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  • Constraint to array dimension in C language

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    int KMP( const char *original, int o_len, const char *substring, int s_len ){ if( o_len < s_len ) return -1; int k = 0; int cur = 1; int fail[ s_len ]; fail[ k ] = -1; while( cur < s_len ){ k = cur - 1; do{ if( substring[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ fail[ cur ] = k; break; }else{ k = fail[ k ] + 1; } }while( k ); if( !k && ( substring[ cur ] != substring[ 0 ] ) ){ fail[ cur ] = -1; }else if( !k ){ fail[ cur ] = 0; } cur++; } k = 0; cur = 0; while( ( k < s_len ) && ( cur < o_len ) ){ if( original[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ cur++; k++; }else{ if( k == 0 ){ cur++; }else{ k = fail[ k - 1 ] + 1; } } } if( k == s_len ) return cur - k; else return -1; } This is a KMP algorithm I once coded. When I reviewed it this morning, I find it strange that an integer array is defined as int fail[ s_len ]. Does the specification requires dimesion of arrays compile-time constant? How can this code pass the compilation? By the way, my gcc version is 4.4.1. Thanks in advance!

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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  • File streaming in PHP - How to replicate this C#.net code in PHP?

    - by openid_kenja
    I'm writing an interface to a web service where we need to upload configuration files. The documentation only provides a sample in C#.net which I am not familiar with. I'm trying to implement this in PHP. Can someone familiar with both languages point me in the right direction? I can figure out all the basics, but I'm trying to figure out suitable PHP replacements for the FileStream, ReadBytes, and UploadDataFile functions. I believe that the RecService object contains the URL for the web service. Thanks for your help! private void UploadFiles() { clientAlias = “<yourClientAlias>”; string filePath = “<pathToYourDataFiles>”; string[] fileList = {"Config.txt", "ProductDetails.txt", "BrandNames.txt", "CategoryNames.txt", "ProductsSoldOut.txt", "Sales.txt"}; RecommendClient RecService = new RecommendClient(); for (int i = 0; i < fileList.Length; i++) { bool lastFile = (i == fileList.Length - 1); //start generator after last file try { string fileName = filePath + fileList[i]; if (!File.Exists(fileName)) continue; // file not found } // set up a file stream and binary reader for the selected file and convert to byte array FileStream fStream = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(fStream); byte[] data = br.ReadBytes((int)numBytes); br.Close(); // pass byte array to the web service string result = RecService.UploadDataFile(clientAlias, fileList[i], data, lastFile); fStream.Close(); fStream.Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log an error message } } }

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

    - by Moe Sisko
    Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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  • When I get the Force Close dialog, I have a Report button. Where did it come from?

    - by BenTobin
    I feel a little bit silly asking this, but I haven't been able to find any answers on my own. My Force Close dialog has a "Report" button. I think it's a great idea, and I wish everyone had it. At first, I thought it must be something I turned on without realizing it, but not only can't I find any setting that I might have touched, I also can't find any reference to this button existing on the Internet. I have a Droid, and I know 4 other people with Droids, and they say they don't have the option to report Force Closes. Am I special? Am I just missing something? The "report" button has been there for at least a few weeks now. When I use the Report button, I get a screen with a "feedback" field and a checkbox for "Include system data". Below that , it says "Information from feedback reports will be shown to the developer of the application." Under that are Preview and Send buttons. As a developer, I've never received one of these reports. I'd try to send a report to myself, but it seemingly only shows the button for apps installed from the market, and I don't know of a way to crash my production app. I suppose I could publish a simple crashing app just to try it out, but I thought I'd ask you folks first. Edit: You can view screenshots here: http://bentobin.com/crashReportImages/

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  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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  • PEAR:DB connection parameters

    - by Markus Ossi
    I just finished my first PHP site and now I have a security-related question. I used PEAR:DB for the database connection and made a separate parameter file for it. How should I hide this parameter file? I found a guide (http://www.kitebird.com/articles/peardb.html) that says: Another way to specify connection parameters is to put them in a separate file that you reference from your main script. ... It also enables you to move the parameter file outside of the web server's document tree, which prevents its contents from being displayed literally if the server becomes misconfigured and starts serving PHP scripts as plain text. I have now put my file in a directory like this /include/db_parameters.inc However, if I go to this URL, the web server shows me the contents of the file including my database username and password. From what I've understood, I should protect this file so, that even though PHP would be served as text, nobody could read this. What does outside of web server's document tree mean here? Put the PHP file out of public_html directory altogether deeper into the server file system? Some CHMOD?

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Java: which configuration framework to use?

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I need to decide which configuration framework to use. At the moment I am thinking between using properties files and XML files. My configuration needs to have some primitive grouping, e.g. in XML format would be something like: <configuration> <group name="abc"> <param1>value1</param1> <param2>value2</param2> </group> <group name="def"> <param3>value3</param3> <param4>value4</param4> </group> </configuration> or a properties file (something similar to log4j.properties): group.abc.param1 = value1 group.abc.param2 = value2 group.def.param3 = value3 group.def.param4 = value4 I need bi-directional (read and write) configuration library/framework. Nice feature would be - that I could read out somehow different configuration groups as different objects, so I could later pass them to different places, e.g. - reading everything what belongs to group "abc" as one object and "def" as another. If that is not possible I can always split single configuration object into smaller ones myself in the application initialization part of course. Which framework would best fit for me?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

    - by Brian Bassett
    I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

    - by Øystein
    Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • MySQL " identify storage engine statement"

    - by sammysmall
    This IS NOT a Homework question! While building my current student database project I realized that I may want to identify comprehensive information about a database design in the future. More-so if I am fortunate enough to get a job in this field and were handed a database project how could I break down certain elements for identification... In all of my previous designs I have been using MySQL Community Server (GPL) 5.1.42, I thought (duh) that I was using the MyISAM based on most of my text-book instruction and MySQL 5.0 Reference Manual :: 13 Storage Engines :: 13.1 The MyISAM Storage Engine I determined that this was in fact incorrect for this version and the use of "SHOW ENGINES" at the console... No problem, figured out why they have "versions" the need to pay attention to what version is being used, and the need for a means to determine what I am about to mess up "if" I do not pay attention to detail... Q1. Specifically what statement will identify the version used by someone elses initial database creation? (since I created my own databases I know what version I used) Q2. Specifically what statement will identify the storage engine that the developer used when creating the database. (I specified a particular database in my collection then tried SHOW Engine, did not work, then tried to just get the metadata from one table in that database: mysql SELECT duck_cust, table_type, engine - FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.tables - WHERE table_schema = 'tp' - ORDER BY table_type ASC, table_name DESC; as this was not really what I wanted (and did not work) I am looking for some direction from the pros... Q3. (If you really have the inclination to continue helping) If I were to access a database from an earlier/later "version" are there backward/forward compatibility issues for maintaining/updating data between versions? Please and Thank you in advance for your time and efforts! sammysmall

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  • python crc32 woes

    - by lazyr
    I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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  • Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

    - by Darin
    I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • Implement a threading to prevent UI block on a bug in an async function

    - by Marcx
    I think I ran up againt a bug in an async function... Precisely the getDirectoryListingAsync() of the File class... This method is supposted to return an object containing the lists of files in a specified folder. I found that calling this method on a direcory with a lot of files (in my tests more than 20k files), after few seconds there is a block on the UI until the process is completed... I think that this method is separated in two main block: 1) get the list of files 2) create the array with the details of the files The point 1 seems to be async (for a few second the ui is responsive), then when the process pass from point 1 to point 2 the block of the UI occurs until the complete event is dispathed... Here's some (simple) code: private function checkFiles(dir:File):void { if (dir.exists) { dir.addEventListener( FileListEvent.DIRECTORY_LISTING, listaImmaginiLocale); dir.getDirectoryListingAsync(); // after this point, for the firsts seconds the UI respond well (point 1), // few seconds later (point 2) the UI is frozen } } private function listaImmaginiLocale( event:FileListEvent ):void { // from this point on the UI is responsive again... } Actually in my projects there are some function that perform an heavy cpu usage and to prevent the UI block I implemented a simple function that after some iteration will wait giving time to UI to be refreshed. private var maxIteration:int = 150000; private function sampleFunct(offset:int = 0) :void { if (offset < maxIteration) { // do something // call the recursive function using a timeout.. // if the offset in multiple by 1000 the function will wait 15 millisec, // otherwise it will be called immediately // 1000 is a random number for the pourpose of this example, but I usually change the // value based on how much heavy is the function itself... setTimeout(function():void{aaa(++offset);}, (offset%1000?15:0)); } } Using this method I got a good responsive UI without afflicting performance... I'd like to implement it into the getDirectoryListingAsync method but I don't know if it's possibile how can I do it where is the file to edit or extend.. Any suggestion???

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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  • C Programming: malloc() inside another function

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, I need help with malloc() inside another function. I'm passing a pointer and size to the function from my main() and I would like to allocate memory for that pointer dynamically using malloc() from inside that called function, but what I see is that.... the memory which is getting allocated is for the pointer declared withing my called function and not for the pointer which is inside the main(). How should I pass a pointer to a function and allocate memory for the passed pointer from inside the called function? Can anyone throw light on this? Help!!! Vikram I have written the following code and I get the output as shown below SOURCE: main() { unsigned char *input_image; unsigned int bmp_image_size = 262144; if(alloc_pixels(input_image, bmp_image_size)==NULL) printf("\nPoint2: Memory allocated: %d bytes",_msize(input_image)); else printf("\nPoint3: Memory not allocated"); } signed char alloc_pixels(unsigned char *ptr, unsigned int size) { signed char status = NO_ERROR; ptr = NULL; ptr = (unsigned char*)malloc(size); if(ptr== NULL) { status = ERROR; free(ptr); printf("\nERROR: Memory allocation did not complete successfully!"); } printf("\nPoint1: Memory allocated: %d bytes",_msize(ptr)); return status; } PROGRAM OUTPUT: Point1: Memory allocated ptr: 262144 bytes Point2: Memory allocated input_image: 0 bytes

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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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