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• Unregistering COM dll with a C# Setup Project

  - by lb

  Hi All. I've been stuck on this one for a while. I'll try explain in the simplest terms and at the best of my knowledge. I will honour any help. I've got a C# project which uses a VB6 compiled ActiveX DLL that I'm constantly updating. I compile the setup project, send it to the client and they run the setup. When building the updated setup project, I would increase the 'Version' of the setup project so it wouldn't bother with 'Another version is already installed'. What started happening after a few updates I began to notice the DLL would not be updated to the new version in the installer. The client computer had the original DLL both installed and registered. First symptom: method not found exceptions from the client C# code. This is not a shared DLL and only this application needs it. I've noticed that when uninstalling the application (through the usual procedure) the DLL is also not removed from the application folder although I would set this file's property 'Permanent' to false. The registration entries in the registry are mantained also. I do update in VS6.0 the version of the DLL (usually increase the build number) before building it. Then in VS2008, I remove it from the References, and add it again from the 'Browse tab', without re-registering it on my dev machine and adding it from the COM tab. I've thought of these options. Custom step in Setup project to regsvr32.exe /u 'hardcoded path of my dll' at uninstall (ugly) Somehow find out how the 'Isolate' property can work for me without registering Find out how to execute setup project 'Conditions' that would actually check the version of the library and to update the file accordingly at every install) Any help would be incredibly welcome.

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• ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

  - by Pavel Savara

  I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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• Ember model is gone when I use the renderTemplate hook

  - by Mickael Caruso

  I have a single template - editPerson.hbs <form role="form"> FirstName: {{input type="text" value=model.firstName }} <br/> LastName: {{input type="text" value=model.lastName }} </form> I want to render this template when the user wants to edit an existing person or create a new person. So, I set up routes: App.Router.map(function(){ this.route("createPerson", { path: "/person/new" }); this.route("editPerson", { path: "/person/:id}); // other routes not show for brevity }); So, I define two routes - one for create and one for edit: App.CreatePersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ renderTemplate: function(){ this.render("editPerson", { controller: "editPerson" }); }, model: function(){ return {firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" }; } }); App.EditPersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(id){ return {firstName: "John Existing", lastName: "Smith Existing" }; } }); So, I hard-code the models. I'm concerned about the createPerson route. I'm telling it to render the editPersonTemplate and to use the editPerson controller (which I don't show because I don't think it matters - but I made one, though.) When I use renderTemplate, I lose the model John Smith, which in turn, won't display on the editTemplate on the web page. Why? I "fixed" this by creating a separate and identical (to editPerson.hbs) createPerson.hbs, and removing the renderTemplate hook in the CreatePerson. It works as expected, but I find it somewhat troubling to have a separate and identical template for the edit and create cases. I looked everywhere for how to properly do this, and I found no answers.

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• CAShapeLayer slowing down interface rotation

  - by MrMage

  Hi, I am trying to move some custom drawing code from a view into a CAShapeLayer, which then get added as a sublayer to the original view's CALayer. This also works well, but when rotating the device, the animation starts to stutter, e.g. you just see the frame in the original orientation and then the final orientation, with at most one frame in between - not smooth at all. Slide-in and slide-out animations of the corresponding UIViewController are a bit jerky, too (but not that much). All the CAShapeLayer has in its path is one CGPathAddRect, it is set to be opaque, its opacity is 1.0f and the fillColor is set to opaque blue. When drawing the path directly in the views drawRect method, however, the animation is smooth. So I suppose it has something to do with the CAShapeLayer being animated during the rotation. Could you tell me how to either get rid of those jerkiness or just hide the CAShapeLayer when animating? Getting back to just draw CGPaths directly is not an option to me because I rely on the ability of CAShapeLayer to animate its path (it is not animated in my tries with rotating the view). /update: this also happens when the rotating UIViewControllers view contains a view with a subclass of CAGradientLayer as its layerClass (e.g. a view with a gradient layer as background). Cheers MrMage

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• How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

  - by Slauma

  If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

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• Sharepoint isn't accepting new Credentials initially when switching users.

  - by Tiziani

  Hi all, I have a standard website (one webapplication and one site collection) with some custom pages and webparts. The issue I'm having is that when I try to switch users, using the "Sign In As a Different User" and entering new credentials (even for another site collection admin account), IE tries the account three times, and then it presents a 401 Access Denied screen. After that, if I erase all the stuff of access denied page from the browser's url, I'm logged as the new account I just had entered and was not accepted. After researching for a while on google, I found a KB ( http://support.microsoft.com/kb/970814 ) that might relate, but just tested here and it didn't work at all. The modified method suggested by the KB is the following: function LoginAsAnother(url, bUseSource) { document.cookie="loginAsDifferentAttemptCount=0"; if (bUseSource=="1") { GoToPage(url); } else { //var ch=url.indexOf("?") =0 ? "&" : "?"; //url+=ch+"Source="+escapeProperly(window.location.href); //STSNavigate(url); document.execCommand("ClearAuthenticationCache"); } } But after making this change, it no longer asks for a new credential. Any ideas?

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• Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship in Entity Framework

  - by Kirk Broadhurst

  I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

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• Android: forward search queries to one single activity that handles search

  - by Stefan Klumpp

  I have an activity handling search (ACTIVITY_1), which works perfectly when I use the search (via SEARCH button on the phone) within/from this activity. However, when I use search from another activity (ACTIVITY_2..x) by implementing onNewIntent and forward the query string to my Search_Activity.class (ACTIVITY_1) @Override protected void onNewIntent(Intent intent) { Log.i(TAG, "onNewIntent()"); if (Intent.ACTION_SEARCH.equals(intent.getAction())) { Log.i(TAG, "===== Intent: ACTION_SEARCH ====="); Intent myIntent = new Intent(getBaseContext(), Search_Activity.class); myIntent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_SEARCH); myIntent.putExtra(SearchManager.QUERY, intent.getStringExtra(SearchManager.QUERY)); startActivity(myIntent); } } it always pauses ACTIVITY_2 first and then goes to onCreate() of ACTIVITY_2. Why does it recreate my ACTIVITY_2 when it is already there and doesn't go to onNewIntent directly? Is there another way I can forward search queries directly to ACTIVITY_1? For example via a setting in the Manifest.xml Is it possible to generally forward all search queries automatically to ACTIVITY_1 without even implementing onNewIntent in all the other activities? Currently I have to put an <intent-filter> in every single activity to "activate" my custom search there and forward the query then to the activity that handles search via the onNewIntent (as shown above). <activity android:name=".Another_Activity" android:theme="@style/MyTheme"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SEARCH" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <meta-data android:name="android.app.searchable" android:resource="@xml/searchable" /> </activity>

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• event flow in action script 3

  - by Shay

  i try to dispatch a custom event from some component on the stage and i register other component to listen to it but the other component doesn't get the event here is my code what do i miss public class Main extends MovieClip //main document class { var compSource:Game; var compMenu:Menu; public function Main() { compSource = new Game; compMenu = new Menu(); var mc:MovieClip = new MovieClip(); addChild(mc); mc.addChild(compSource); // the source of the event - event dispatch when clicked btn mc.addChild(compMenu); //in init of that Movie clip it add listener to the compSource events } } public class Game extends MovieClip { public function Game() { btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onFinishGame); } private function onFinishGame(e:MouseEvent):void { var score:Number = Math.random() * 100 + 1; dispatchEvent(new ScoreChanged(score)); } } public class Menu extends MovieClip { //TextField score public function Menu() { addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); //on init add listener to event ScoreChanged addEventListener(ScoreChanged.SCORE_GAIN, updateScore); } public function updateScore(e:ScoreChanged):void { //it never gets here! tScore.text = String(e._score); } } public class ScoreChanged extends Event { public static const SCORE_GAIN:String = "SCORE_GAIN"; public var _score:Number; public function ScoreChanged( score:Number ) { trace("new score"); super( SCORE_GAIN, true); _score = score; } } I don't want to write in Main compSource.addEventListener(ScoreChanged.SCORE_GAIN, compMenu.updateScore); cause i dont want the the compSource will need to know about compMenu its compMenu responsibility to know to what events it needs to listen.... any suggestions? Thanks!

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• How to mimic built-in .NET serialization idioms?

  - by Matt Enright

  I have a library (written in C#) for which I need to read/write representations of my objects to disk (or to any Stream) in a particular binary format (to ensure compatibility with C/Java library implementations). The format requires a fair amount of bit-packing and some DEFLATE'd bytestreams. I would like my library, however, to be as idiomatic .NET as possible, however, and so would like to provide an API as close as possible to the normal binary serialization process. I'm aware of the ability to implement the IFormatter interface, but being that I really am unable to reuse any part of the built-in serialization stack, is it worth doing this, or will it just bring unnecessary overhead. In other words: Implement IFormatter and co. OR Just provide "Serialize"/"Deserialize" methods that act on a Stream? A good point brought up below about needing the serialization semantics for any case involving Remoting. In a case where using MarshalByRef objects is feasible, I'm pretty sure that this won't be an issue, so leaving that aside are there any benefits or drawbacks to using the ISerializable/IFormatter versus a custom stack (or, is my understanding remoting incorrectly)?

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• JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

  - by Nguyen Tuan Linh

  My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

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• Django server side AJAX validation

  - by MMRUser

  Hi, Recently I'm trying to implement a simple Django application that include one server side AJAX validation, it's a simple form input field (username). I have used a pre-built in line AJAX validation library which uses jQuery. So the code goes like this HTML snippet <form id="simpleform" method="post" action="/done/"> Username:<input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Validate"/> </form> The server side code snippet (embedded in to a php script) /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="testname"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } So my question is that how do I get this in to Python code (in order to use in Django environment) how do I get the user name from the input field in to the back end,I think the server side script snippet already does it but I want to know how to use this in my Pyhon code,and this is my first time using jQuery and I do need to use this same exact validation library. Your valuable corporation is needed. Thanks.

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• moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

  - by James Turner

  I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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• EF4 and multiple abstract levels

  - by Cedric

  I need to use inheritance with EF4 and the TPH model created from DB. I created a new projet to test simples classes. There is my class model: There is my table in SQL SERVER 2008 : VEHICLE ID : int PK Owner : varchar(50) Consumption : float FirstCirculationDate : date Type : varchar(50) Discriminator : varchar(10) I added a condition in my EDMX on the Discriminator field to differentiate the Scooter, Car, Motorbike and Bike entities. MotorizedVehicle and Vehicle are Abstract. But when I compile, this error appears : Error 3032: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 78, 85:EntityTypes EF4InheritanceModel.Scooter, EF4InheritanceModel.Motorbike, EF4InheritanceModel.Car, EF4InheritanceModel.Bike are being mapped to the same rows in table Vehicle. Mapping conditions can be used to distinguish the rows that these types are mapped to. Edit : To Ladislav : I try it and error change to become it for all of my entities : Error 3034: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 72, 86:An entity is mapped to different rows within the same table. Ensure these two mapping fragments do not map two groups of entities with overlapping keys to two distinct groups of rows. To Henk (with Ladislay suggestion) : There are all of mappings details : What's wrong ? Thanks

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• Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

  - by Rio

  OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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• Problem with JMX query of Coherence node MBeans visible in JConsole

  - by Quinn Taylor

  I'm using JMX to build a custom tool for monitoring remote Coherence clusters at work. I'm able to connect just fine and query MBeans directly, and I've acquired nearly all the information I need. However, I've run into a snag when trying to query MBeans for specific caches within a cluster, which is where I can find stats about total number of gets/puts, average time for each, etc. The MBeans I'm trying to access programatically are visible when I connect to the remote process using JConsole, and have names like this: Coherence:type=Cache,service=SequenceQueue,name=SEQ%GENERATOR,nodeId=1,tier=back It would make it more flexible if I can dynamically grab all type=Cache MBeans for a particular node ID without specifying all the caches. I'm trying to query them like this: QueryExp specifiedNodeId = Query.eq(Query.attr("nodeId"), Query.value(nodeId)); QueryExp typeIsCache = Query.eq(Query.attr("type"), Query.value("Cache")); QueryExp cacheNodes = Query.and(specifiedNodeId, typeIsCache); ObjectName coherence = new ObjectName("Coherence:*"); Set<ObjectName> cacheMBeans = mBeanServer.queryMBeans(coherence, cacheNodes); However, regardless of whether I use queryMBeans() or queryNames(), the query returns a Set containing... ...0 objects if I pass the arguments shown above ...0 objects if I pass null for the first argument ...all MBeans in the Coherence:* domain (112) if I pass null for the second argument ...every single MBean (128) if I pass null for both arguments The first two results are the unexpected ones, and suggest a problem in the QueryExp I'm passing, but I can't figure out what the problem is. I even tried just passing typeIsCache or specifiedNodeId for the second parameter (with either coherence or null as the first parameter) and I always get 0 results. I'm pretty green with JMX — any insight on what the problem is? (FYI, the monitoring tool will be run on Java 5, so things like JMX 2.0 won't help me at this point.)

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• What permissions do I need to grant to run RavenDB in Server mode?

  - by dalesmithtx

  I'm reading through Rob Ashton's excellent blog post on RavenDB: http://codeofrob.com/archive/2010/05/09/ravendb-an-introduction.aspx and I'm working through the code as I read. But when I try to add an index, I get a 401 error. Here's the code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { using (var documentStore = new DocumentStore() { Url = "http://localhost:8080" }) { documentStore.Initialise(); documentStore.DatabaseCommands.PutIndex( "BasicEntityBySomeData", new IndexDefinition<BasicEntity, BasicEntity>() { Map = docs => from doc in docs where doc.SomeData != null select new { SomeData = doc.SomeData }, }); string entityId; using (var documentSession = documentStore.OpenSession()) { var entity = new BasicEntity() { SomeData = "Hello, World!", SomeOtherData = "This is just another property", }; documentSession.Store(entity); documentSession.SaveChanges(); entityId = entity.Id; var loadedEntity = documentSession.Load<BasicEntity>(entityId); Console.WriteLine(loadedEntity.SomeData); var docs = documentSession.Query<BasicEntity>("BasicEntityBySomeData") .Where("SomeData:Hello~") .WaitForNonStaleResults() .ToArray(); docs.ToList().ForEach(doc => Console.WriteLine(doc.SomeData)); Console.Read(); } } } It throws the 401 error when on the line that makes the PutIndex() call. Any ideas what permissions I need to apply? And where I need to apply them?

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• How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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• Binary search in a sorted (memory-mapped ?) file in Java

  - by sds

  I am struggling to port a Perl program to Java, and learning Java as I go. A central component of the original program is a Perl module that does string prefix lookups in a +500 GB sorted text file using binary search (essentially, "seek" to a byte offset in the middle of the file, backtrack to nearest newline, compare line prefix with the search string, "seek" to half/double that byte offset, repeat until found...) I have experimented with several database solutions but found that nothing beats this in sheer lookup speed with data sets of this size. Do you know of any existing Java library that implements such functionality? Failing that, could you point me to some idiomatic example code that does random access reads in text files? Alternatively, I am not familiar with the new (?) Java I/O libraries but would it be an option to memory-map the 500 GB text file (I'm on a 64-bit machine with memory to spare) and do binary search on the memory-mapped byte array? I would be very interested to hear any experiences you have to share about this and similar problems.

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• How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

  - by Imageree

  One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

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• DataTable vs. Collection in .Net

  - by B Pete

  I am writing a program that needs to read a set of records that describe the register map of a device I need to communicate with. Each record will have a handfull of fields that describe the properties of each register. I don't really need to edit or modify the data in my VB or C# program, though I would like to be able to display the data on a grid. I would like to store the data in a CSV file, or perhaps an XML file. I need to enable users to edit the data off-line, preferably in excel. I am considering using a DataTable or a Collection of "Register" objects (which I would define). I prototyped a DataTable, and found I can read/write XML easily using the built in methods and I can easily bind to a DataGridView. I was not able to find a way to retreive info on a single register without using a query that returns a collection of rows, even though I defined a unique primaty key column. The syntax to get a value from a column is also complex, though I could be missing something on both counts. I'm tempted to use a collection of "Register" objects that I can access via a unique key. It would be a little more coding up front, but seems like a cleaner solution overall. I should still be able to use LINQ to dataset to query subsets of registers when I need them, but would also be able to grab a single field using a the key value, something like this: Registers(keyValue).fieldName). Which would be a cleaner approach to the problem? Is there a way to read/write XML into a Collection without needing custom code? Could this be accomplished using String for a key?

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• Need some help/advice on WCF Per-Call Service and NServiceBus interop.

  - by Alexey

  I have WCF Per-Call service wich provides data for clients and at the same time is integrated with NServiceBus. All statefull objects are stored in UnityContainer wich is integrated into custom service host. NServiceBus is configured in service host and uses same container as service instances. Every client has its own instance context(described by Juval Lowy in his book in chapter about Durable Services). If i need to send request over bus I just use some kind of dispatcher and wait response using Thread.Sleep().Since services are per-call this is ok afaik. But I am confused a bit about messages from bus, that service must handle and provide them to clients. For some data like stock quotes I just update some kind of statefull object and and then, when clients invoke GetQuotesData() just provide data from this object. But there are numerous service messages like new quote added and etc. At this moment I have an idea to implement something like "Postman daemon" =)) and store this type of messages in instance context. Then client will invoke "GetMail()",recieve those messages and parse them. Problem is that NServiceBus messages are "Interface based" and I cant pass them over WCF, so I need to convert them to types derieved from some abstract class. Dunno what is best way to handle this situation. Will be very gratefull for any advice on this. Thanks in advance.

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• MS Access form_current() firing multiple times

  - by Eric G

  I have a form with two subforms (on separate tab pages). It's an MDB project in Access 2003. When it initially opens, Form_Current on the active subform fires once, as it should. But when you move to another record (ie. from the main form), it fires Form_Current on the active subform 4 times. Then subsequent record-moves result in Form_Current firing 2 times. This is a pain, because the subforms have a lot of fields that get moved and/or hidden and so it jumps around for every Form_Current, not to mention being slow. I am opening the form with a filter via DoCmd.OpenForm (actually it sends the filter in via OpenArgs). FilterOn is only set once, in Form_Open on the main form, never in the subforms. Form_Current is not called explicitly anywhere else in the code. When I look at the call stack when Form_Current fires moving the first time, it looks like: my_subform.Form_Current [<Debug Window>] my_subform.Form_Current So it seems like something in Form_Current is triggering another Form_Current event. But only on the first record move. The code in Form_Current is somewhat complex, involving custom classes and event callbacks, but generally does not touch the table data. The only thing I can think might be triggering a Form_Current is that it checks OldValue on form controls - could this be causing it? Or anything else come to mind? Thanks. Eric

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• Yet Another crosdomain.xml question or: "How to interpret documentation correctly"

  - by cboese

  Hi! I have read a lot about the new policy-policy of flash player and also know the master policy file. Now image the following situation: There are two servers with services (http) running at custom ports servera.com:2222/websiteA serverb.com:3333/websiteB Now I open a swf from server a (eg. servera.com:2222/websiteA/A.swf) that wants to access the service of serverb. Of course I need a crossdomain.xml at the right place and there are multiple variations possible. I dont want to use a master policy file, as I might not have control over the root of both servers. One solution I found works with the following crossdomain: <?xml version="1.0"?> <cross-domain-policy> <allow-access-from domain="*"/> </cross-domain-policy> served at serverb.com:3333/websiteB/crossdomain.xml So now for my question: Is it possible to get rid of the "*" and use a proper (not as general as *) domainname in the allow-access-from rule? All my attempts failed, and from what I understand it should be possible.

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• Facebox with other jquery in it

  - by dakemz

  So I have facebox setup and it works. when I load an external page with a tab based navigation (JQuery too) the modal works but the nav doesnt. If it isnt clear I actually want the tabs to be inside the lightbox. And I also have php/mysql running inside the lightbox if that can change anything. Thanks for any help. <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('#tabs').tabs(); }); </script> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Informations</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Factures en attente</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-3">Marché en cours</a></li> </ul>

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