of the given values and together with the inequality search on otherVar But the following do not work: (tags.contains('a') || tags.contains('_a')) && (tags.contains('b') || tags.contains('_b')) && otherVar > 'a' && otherVar < 'z' In this case I want all hits where there is at least one a (either a or _a) and one b (either b or _b) together with the inequality search as before. But the problem is that I also get back the results where there is a but no b, which is not what I want. Maybe I have missed something obvious, or done a coding error, or possibly there is a restriction on how you can write these queries in appengine, so any tips or help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • Datatable add new column and values speed issue

    - by Cine
    I am having some speed issue with my datatables. In this particular case I am using it as holder of data, it is never used in GUI or any other scenario that actually uses any of the fancy features. In my speed trace, this particular constructor was showing up as a heavy user of time when my database is ~40k rows. The main user was set_Item of DataTable. protected myclass(DataTable dataTable, DataColumn idColumn) { this.dataTable = dataTable; IdColumn = idColumn ?? this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); JobIdColumn = this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); IsNewColumn = this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); int id = 1; foreach (DataRow r in this.dataTable.Rows) { r[JobIdColumn] = id++; r[IsNewColumn] = (r[IdColumn] == null || r[IdColumn].ToString() == string.Empty) ? 1 : 0; } Digging deeper into the trace, it turns out that set_Item calls EndEdit, which brings my thoughts to the transaction support of the DataTable, for which I have no usage for in my scenario. So my solution to this was to open editing on all of the rows and never close them again. _dt.BeginLoadData(); foreach (DataRow row in _dt.Rows) row.BeginEdit(); Is there a better solution? This feels too much like a big giant hack that will eventually come and bite me. You might suggest that I dont use DataTable at all, but I have already considered that and rejected it due to the amount of effort that would be required to reimplement with a custom class. The main reason it is a datatable is that it is ancient code (.net 1.1 time) and I dont want to spend that much time changing it, and it is also because the original table comes out of a third party component.

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • How to solve concurrency problems in ASP.NET Windows-Workflow and ActiveRecord/NHibernate?

    - by Famous Nerd
    I have found that ActiveRecord uses the Session-Scope object within the ASP.NET application and that if the web-site is read-write we can have a tug-o-war between the Workflow's own Data-Access SessionScope and that of the ASP.NET site. I would really like to have the WindowsWorkflow Runtime use the same object session as the web-site however, they have different lifetimes. Sometimes, a web-request may save a very simple piece of data which would execute quickly however, if the web-site kicks off a workflow process.. how can that workflow make data-modifications while still allowing the Appliaction_EndRequest to dispose the ASP.NET SessionScope ... it's like ownership of the SessionScope should be shared between the workflow runtime and the ASP.NET website. Manual Workflow Scheduler may be the Savior... if a workflow is synchronous and merely uses CallExternalMethod to interact with the Host then we could constrain all the data-access to the host.. then the sessionScope can exist once. This however, won't solve the problem of a delay activity... if this delay fires, we could need to update data... in this case we'd need an isolated Session Scope and concurrency may arise. This however, differs from SharePoint workflows where it seems that the SharePoint workflow can save data from the web and the workflow and that concurrency is handled through other means. Can anyone offer any suggestions on how to allow the workflow to manage data and play nice with ASP.NET web sites?

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  • How do I locate a particular word in a text file using C#

    - by cmrhema
    Hi, I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that. Kindly do let me know. Thanks.

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  • How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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