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  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • How to mimic polymorphism in classes with template methods (c++)?

    - by davide
    in the problem i am facing i need something which works more or less like a polymorphic class, but which would allow for virtual template methods. the point is, i would like to create an array of subproblems, each one being solved by a different technique implemented in a different class, but holding the same interface, then pass a set of parameters (which are functions/functors - this is where templates jump up) to all the subproblems and get back a solution. if the parameters would be, e.g., ints, this would be something like: struct subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter)=0; } struct subproblem0: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter){...}; } struct subproblem1: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double* solution, double parameter){...}; } int main{ subproblem problem[2]; subproblem[0] = new subproblem0(); subproblem[1] = new subproblem1(); double argument0(0), argument1(1), sol0[2], sol1[2]; for(unsigned int i(0);i<2;++i) { problem[i]->solve( &(sol0[i]) , argument0); problem[i]->solve( &(sol1[i]) , argument1); } return 0; } but the problem is, i need the arguments to be something like Arg<T1,T2> argument0(f1,f2) and thus the solve method to be something of the likes of template<T1,T2> solve (double* solution, Arg<T1,T2> parameter) which cant obviously be declared virtual ( so cant be called from a pointer to the base class)... now i'm pretty stuck and don't know how to procede...

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  • How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

    - by Justin Wiseman
    I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

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  • DDSteps date question.

    - by Srini
    DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

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  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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  • python crc32 woes

    - by lazyr
    I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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  • A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

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  • Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

    - by Darin
    I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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  • Ruby and RSS2 Feed not displaying image

    - by pcasa
    Trying to create a simple RSS2 Feed that I could later pass on to FeedBurner but can't get RSS feed to display images at all. Also, from what I have read having xml.instruct! on top might cause IE to complain it's not a valid feed. Is this true? My Code looks like xml.instruct! xml.rss "version" => "2.0", "xmlns:dc" => "http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" do xml.channel do xml.title "Store" xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products' xml.description "Store" xml.pubDate @products.first.updated_at.rfc822 if @products.any? @products.each do |product| xml.item do xml.title product.name xml.pubDate (product.updated_at.rfc822) xml.image do xml.url domain_host + product.product_image.url(:small) xml.title "Store" xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products' end xml.link url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products', :action => 'show', :id => product.permalink xml.description product.fine_print xml.guid url_for :only_path => false, :controller => 'products', :action => 'show', :id => product.permalink end end end end

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Disable ARC with Xcode 5

    - by user2187565
    First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

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  • Cakephp Search Plugin: DateTime Range

    - by Chris
    I am trying to search a model by dates using the CakePHP Search plugin The idea is: The user enters a date of a flight and the engine returns all flights within +- one day of that. My form: <?php echo $form->create('Flight', array( 'url' => array_merge(array('action' => 'find'), $this->params['pass']) )); echo $form->input('departure', array('div' => false, 'dateFormat' => 'DMY','timeFormat' => 'NONE')); echo $form->submit(__('Search', true), array('div' => false)); echo $form->end(); ?> My flight model: public $filterArgs = array( array('name' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression', 'method' => 'makeRangeCondition', 'field' => 'ABS((TO_Days(Flight.departure))-( TO_Days(?))) < 2') ); The controller: public $presetVars = array( array('field' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression') ); public function find() { $this->Prg->commonProcess(); $this->paginate['conditions'] = $this->Flight->parseCriteria($this->passedArgs); $this->set('flights', $this->paginate()); } When I try to search, the values for departure are packed in an array; Array ([departure] => Array ) And the filterArgs(...) function doesn't seem to understand this. What is the correct way to do this?

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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  • Constraint to array dimension in C language

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    int KMP( const char *original, int o_len, const char *substring, int s_len ){ if( o_len < s_len ) return -1; int k = 0; int cur = 1; int fail[ s_len ]; fail[ k ] = -1; while( cur < s_len ){ k = cur - 1; do{ if( substring[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ fail[ cur ] = k; break; }else{ k = fail[ k ] + 1; } }while( k ); if( !k && ( substring[ cur ] != substring[ 0 ] ) ){ fail[ cur ] = -1; }else if( !k ){ fail[ cur ] = 0; } cur++; } k = 0; cur = 0; while( ( k < s_len ) && ( cur < o_len ) ){ if( original[ cur ] == substring[ k ] ){ cur++; k++; }else{ if( k == 0 ){ cur++; }else{ k = fail[ k - 1 ] + 1; } } } if( k == s_len ) return cur - k; else return -1; } This is a KMP algorithm I once coded. When I reviewed it this morning, I find it strange that an integer array is defined as int fail[ s_len ]. Does the specification requires dimesion of arrays compile-time constant? How can this code pass the compilation? By the way, my gcc version is 4.4.1. Thanks in advance!

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  • Convert a Dynamic[] construct to a numerical list

    - by Leo Alekseyev
    I have been trying to put together something that allows me to extract points from a ListPlot in order to use them in further computations. My current approach is to select points with a Locator[]. This works fine for displaying points, but I cannot figure out how to extract numerical values from a construct with head Dynamic[]. Below is a self-contained example. By dragging the gray locator, you should be able to select points (indicated by the pink locator and stored in q, a list of two elements). This is the second line below the plot. Now I would like to pass q[[2]] to a function, or perhaps simply display it. However, Mathematica treats q as a single entity with head Dynamic, and thus taking the second part is impossible (hence the error message). Can anyone shed light on how to convert q into a regular list? EuclideanDistanceMod[p1_List, p2_List, fac_: {1, 1}] /; Length[p1] == Length[p2] := Plus @@ (fac.MapThread[Abs[#1 - #2]^2 &, {p1, p2}]) // Sqrt; test1 = {{1.`, 6.340196001221532`}, {1.`, 13.78779876355869`}, {1.045`, 6.2634018978377295`}, {1.045`, 13.754947081416544`}, {1.09`, 6.178367702583522`}, {1.09`, 13.72055251752498`}, {1.135`, 1.8183153704413153`}, {1.135`, 6.082497198000075`}, {1.135`, 13.684582525399742`}, {1.18`, 1.6809452373465104`}, {1.18`, 5.971583107298081`}, {1.18`, 13.646996905469383`}, {1.225`, 1.9480537697339537`}, {1.225`, 5.838386922625636`}, {1.225`, 13.607746407088161`}, {1.27`, 2.1183174369679234`}, {1.27`, 5.669799095595362`}, {1.27`, 13.566771130126131`}, {1.315`, 2.2572975468163463`}, {1.315`, 5.444014254828522`}, {1.315`, 13.523998701347882`}, {1.36`, 2.380307009155079`}, {1.36`, 5.153024664297602`}, {1.36`, 13.479342200528283`}, {1.405`, 2.4941312539733285`}, {1.405`, 4.861423833512566`}, {1.405`, 13.432697814928654`}, {1.45`, 2.6028066447609426`}, {1.45`, 4.619367407525507`}, {1.45`, 13.383942212133244`}}; DynamicModule[{p = {1.2, 10}, q = {1.3, 11}}, q := Dynamic@ First@test1[[ Ordering[{#, EuclideanDistanceMod[p, #, {1, .1}]} & /@ test1, 1, #1[[2]] < #2[[2]] &]]]; Grid[{{Show[{ListPlot[test1, Frame -> True, ImageSize -> 300], Graphics@Locator[Dynamic[p]], Graphics@ Locator[q, Appearance -> {Small}, Background -> Pink]}]}, {Dynamic@p}, {q},{q[[2]]}}]]

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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