Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 705/854 | < Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >

  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

    Read the article

  • IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

    - by Hitesh Riziya
    I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

    Read the article

  • Cryptic Erlang Errors

    - by Jim
    Okay so I started learning erlang recently but am baffled by the errors it keeps returning. I made a bunch of changes but I keep getting errors. The syntax is correct as far as I can tell but clearly I'm doing something wrong. Have a look... -module(pidprint). -export([start/0]). dostuff([]) - receive begin - io:format("~p~n", [This is a Success]) end. sender([N]) - N ! begin, io:format("~p~n", [N]). start() - StuffPid = spawn(pidprint, dostuff, []), spawn(pidprint, sender, [StuffPid]). Basically I want to compile the script, call start, spawn the "dostuff" process, pass its process identifier to the "sender" process, which then prints it out. Finally I want to send a the atom "begin" to the "dostuff" process using the process identifier initially passed into sender when I spawned it. The errors I keep getting occur when I try to use c() to compile the script. Here they are.. ./pidprint.erl:6: syntax error before: '-' ./pidprint.erl:11: syntax error before: ',' What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

    Read the article

  • unable to use html form post in php

    - by kossibox
    Hello i have an html form and i'm posting data but i'm unable to get the posted data on a php page (same page) can you please help me. thanks in advance <div class="left"> <form name="form_signin" method="post" onsubmit="return signinValid();" > <table> <tr> <td> Email : </td> <td> <input type="text" id="email" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Mot de Passe : </td> <td> <input type="password" id ="pass" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> &nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Connexion" length ="40"> </td> </tr> </table> </form> <?php include 'includes.php'; include DB_CONNECT_FILE; //session_start(); print_r($_POST); // prints an empty array even if fields are filled $smart->assign('tpl_file',TEMPLATES_DIR.'signin.html'); $smart->display(TEMPLATES_DIR."with_right.html"); include DB_DISCONNECT_FILE; ?>

    Read the article

  • Play Multiple iPod Library Songs On iPhone At The Same Time With Pitch Bending & Other Effects

    - by Dino
    Hi, I have been going at this for the past two weeks and it is driving me crazy. I asked this question a couple of days ago (Extract iPod Library raw PCM samples and play with sound effects) and whilst the answer got me half way there I am still stuck. Basically what I am trying to achieve is load up multiple songs from the iPod library for playback with effects such as pitch bend, eq effects etc... I have gone down the route of AVPlayer and AVAudioPlayer which are too simple. The only framework I've seen that can play audio with these effects is OpenAL. I have tried a few objective c wrappers (Finch and ObjectAL) Finch does not play compressed audio whilst ObjectAL will only convert it for me if I pass in a URL for the file (which is something I cannot do because I only have an incompatible iPod library URL). An example of an app that does what I want beautifilly is Tap DJ. It can load up songs from the iPod library fast (unlike TouchDJ and it plays them with all sorts of effects. Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • using libcurl to check if a file exists on a SFTP site

    - by Snazzer
    I'm using C++ with libcurl to do SFTP/FTPS transfers. Before uploading a file, I need to check if the file exists without actually downloading it. If the file doesn't exist, I run into the following problems: //set up curlhandle for the public/private keys and whatever else first. curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_URL, "sftp://user@pass:host/nonexistent-file"); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 1); curl_easy_setopt(CurlHandle, CURLOPT_FILETIME, 1); int result = curl_easy_perform(CurlHandle); //result is CURLE_OK, not CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND //using curl_easy_getinfo to get the file time will return -1 for filetime, regardless //if the file is there or not. If I don't use CURLOPT_NOBODY, it works, I get CURLE_REMOTE_FILE_NOT_FOUND. However, if the file does exist, it gets downloaded, which wastes time for me, since I just want to know if it's there or not. Any other techniques/options I'm missing? Note that it should work for ftps as well. Edit: This error occurs with sftp. With FTPS/FTP I get CURLE_FTP_COULDNT_RETR_FILE, which I can work with.

    Read the article

  • How can I get the type I want?

    - by Danny Chen
    There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

    Read the article

  • PHP Exceptions in Classes

    - by mike condiff
    I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

    Read the article

  • MinGW-gcc PCH not speeding up wxWidget build times. Is my setup correct?

    - by Victor T.
    Hi all, I've been building wxMSW 2.8.11 with the latest stable release of mingw-gcc 4.5.1 and I'm trying to see if the build could be sped up using precompiled headers. My initial attempts at this doesn't seem to work. I basically followed the given instructions here. I created a wxprec.h precompiled header with the following: g++ -O2 -mthreads -DHAVE_W32API_H -D__WXMSW__ -DNDEBUG -D_UNICODE -I..\..\lib\gcc_dll\mswu -I..\..\include -W -Wall -DWXBUILDING -I..\.. \src\tiff -I..\..\src\jpeg -I..\..\src\png -I..\..\src\zlib -I..\..\src \regex -I..\..\src\expat\lib -DwxUSE_BASE=1 -DWXMAKINGDLL -Wno-ctor- dtor-privacy ../../include/wx/wxprec.h That does successfully create a wxprec.h.gch that's about ~1.6meg in size. Now I proceed to build wxmsw using the follow make command from cmd.exe shell: mingw32-make -f makefile.gcc While, the build does succeed I noticed no speedup whatsoever then if pch wasn't used. To make sure gcc was actually using the pch I added -H in the config.gcc and did another rebuild. Indeed, the outputted include list does show a '!' next to the wxprec.h so gcc is supposely using it. What's the reason for pch not working? Did I setup the precompiled headers correctly or am I missing a step? Just for reference comparison, here's the compile times I get when building wxmsw 2.8.11 with the other compilers(visual studio 2010 and C++ Builder 2007). The time savings is pretty significant. | | release, pch | release, nopch | debug, nopch ------------------------------------------------------- | gcc451 | 8min 33sec | 8min 17sec | 8min 49sec | msc_1600 | 2min 23sec | 13min 11sec | -- | bcc593 | 0min 59sec | 2min 29sec | -- Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using capistrano to deploy from different git branches

    - by Toms Mikoss
    I am using capistrano to deploy a RoR application. The codebase is in a git repository, and branching is widely used in development. Capistrano uses deploy.rb file for it's settings, one of them being the branch to deploy from. My problem is this: let's say I create a new branch A from master. The deploy file will reference master branch. I edit that, so A can be deployed to test environment. I finish working on the feature, and merge branch A into master. Since the deploy.rb file from A is fresher, it gets merged in and now the deploy.rb in master branch references A. Time to edit again. That's a lot of seemingly unnecessary manual editing - the parameter should always match current branch name. On top of that, it is easy to forget to edit the settings each and every time. What would be the best way to automate this process? Edit: Turns out someone already had done exactly what I needed.

    Read the article

  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

    Read the article

  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

    Read the article

  • Java - How to declare table[i][j] elements as instance variables?

    - by JDelage
    All, I am trying to code a Connect4 game. For this, I have created a P4Game class and a P4Board class which represents the i X j dimensions of the Connect4 board. In P4Game, I have the following: public class P4Game{ //INSTANCE VARIABLES private int nbLines; private int nbColumns; private P4Board [][] position; //CONSTRUCTOR public P4Game(int nbLines, int nbColumns){ this.nbColumns = nbColumns; this.nbLines = nbLines; P4Board [][] position = new P4Board [nbLines][nbColumns]; //Creates the table to receive the instances of the P4Board object.*/ for (int i=0; i<nbLines; i++){ for (int j=0; j<nbColumns; j++){ this.position[i][j] = new P4Board(i,j); //Meant to create each object at (line=i, column=j) } } } This causes a NullPointerException in the nested loops where I mention this.position[i][j]. I reference those objects in other methods of this class so I need them to be instance variables. I suppose the exception is due to the fact that I have not listed the table element position[i][j] as an instance variable at the beginning of the class. my question to people here is (1) is my assumption correct, and if so (2) what would be the syntax to declare instance variables of this form? Thank you all for your help with what I realize is a very basic question. Hopefully it will also benefit other newbies. Cheers, JDelage

    Read the article

  • Generic cast type to primitive.

    - by Nix
    Is there a way to do the below? Imagine a generic result wrapper class. Where you have a type and an associated error list. When there is no result to return to the user we will use boolean to indicate success failure. I want to create a constructor that takes in an error list, and if the list is null or count 0, AND the type is a bool/Boolean i want to set it to true.... Seemingly simple, but amazingly not possible. public class Result<T>{ private T valueObject { get;set;} private List<Error> errors{ get;set;} public Result(T valueObj, List<Error> errorList){ this.valueObject = valueObj; this.errors = errorList; } public Result(List<Error> errors) { this.valueObject = default(ReturnType); if (valueObject is Boolean) { //Wont work compile //(valueObject as Boolean) = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); //Compiles but detaches reference //bool temp = ((bool)(valueObject as object)) ; //temp = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); } this.errors = errors; } } } Am I missing something simple? And in general I would prefer to do it without reflection.

    Read the article

  • Java: Ignoring escapes when parsing XML

    - by Personman
    I'm using a DocumentBuilder to parse XML files. However, the specification for the project requires that within text nodes, strings like " and < be returned literally, and not turned into the corresponding ASCII values. A previous similar question, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1979785/read-escaped-quote-as-escaped-quote-from-xml, received one answer that seems to be specific to Apache, and another that appears to simply not not do what it says it does. I'd love to be proven wrong on either count, however :) For reference, here is some code: file = new File(fileName); DocBderFac = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocBder = DocBderFac.newDocumentBuilder(); doc = DocBder.parse(file); NodeList textElmntLst = doc.getElementsByTagName(text); Element textElmnt = (Element) textElmntLst.item(0); NodeList txts = textElmnt.getChildNodes(); String txt = ((Node) txts.item(0)).getNodeValue(); System.out.println(txt); I would like that println() to produce things like &quot;3&gt;2&quot; instead of "3>2" which is what currently happens. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

    Read the article

  • How can I embed images within my application and use them in HTML control?

    - by Atara
    Is there any way I can embed the images within my exe (as resource?) and use it in generated HTML ? Here are the requirements: A. I want to show dynamic HTML content (e.g. using webBrowser control, VS 2008, VB .Net, winForm desktop application) B. I want to generate the HTML on-the-fly using XML and XSL (file1.xml or file2.xml transformed by my.xsl) C. The HTML may contain IMG tags (file1.gif and or file2.gif according to the xml+xsl transformation) and here comes the complicated one: D. All these files (file1.xml, file2.xml, my.xsl, file1.gif, file2.gif) should be embedded in one exe file. I guess the XML and XSL can be embedded resources, and I can read them as stream, but what ways do I have to reference the image within the HTML ? <IMG src="???" /> I do not want to use absolute path and external files. If the image files are resources, can I use relative path? Relative to what? (I can use BASE tag, and then what?) Can I use stream as in email messages? If so, where can I find the format I need to use? http://www.websiteoptimization.com/speed/tweak/inline-images/ are browser dependent. What is the browser used by webBrowser control? IE? what version? Does it matter if I use GIF or JPG or BMP (or any other image format) for the images? Does it matter if I use mshtml library and not the regular webBrowser control? (currently I use http://www.itwriting.com/htmleditor/index.php ) Does it matter if I upgrade to VS 2010 ? Thanks, Atara

    Read the article

  • Execute javascript in PHP

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

    Read the article

  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

    Read the article

  • Update Options on Existing jQuery Object

    - by Vince Kronlein
    I'm using Bootstrap and DataTables in my app and I have a default initializer for tables based on class. I can just add the class data-table to the table and it gets instantiated with the default values I want. I'd like to know how to change or update specific options based on a specific table. if ($.fn.dataTable) { $('.data-table').dataTable( { sDom: "R<'row'<'span6'l><'span6'f>r>t<'row'<'span6'i><'span6'p>>", sPaginationType: "bootstrap", oLanguage: { "sLengthMenu": "_MENU_ &nbsp; records per page" }, aoColumnDefs: [ { "bSortable": false, "aTargets": [ 0 ] } ] }); } All my data tables have a checkbox in the first column so the above removal of sorting works for all of them. But I'd like to be able to update the aoColumnDefs on a table by table basis so I can add other columns that I don't want sorted. So let's say I have a table: $('#member-list'), how do I access this object and update it's datatables options in jQuery? I can't find any reference or help anywhere. Thanks a lot! -V

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >