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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • Should uni provide "correct answer" after programming assignment is due?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is my very first subjective question. And I think it is programming related - the assignment is to be written in a programming language. I am not for "getting the full marks out of a subject". I am actually not for a "correct answer", but for a "better solution", so that I can compare, and can improve. I reckon it is good that I practice programming first and check the solution later to pick up the things I've done wrong/bad. Without a "benchmark" to against, this would be much harder. Unfortunately as far as I know, not all programming subjects taught in uni would kindly provide the students with a "correct answer" in the end, after the assignment is due. One bad metaphor for this is like someone asks you a question which they don't have a clear answer themselves and hope to take advantage of your answer as the basis for their answer. Personally, I feel having a assignment solution provided by the academic staff is essential to students. I do appreciate this, and I feel I might not be the only one. I am a very proactive student in uni. I learn more, I practice more, an assignment for me is more like a challenge to achieve "the best solution I can come up with", not something "I have to pass"... The cause of this question is that for the past few days I have crafted 500+ lines of Perl code, for a tiny assignment. I feel pain when I look at my solution(not finished yet) and I feel like I am an idiot doing some crap code. I know there must be a much better solution. And I reckon it is better for the lecturer in this subject to get me one, rather than asking for an answer here, even I would shamelessly add the link to my solution apart from the assignment requirements. I know in SO, there are a lot of tutors/lecturers for programming subjects/courses. I'd like to hear your words on this question.

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  • How do I override a python import?

    - by Evan Plaice
    So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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  • How to return ArrayList results from an IntentService

    - by gcl1
    I have an IntentService that loads up an ArrayList with data from a network source (AWS SDB tables). The ArrayList is in a global space -- accessible to both the calling Activity and the IntentService (like this: appState = ((App)getApplicationContext())). When the IntentService is done, it notifies the Activity through a ResultReceiver, and the Activity calls adapter.notifyDataChanged() to update the ListView. This solution works most of the time, ... but it violates the rule that only the UI thread should make changes to data underlying a ListView. So as it is, I sometimes get an error: "The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification." I think this must be a common situation. Please let me know if you have any suggestions or best practices for this problem. Here are three options I'm aware of: Keep the IntentService, and have it store the results in another "working" ArrayList, also in the global space. When the result is ready, the IntentService calls the ResultReceiver (on the UI thread), which can then: a) copy the result to the ArrayList associated with the ListView, and b) call adapter.notifyDataChanged(). CONS: I don't like the idea of putting temp/working data in a global space, and copying the result list seems inefficient. Keep the IntentService, and have it pass the results back through a bundle loaded with a ParcelableArrayList. CONS: I'm not sure if this approach would scale for very large result sets. It also requires copying the result list. Switch to a Service which builds a local copy of the result list. Have the Activity directly access the address space of the Service in order to read the result list. CON: Still requires copying results to the ArrayList associated with the ListView. Thank you.

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  • How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

    - by peter
    Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

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  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • Really Need a Facebook App to post to Facebook Page Wall?

    - by Lee Englestone
    Hi, I'm using the Facebook API Graph (C# & ASP.NET) to try to dynamically post to a Facebook page I created. Looking at the code samples floating around.. they suggest creating a Facebook App first (which I have done).. However.. I have 3 different pages I want to post to.. Do I need to create an app for each? (I want to post different things to the 3 pages, not the same posts to each) I just want messages & links to appear as Wall posts. I'm not bothered about having an 'app' that has 'canvas' that is placed in an IFrame. Question : So do I still need to write one or more Facebook Apps to post to my 3 different Facebook pages?? Where I am so far.. I can pass in my apps credentials and get back the access_token. But my posts don't appear to be going anywhere. I'd rather drop the 'facebook application /canvas' approach if possible If I can post directly to a wall (For the above reasons). Oh, and before you ask. I don't want to post to my Apps Wall page, I want to post to my other pages (Unless I have to post to my Apps Wall page first?). I'm sure loads of people have the same questions.. Thanks in advance. -- Lee

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  • iphone file download not working

    - by Anonymous
    Hi, In my app I 'm first connecting to a web service, which in return sends a url for a file. I use the url to download the file and then display it on the new view. I get the correct URL but not able to download file from that location. I have another test app which will download file from the same location and it works like a charm. following is my code for webservice-file download. This is a snippet of the code where i 'm parsing the web service xml and then pass the result to NSData for file download. Any suggestions where am i going wrong -- I 'm referring to the following tutorials. Web Service PDF Viewer if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"PRHPdfResultsResult"]) { NSLog(soapResults); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Report downloaded from:" message:soapResults delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSData *pdfData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:soapResults]]; //Store the Data locally as PDF File NSString *resourceDocPath = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByDeletingLastPathComponent] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Documents"]]; NSString *filePath = [resourceDocPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPDF.pdf"]; [pdfData writeToFile:filePath atomically:YES]; [alert show]; [alert release]; [soapResults setString:@""]; elementFound = FALSE; }

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  • How slow are bit fields in C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ application that includes a number of structures with manually controlled bit fields, something like #define FLAG1 0x0001 #define FLAG2 0x0002 #define FLAG3 0x0004 class MyClass { ' ' unsigned Flags; int IsFlag1Set() { return Flags & FLAG1; } void SetFlag1Set() { Flags |= FLAG1; } void ResetFlag1() { Flags &= 0xffffffff ^ FLAG1; } ' ' }; For obvious reasons I'd like to change this to use bit fields, something like class MyClass { ' ' struct Flags { unsigned Flag1:1; unsigned Flag2:1; unsigned Flag3:1; }; ' ' }; The one concern I have with making this switch is that I've come across a number of references on this site stating how slow bit fields are in C++. My assumption is that they are still faster than the manual code shown above, but is there any hard reference material covering the speed implications of using bit fields on various platforms, specifically 32bit and 64bit windows. The application deals with huge amounts of data in memory and must be both fast and memory efficient, which could well be why it was written this way in the first place.

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • Presenting collection of structures of strings in grid or similar in WPF - Example? Ideas?

    - by Andrew
    Hi, I have a collection of structures. The structure is just some strings. Example public struct ReportLine { public string Name; public string Address; public string Phone; ...// about 10 other strings } I can't change this part. What I want to do is display it in a simple grid or simlar in WPF. My only requirements are: a) need column headers b) rows must alternate in color c) columns big enough to hold largest datum (which is not know until run time) Can someone point me to an example to get me started? Is the GridView the way to go? Or DataGrid? Or perhaps just the grid? I have the book Pro WPF in C# 2008 and it covers binding ListBox's to collections, but the collections always seem to be collections of one field (ex. a collection of 40 names). Here I have a collection (an array in fact) of a structure. How do I setup the databinding? As you can see, I'm new to this and probably would most benefit from a reference to an article. I've found articles covering collections of 1 field, but no examples covering binding to an array of structures. Also, my intitial research indicates c) can't be easily done, if you demand that the column is big enough for all the data in that column, not just the visible data. Thanks, dave

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  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

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  • Best practice accessing an array set within a class

    - by user350599
    I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • Saving a list of items in Application State ASP.NET MVC ?

    - by Calibre2010
    Hi Guys, I'm having a bit of trouble with knowing how I can save items from a list I have in Application state in the global.asax as- Application[""]. My controller basically takes in some user input, I then pass this to another classes Method as parameters it gets added to a list all the time. This data thats getting added to the list I want to store it, but without using a db. By using Application State. . I have been instantiating this class and calling its method to return the list of items but I dont think Application State is saving it. Here is what I have so far. . protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); TimeLineInformation t = new TimeLineInformation(); IList<SWTimeEnvInfoDTO> g = t.getInfo(); Application["AppID"] = g; } ^ Global.asax IList<SWTimeEnvInfoDTO> result = new List<SWTimeEnvInfoDTO>(); public void returnTimeLineInfo(string SWrelease, string EnvName, DateTime SDate, DateTime EDate) { SWTimeEnvInfoDTO myDTO = new SWTimeEnvInfoDTO(); myDTO.softwareReleaseName = SWrelease; myDTO.environmentName = EnvName; myDTO.StartDate = SDate; myDTO.EndDate = EDate; result.Add(myDTO); getInfo(); } public IList<SWTimeEnvInfoDTO> getInfo() { return result; } ^ class im calling The SWTimeEnvInfoDTO type has get and set methods for the data. I am calling the application from a View as well. It works with a string Application["AppID"] = "fgt"; and shows this once i read it from my view.

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  • Entity Framework and WCf

    - by Nihilist
    Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

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  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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  • Fun with casting and inheritance

    - by Vaccano
    NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

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  • Error_No_Token by adding printer driver (c#)

    - by user1686388
    I'm trying to add printer drivers using the windows API function AddPrinterDriver. The Win32 error 1008 (An attempt was made to reference a token that does not exist.) was always generated. My code is shown as following [DllImport("Winspool.drv")] static extern bool AddPrinterDriver(string Name, Int32 Level, [in] ref DRIVER_INFO_3 DriverInfo); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct DRIVER_INFO_3 { public Int32 cVersion; public string Name; public string Environment; public string DriverPath; public string DataFile; public string ConfigFile; public string HelpFile; public string DependentFiles; public string MonitorName; public string DefaultDataType; } //....................... DRIVER_INFO_3 di = new DRIVER_INFO_3(); //...................... AddPrinterDriver(Environment.MachineName, 3, ref di); I have also tried to get a token by "ImpersonateSelf" before adding the printer driver. But the error 1008 insists. Does anyone have an idea? best regards.

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  • How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

    - by stimpy77
    Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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  • Chrome extension custom cursor

    - by the_nakos
    Hi, I building an Google Chrome extension that place some IMG tag in sites. This img tag on :hover must show a custom cursor. The extension uses jQuery as its injected core script. I tried the following methods: 1. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('#myImgId').css({ 'position': 'absolute', 'top':'5px', 'left':'5px', 'cursor':cursor }); This is the best working. On smaller sites its shows the cursor. On slower loading sites it does not. But on little sites it fails sometimes. 2. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('<style>#myImgId{cursor:'+cursor+'}</style>').appendTo('head'); This did nothing at all. 3. In manifest.json I injected the css. "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*/*"], "css": ["css/style.css"], "js": ["j/c.js", "j/s.js"] } The css file just had the cursor:url(icons/cursor.cur) as I don't have idea, how to get real url in a css file. This isn't working at all. I think it must work like this, I didn't find reference for this on code.google though.

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  • How to link different Servlet together?

    - by Harry Pham
    First of all, I did not use Spring MVC. :) :) Just want to get it out first. Now what I have is different JSP pages that making calls to different Servlets. All the pieces work great individually but I kind of need to link them together. If all of jsp pages make GET request then it would be easy, since I would just pass a type via the web address, and on my servlet side, I would just enumerated through all the parameter, determine which type is it, and delegate to the right servlet. But not all jsp pages make GET request, some make POST request via form. Let see example A.jsp $.getJSON('GenericServlet?type=A', ... GenericServlet.java String type = request.getParameter("type"); if(type.equals("A")){ //Somehow delegate to Servlet A (Not sure how to do that yet :)) } but in B.jsp I would have something like this B.jsp <form action="GenericServlet" method="post"> <table border=0 cellspacing=10 cellpadding=0> <tr> <td>User Name:</td> <td><input type="text" name="username" size=22/></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Password:</td> <td><input type="password" name="password" size=22/></td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Create User" /> </form> It kind of hard for me to determine in GenericServlet.java that this need to go to servletB

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