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  • Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

    - by Joshua Starner
    I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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  • Dealing with array of IntPtr

    - by Padu Merloti
    I think I'm close and I bet the solution is something stupid. I have a C++ native DLL where I define the following function: DllExport bool __stdcall Open(const char* filePath, int *numFrames, void** data); { //creates the list of arrays here... don't worry, lifetime is managed somewhere else //foreach item of the list: { BYTE* pByte = GetArray(i); //here's where my problem lives *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; } *numFrames = total number of items in the list return true; } Basically, given a file path, this function creates a list of byte arrays (BYTE*) and should return a list of pointers via the data param. Each pointing to a different byte array. I want to pass an array of IntPtr from C# and be able to marshal each individual array in order. Here's the code I'm using: [DllImport("mydll.dll",EntryPoint = "Open")] private static extern bool MyOpen( string filePath, out int numFrames, out IntPtr[] ptr); internal static bool Open( string filePath, out int numFrames, out Bitmap[] images) { var ptrList = new IntPtr[512]; MyOpen(filePath, out numFrames, out ptrList); images = new Bitmap[numFrames]; var len = 100; //for sake of simplicity for (int i=0; i<numFrames;i++) { var buffer = new byte[len]; Marshal.Copy(ptrList[i], buffer, 0, len); images[i] = CreateBitmapFromBuffer(buffer, height, width); } return true; } Problem is in my C++ code. When I assign *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; it corrupts the array of pointers... what am I doing wrong?

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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  • C# Event Handlers Using an Enum

    - by Jimbo
    I have a StatusChanged event that is raised by my object when its status changes - however, the application needs to carry out additional actions based on what the new status is. e.g If the new status is Disconnected, then it must update the status bar text and send an email notification. So, I wanted to create an Enum with the possible statuses (Connected, Disconnected, ReceivingData, SendingData etc.) and have that sent with the EventArgs parameter of the event when it is raised (see below) Define the object: class ModemComm { public event CommanderEventHandler ModemCommEvent; public delegate void CommanderEventHandler(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e); public void Connect() { ModemCommEvent(this, new ModemCommEventArgs ModemCommEventArgs.eModemCommEvent.Connected)); } } Define the new EventArgs parameter: public class ModemCommEventArgs : EventArgs{ public enum eModemCommEvent { Idle, Connected, Disconnected, SendingData, ReceivingData } public eModemCommEvent eventType { get; set; } public string eventMessage { get; set; } public ModemCommEventArgs(eModemCommEvent eventType, string eventMessage) { this.eventMessage = eventMessage; this.eventType = eventType; } } I then create a handler for the event in the application: ModemComm comm = new ModemComm(); comm.ModemCommEvent += OnModemCommEvent; and private void OnModemCommEvent(object source, ModemCommEventArgs e) { } The problem is, I get a 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' error when the object attempts to raise the event. Hoping someone can explain in n00b terms why and how to fix it :)

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  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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  • Weak hashmap with weak references to the values?

    - by Razor Storm
    I am building an android app where each entity has a bitmap that represents its sprite. However, each entity can be be duplicated (there might be 3 copies of entity asdf for example). One approach is to load all the sprites upfront, and then put the correct sprite in the constructors of the entities. However, I want to decode the bitmaps lazily, so that the constructors of the entities will decode the bitmaps. The only problem with this is that duplicated entities will load the same bitmap twice, using 2x the memory (Or n times if the entity is created n times). To fix this, I built a SingularBitmapFactory that will store a decoded Bitmap into a hash, and if the same bitmap is asked for again, will simply return the previously hashed one instead of building a new one. Problem with this, though, is that the factory holds a copy of all bitmaps, and so won't ever get garbage collected. What's the best way to switch the hashmap to one with weakly referenced values? In otherwords, I want a structure where the values won't be GC'd if any other object holds a reference to it, but as long as no other objects refers it, then it can be GC'd.

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  • How to specialize template for type derived from particular type

    - by relaxxx
    I have class World which manages creation of object... After creation it calls afterCreation method and I the created object is user-defined type derived from Entity (eg. MyEntity), I want to call addEntity. I the object was something else, I want to do nothing. addEntity must be called with appropriate T, because it generates unique IDs for every derived class etc. Here is my solution: template <int v> struct ToType { enum { value = v }; }; template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t) { afterCreation(t, ToType<std::is_base_of<Entity, T>::value>()); } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<true>) { addEntity(t); //here I cant pass Entity *, I need the real type, eg. MyEntity } template <typename T> void World::afterCreation(T * t, ToType<false>) { } My question is - Can in be done better way? How can I simulate following code without ToType or similar? template <typename T> void afterCreation(){/*generic impl*/} template <typename T where T is derived from Entity> void afterCreation(){/*some specific stuff*/} "specialize" in the title is only to describe my intention, no need to solve problem with template specialization

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  • Ruby and RSS2 Feed not displaying image

    - by pcasa
    Trying to create a simple RSS2 Feed that I could later pass on to FeedBurner but can't get RSS feed to display images at all. Also, from what I have read having xml.instruct! on top might cause IE to complain it's not a valid feed. Is this true? My Code looks like xml.instruct! xml.rss "version" => "2.0", "xmlns:dc" => "http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" do xml.channel do xml.title "Store" xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products' xml.description "Store" xml.pubDate @products.first.updated_at.rfc822 if @products.any? @products.each do |product| xml.item do xml.title product.name xml.pubDate (product.updated_at.rfc822) xml.image do xml.url domain_host + product.product_image.url(:small) xml.title "Store" xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products' end xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products', :action => 'show', :id => product.permalink xml.description product.fine_print xml.guid url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products', :action => 'show', :id => product.permalink end end end end

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  • Comparing all properties of an object using expression trees

    - by stringargs
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple generator that uses an expression tree to dynamically generate a method that compares all properties of an instance of a type to the properties of another instance of that type. This works fine for most properties, like int an string, but fails for DateTime? (and presumably other nullable value types). The method: static Delegate GenerateComparer(Type type) { var left = Expression.Parameter(type, "left"); var right = Expression.Parameter(type, "right"); Expression result = null; foreach (var p in type.GetProperties()) { var leftProperty = Expression.Property(left, p.Name); var rightProperty = Expression.Property(right, p.Name); var equals = p.PropertyType.GetMethod("Equals", new[] { p.PropertyType }); var callEqualsOnLeft = Expression.Call(leftProperty, equals, rightProperty); result = result != null ? (Expression)Expression.And(result, callEqualsOnLeft) : (Expression)callEqualsOnLeft; } var method = Expression.Lambda(result, left, right).Compile(); return method; } On a DateTime? property it fails with: Expression of type 'System.Nullable`1[System.DateTime]' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Object' of method 'Boolean Equals(System.Object)' OK, so it finds an overload of Equals that expects object. So why can't I pass a DateTime? into that, as it's convertible to object? If I look at Nullable<T>, it indeed has an override of Equals(object o). PS: I realize that this isn't a proper generator yet as it can't deal with null values, but I'll get to that :)

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  • prototype findElements querySelectorAll error

    - by JD
    i'm call the "down" function but am getting an invalid argument using 1.6.1_rc2 here's the html snippet: <TR id=000000214A class="activeRow searchResultsDisplayOver" conceptID="0000001KIU"> <TD> <DIV class=gridRowWrapper> <SPAN class=SynDesc>Asymmetric breasts</SPAN> <DIV class=buttonWrapper> <SPAN class=btnAddFav title="Add to Favorites">&nbsp;</SPAN> </DIV> </DIV> </TD> </TR> here's the code: var description = row.down('span.SynDesc').innerHTML; row is a dom reference to the element. prototype is appending a # then the id of the element: findElements: function(root) { root = root || document; var e = this.expression, results; switch (this.mode) { case 'selectorsAPI': if (root !== document) { var oldId = root.id, id = $(root).identify(); id = id.replace(/[\.:]/g, "\\$0"); e = "#" + id + " " + e; } results = $A(root.querySelectorAll(e)).map(Element.extend); <-- e = "#000000214A span.SynDesc" root.id = oldId; return results; case 'xpath': return document._getElementsByXPath(this.xpath, root); default: return this.matcher(root); } i get an "invalid argument" error? if i put a breakpoint before the offending line and change e to be equal to "span.SynDesc" it works fine. help. :)

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  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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  • Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

    - by Coder
    Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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  • MinGW-gcc PCH not speeding up wxWidget build times. Is my setup correct?

    - by Victor T.
    Hi all, I've been building wxMSW 2.8.11 with the latest stable release of mingw-gcc 4.5.1 and I'm trying to see if the build could be sped up using precompiled headers. My initial attempts at this doesn't seem to work. I basically followed the given instructions here. I created a wxprec.h precompiled header with the following: g++ -O2 -mthreads -DHAVE_W32API_H -D__WXMSW__ -DNDEBUG -D_UNICODE -I..\..\lib\gcc_dll\mswu -I..\..\include -W -Wall -DWXBUILDING -I..\.. \src\tiff -I..\..\src\jpeg -I..\..\src\png -I..\..\src\zlib -I..\..\src \regex -I..\..\src\expat\lib -DwxUSE_BASE=1 -DWXMAKINGDLL -Wno-ctor- dtor-privacy ../../include/wx/wxprec.h That does successfully create a wxprec.h.gch that's about ~1.6meg in size. Now I proceed to build wxmsw using the follow make command from cmd.exe shell: mingw32-make -f makefile.gcc While, the build does succeed I noticed no speedup whatsoever then if pch wasn't used. To make sure gcc was actually using the pch I added -H in the config.gcc and did another rebuild. Indeed, the outputted include list does show a '!' next to the wxprec.h so gcc is supposely using it. What's the reason for pch not working? Did I setup the precompiled headers correctly or am I missing a step? Just for reference comparison, here's the compile times I get when building wxmsw 2.8.11 with the other compilers(visual studio 2010 and C++ Builder 2007). The time savings is pretty significant. | | release, pch | release, nopch | debug, nopch ------------------------------------------------------- | gcc451 | 8min 33sec | 8min 17sec | 8min 49sec | msc_1600 | 2min 23sec | 13min 11sec | -- | bcc593 | 0min 59sec | 2min 29sec | -- Thanks

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  • How to define and use a friend function to a temlate class with the same template?

    - by Narek
    I have written the following code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template <class T> class AA { T a; public: AA() { a = 7; } friend void print(const AA<T> & z); }; template <class T> void print(const AA<T> & z) { cout<<"Print: "<<z.a<<endl; } void main() { AA<int> a; print<int>(a); } And getting the following error: error C2248: 'AA<T>::a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'AA<T>' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] 1> c:\users\narek\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\aaa\aaa\a.cpp(7) : see declaration of 'AA<T>::a' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] 1> c:\users\narek\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\aaa\aaa\a.cpp(30) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void print<int>(const AA<T> &)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> T=int 1> ] What's wrong?

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • A quick question on data returned by jquery.ajax() call (EDITED)

    - by recipriversexclusion
    EDIT: The original problem was due a stupid syntax mistake somewhere else, whicj I fixed. I have a new problem though, as described below I have the following jquery.ajax call: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: servicesUrl + "/" + ID + "/tasks", dataType: "xml", success : createTaskListTable }); The createTaskListTable function is defined as function createTaskListTable(taskListXml) { $(taskListXml).find("Task").each(function(){ alert("Found task") }); // each task } Problem is: this doesn't work, I get an error saying taskListXml is not defined. JQuery documentation states that the success functions gets passed three arguments, the first of which is the data. How can I pass the data returned by .ajax() to my function with a variable name of my own choosing. My problem now is that I'm getting the XML from a previous ajax call! How is this even possible? That previous function is defined as function convertServiceXmlDataToTable(xml), so they don't use the same variable name. Utterly confused. Is this some caching issue? If so, how can I clear the browser cache to get rid of the earlier XML? Thanks!

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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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  • JVM GC demote object to eden space?

    - by Kevin
    I'm guessing this isn't possible...but here goes. My understanding is that eden space is cheaper to collect than old gen space, especially when you start getting into very large heaps. Large heaps tend to come up with long running applications (server apps) and server apps a lot of the time want to use some kind of caches. Caches with some kind of eviction (LRU) tend to defeat some assumptions that GC makes (temporary objects die quickly). So cache evictions end up filling up old gen faster than you'd like and you end up with a more costly old gen collection. Now, it seems like this sort of thing could be avoided if java provided a way to mark a reference as about to die (delete keyword)? The difference between this and c++ is that the use is optional. And calling delete does not actually delete the object, but rather is a hint to the GC that it should demote the object back to Eden space (where it will be more easily collected). I'm guessing this feature doesn't exist, but, why not (is there a reason it's a bad idea)?

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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