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  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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  • Name Values in Excel Object model

    - by mcoolbeth
    I am using VSTO to create an Excel add-in. My plan is to persist objects inside of excel workbooks by serializing them to strings and assigning those strings to be the values of names in the workbook. However, when I call the API function to add the new name, I get a mysterious exception from the COM library. More precisely, I am calling _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, value, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); where name = "an_object" and value = "TestTemplate|'Sheet1'!$A$1| 1Cube=(0,1):(1,2)| 2EntryNumber=(1,1):(2,2)| 3Description=(2,1):(3,2)| 4Group=(4,1):(5,2)| 5Repost=(3,1):(4,2)| 6Debit=(13,3):(16,4)| 7Credit=(13,2):(16,3)|Company=(6,1):(7,2)|Company Partner=(7,1):(8,2)|Time Monthly=(8,1):(9,2)|Currency=(9,1):(10,2)|Version=(10,1):(11,2)|Department=(13,0):(16,1)|Account=(13,1):(16,2)|" A hypothesis is that the value string does not qualify as a string that can be stored in a name (illegal characters, too long, etc) but I cannot find any documentation about what the restrictions are. Does anyone know what is going wrong here? The error message, in case anyone wants it, is Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC Thanks alot.

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  • ObjectContext disposed puzzle

    - by jaklucky
    Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

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  • Static variable not initialized

    - by Simon Linder
    Hi all, I've got a strange problem with a static variable that is obviously not initialized as it should be. I have a huge project that runs with Windows and Linux. As the Linux developer doesn't have this problem I would suggest that this is some kind of wired Visual Studio stuff. Header file class MyClass { // some other stuff here ... private: static AnotherClass* const Default_; }; CPP file AnotherClass* const Default_(new AnotherClass("")); MyClass(AnotherClass* const var) { assert(Default_); ... } Problem is that Default_is always NULL. I also tried a breakpoint at the initialization of that variable but I cannot catch it. There is a similar problem in another class. CPP file std::string const MyClass::MyString_ ("someText"); MyClass::MyClass() { assert(MyString_ != ""); ... } In this case MyString_is always empty. So again not initialized. Does anyone have an idea about that? Is this a Visual Studio settings problem? Cheers Simon

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  • How to get the ui:param value in Javabean

    - by mihaela
    Hello, I am learning facelets and Seam and I'm facing the following problem: I'm have 2 xhtml files, one includes the other and each one has its own Seam component as backing bean. I want to send and object to the included facelet and obtain that object in the backing bean corresponding to the included facelet. I'll take an example to explain better the situation: registration.xhtml with Seam component as backing bean Registration.java. In this class I have an object of type Person address.html with Seam component as backing bean Address.java. In this class i want to obtain the Person object from the Registration component and set the address. registration.xhtml includes the address.xhtml and passes an object using How to obtain this object in Address bean? Will be the same reference of the object from the Registration bean? is the solution of passing this object or there is another solution for that? (maybe f:attribute, but even in this case how do I obtain the object in bean) This example is simple and not necessarily realistic but I have a similar problem and I don't know how to solve it. Thanks in advance.

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  • My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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  • How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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  • How to insert an Array/Objet into SQL (bestpractice)

    - by Jason
    I need to store three items as an array in a single column and be able to quickly/easily modify that data in later functions. [---YOU CAN SKIP THIS PART IF YOU TRUST ME--] To be clear, I love and use x_ref tables all the time but an x_ref doesn't work here because this is not a one-to-many relationship. I am making a project management tool that among other things, assigns a user to a project and assigns hours to that project on a weekly basis, per user, sometimes for weeks many weeks into the future. Of course there are many projects, a project can have many team members, a team member can be involved with many projects at one time BUT its not one-to-many because a team member can be working many weeks on the same project but have different hours for different weeks. In other words, each object really is unique. Also/finally, this data can be changed at any time by any team-member - hence it needs to be easily to manipulate. Basically, I need to handle three values (the team member, the week we're talking about, and how many hours) dropped into a project row in the projects table (under the column for project team members) and treated as one item - a team member - that will actually be part of a larger array of all the team members involved on the project. [--END SKIP, START READING HERE :) --] So assuming that the application's general schema and relation tables aren't total crap and that we are in fact up against a wall in this one case to use an array/object as a value for this column, is there a best practice for that? Like a particular SQL data-type? A particular object/array format? CSV? JSON? XML? Most of the app is in C# but (for very odd reasons that I won't explain) we could really use any environment if there is a particular one that handles this well. For the moment, I am thinking either (webservice + JS/JSON) or PHP unserialize/serialize (but I am bit sketched out by the PHP solution because it seems a bit cumbersome when using ajax?) Thoughts anyone?

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  • Why does std::cout convert volatile pointers to bool?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    If you try to cout a volatile pointer, even a volatile char pointer where you would normally expect cout to print the string, you will instead simply get '1' (assuming the pointer is not null I think). I assume output stream operator<< is template specialized for volatile pointers, but my question is, why? What use case motivates this behavior? Example code: #include <iostream> #include <cstring> int main() { char x[500]; std::strcpy(x, "Hello world"); int y; int *z = &y; std::cout << x << std::endl; std::cout << (char volatile*)x << std::endl; std::cout << z << std::endl; std::cout << (int volatile*)z << std::endl; return 0; } Output: Hello world 1 0x8046b6c 1

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  • SQL: Speed Improvement - Cluttered union query

    - by vol7ron
    SELECT * FROM ( SELECT a.user_id, a.f_name, a.l_name, b.user_id, b.f_name, b.l_name FROM current_tbl a INNER JOIN import_tbl b ON ( a.user_id = b.user_id ) UNION SELECT a.user_id, a.f_name, a.l_name, b.user_id, b.f_name, b.l_name FROM current_tbl a INNER JOIN import_tbl b ON ( lower(a.f_name)=lower(b.f_name) AND lower(a.l_name)=lower(b.l_name) ) ) foo -- UNION -- SELECT a.user_id , a.f_name , a.l_name , '' , '' , '' FROM current_tbl a WHERE a.user_id NOT IN ( select user_id from( SELECT a.user_id, a.f_name, a.l_name, b.user_id, b.f_name, b.l_name FROM current_tbl a INNER JOIN import_tbl b ON ( a.user_id = b.user_id ) UNION SELECT a.user_id, a.f_name, a.l_name, b.user_id, b.f_name, b.l_name FROM current_tbl a INNER JOIN import_tbl b ON ( lower(a.f_name)=lower(b.f_name) AND lower(a.l_name)=lower(b.l_name) ) ) bar ) ORDER BY user_id Example of table population: current_tbl: ------------------------------- user_id | f_name | l_name ---------+----------+---------- A1 | Adam | Acorn A2 | Beth | Berry A3 | Calv | Chard | | import_tbl: ------------------------------- user_id | f_name | l_name ---------+----------+---------- A1 | Adam | Acorn A2 | Beth | Butcher <- last_name different | | Expected Output: ----------------------------------------------------------------------- user_id1 | f_name1 | l_name1 | user_id2 | f_name2 | l_name2 ----------+-----------+-----------+------------+-----------+----------- A1 | Adam | Acorn | A1 | Adam | Acorn A2 | Beth | Berry | A2 | Beth | Butcher A3 | Calv | Chard | | | Doing this method gets rid of conditions where the row would be: A2 | Beth | Berry | A2 | Beth | Butcher But it keeps the A3 row I hope this makes sense and I haven't overly simplified it. This is a continuation question from my other question. The succession of these improvements has dropped the query down from ~32000ms to where it's at now ~1200ms - quite an improvement. I supect I can optimize by using UNION ALL in the subquery and of course the usual index optimizations, but I'm looking for the best SQL optimization. FYI this particular case is for PostgreSQL.

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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  • Why does the page posts take so long?

    - by Olle
    Hi! I am having some problems with some page post backs that take a loooong time to execute. If I do a "appcmd list requests" I can get something like this: REQUEST "79000001800004e3" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:87219 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:ExecuteRequestHandler, module:ManagedPipelineHandler) REQUEST "8600000080002f82" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:61391 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) REQUEST "5e00010280000420" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:21047 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) It's one particular file that causes the problem (dir/file.aspx in this case). It comes from the same IP-adress. And the first on is from ManagedPipelineHandler module and the two after that from Session module. I do not have any details about the web browser, or anything more about the client for that matter. I have looked for sql dead locks and did not find any. There are no long running sql queries at all. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem? Regards.

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  • How to solve concurrency problems in ASP.NET Windows-Workflow and ActiveRecord/NHibernate?

    - by Famous Nerd
    I have found that ActiveRecord uses the Session-Scope object within the ASP.NET application and that if the web-site is read-write we can have a tug-o-war between the Workflow's own Data-Access SessionScope and that of the ASP.NET site. I would really like to have the WindowsWorkflow Runtime use the same object session as the web-site however, they have different lifetimes. Sometimes, a web-request may save a very simple piece of data which would execute quickly however, if the web-site kicks off a workflow process.. how can that workflow make data-modifications while still allowing the Appliaction_EndRequest to dispose the ASP.NET SessionScope ... it's like ownership of the SessionScope should be shared between the workflow runtime and the ASP.NET website. Manual Workflow Scheduler may be the Savior... if a workflow is synchronous and merely uses CallExternalMethod to interact with the Host then we could constrain all the data-access to the host.. then the sessionScope can exist once. This however, won't solve the problem of a delay activity... if this delay fires, we could need to update data... in this case we'd need an isolated Session Scope and concurrency may arise. This however, differs from SharePoint workflows where it seems that the SharePoint workflow can save data from the web and the workflow and that concurrency is handled through other means. Can anyone offer any suggestions on how to allow the workflow to manage data and play nice with ASP.NET web sites?

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  • "error creating files compilation failed" when publishing for iOS on Flash CS5.5

    - by user1662660
    I'm currently developing an app using Flash CS5.5 for iOS. All of my .ipa files have been created and tested with no problems so far. Until now. I'm using Windows. It only started today and happens to every file I try to publish. I get the error "error creating files. compilation failed..." That is the only piece of information I am given about the error. All of my certificates and provisioning profiles are legit and still valid. Has anyone had any experience with this before? Since posting the question I have found a resolution that I will post for anyone who encounters the same problem. In this case I was unable to publish my .ipa file as I was opening the document (and Flash) from the start menu in Windows 7. To fix this instance of the issue I simply opened Flash first and then opened my document and I was able to publish.

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  • Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

    - by Thang Pham
    when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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  • Find actual value of PHP variable

    - by Simon S
    Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

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  • Is it possible to read data that has been separately copied to the Android sd card without having ro

    - by icecream
    I am developing an application that needs to access data on the sd card. When I run on my development device (an odroid with Android 2.1) I have root access and can construct the path using: File sdcard = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); String path = sdcard.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "mydata" File data = new File(path); File[] files = data.listFiles(new FilenameFilter() { @Override public boolean accept(File dir, String filename) { return filename.toLowerCase().endsWith(".xyz"); }}); However, when I install this on a phone (2.1) where I do not have root access I get files == null. I assume this is because I do not have the right permissions to read the data from the sd card. I also get files == null when just trying to list files on /sdcard. So the same applies without my constructed path. Also, this app is not intended to be distributed through the app store and is needs to use data copied separately to the sd card so this is a real use-case. It is too much data to put in res/raw (I have tried, it did not work). I have also tried adding: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> to the manifest, even though I only want to read the sd card, but it did not help. I have not found a permission type for reading the storage. There is probably a correct way to do this, but I haven't been able to find it. Any hints would be useful.

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  • How do I locate a particular word in a text file using C#

    - by cmrhema
    Hi, I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that. Kindly do let me know. Thanks.

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  • Reading a CSV with file_get_contents in PHP

    - by JPro
    I am reading a 'kind' of csv file and exploding it and storing it in array. The file I am reading has this structure Id,Log,Res,File mydb('Test1','log1','Pass','lo1.txt'). mydb('Test2','log2','Pass','lo2.txt'). mydb('Test3','log3','Pass','lo3.txt'). Now what I am trying to do is : reading the last record in my database, get the Name, lets say in this case 'Test1' and then I am searching through my file and where I can find the position of 'Test1' and get the next lines in the file, extract the ID,s and add it to database. I am getting the position of desired string in the file, but I am not sure how to get the next lines too. Here's my code so far. <?php mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("testing") or die(mysql_error()); $result = mysql_query("select ID from table_1 order by S_no DESC limit 1") or die(mysql_error()); $row = mysql_fetch_array( $result ); $a = $row['ID']; echo 'Present Top Row is '.$a.'<br>'; $addresses = explode("\n", file_get_contents('\\\\fil1\\logs\\tes.pl')); foreach($addresses as $val) { $pos = strstr($val, $a); if ($pos === false) { } else { echo "The string <br> '$a' <br>was found in the string <br>'$val' <br>"; echo " and exists at position <br>$pos<br>"; } }

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  • How do I run a command as a different user from a root cronjob?

    - by rob
    I seem to be stuck between an NFS limitation and a Cron limitation. So I've got root cron (on RHEL5) running a shell script that, among other things, needs to rsync some files over an NFS mount. And the files on the NFS mount are owned by the apache user with mode 700, so only the apache user can run the rsync command -- running as root yields a permission error (NFS being a rare case, apparently, where the root user is not all-powerful?) When I just want to run the rsync by hand, I can use "sudo -u apache rsync ..." But sudo no workie in cron -- it says "sudo: sorry, you must have a tty to run sudo". I don't want to run the whole script as apache (i.e. from apache's crontab) because other parts of the script do require root -- it's just that one command that needs to run as apache. And I would really prefer not to change the mode on the files, as that will involve significant changes to other applications. There's gotta be a way to accomplish "sudo -u apache" from cron?? thanks! rob

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • On Windows 7: Same path but Explorer & Java see different files than Powershell

    - by Ukko
    Submitted for your approval, a story about a poor little java process trapped in the twilight zone... Before I throw up my hands and just say that the NTFS partition is borked is there any rational explanation of what I am seeing. I have a file with a path like this C:\Program Files\Company\product\config\file.xml I am reading this file after an upgrade and seeing something wonky. Eclipse and my Java app are still seeing the old version of this file while some other programs see the new version. The test that convinced my it was not my fat finger that caused the problem was this: In Explorer I entered the above path and Explorer displayed the old version of the file. Forcing Explorer to reload via Ctrl-F5 still yields the old version. This is the behavior I get in Java. Now in PowerShell I enter more "C:\Program Files\Company\product\config\file.xml" I cut and past the path from Explorer to make sure I am not screwing anything up and it shows me the new version of the file. So for the programming aspect of this, is there a cache or some system component that would be storing this stale reference. Am I responsible for checking or reseting that for some class of files. I can imagine somebody being "creative" in how xml files are processed to provide some bell or whistle. But it could be a case of just being borked. Any insights appreciated...Thanks!

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  • JQuery: Dynamically-generated form fields not submitted and event handlers appear to fire multiple t

    - by Bob
    Hi, I'm new to JQuery, so I apologise if there's something which should be obvious which I'm unaware of. I seem to be having a couple of issues some JQuery I'm trying to implement: Code: http://pastebin.ca/1843496 (the editor didn't seem to like HTML tags) post_test.php simply contains: [?php print_r($_POST); ?] in an attempt to find out what's actually being submitted. The first issue I'm having is that only the hidden form fields are actually being submitted. If I insert tags into the container DIV manually it works as expected, but when done as above the text field doesn't get posted. From what I've read, I gather it's to do with the fact that the DOM is being modified after it's loaded, but the thing that's puzzling me is why, in that case, there are no issues referencing the other added hidden fields or the tag. I've experimented with changing the event handler for a.save to '.live('click', function ...' and also using LiveQuery to no avail. The other issue is that when a.save is clicked, before the form is actually submitted, as far as I can tell the event handler is running again, replacing the value entered into the text field with the value of editable.text(), which is what ultimately gets submitted. I'm sorry if any of this is unclear. Regards,

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  • click event launched only once problem

    - by user281180
    I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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  • moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

    - by James Turner
    I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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