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  • Java: which configuration framework to use?

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I need to decide which configuration framework to use. At the moment I am thinking between using properties files and XML files. My configuration needs to have some primitive grouping, e.g. in XML format would be something like: <configuration> <group name="abc"> <param1>value1</param1> <param2>value2</param2> </group> <group name="def"> <param3>value3</param3> <param4>value4</param4> </group> </configuration> or a properties file (something similar to log4j.properties): group.abc.param1 = value1 group.abc.param2 = value2 group.def.param3 = value3 group.def.param4 = value4 I need bi-directional (read and write) configuration library/framework. Nice feature would be - that I could read out somehow different configuration groups as different objects, so I could later pass them to different places, e.g. - reading everything what belongs to group "abc" as one object and "def" as another. If that is not possible I can always split single configuration object into smaller ones myself in the application initialization part of course. Which framework would best fit for me?

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  • Convert SVG to PDF

    - by Adrian Smith
    How would one go about converting a SVG file to a PDF programatically? (I need to alter the SVG in certain respects before generating the PDF so simply pre-converting it using a tool won't be sufficient.) Ideally using Java but Perl or PHP would be fine too. Obviously I am basically considering Apache FOP and Batik with Java. However no matter how long I search I cannot find a simple introduction on how to do it. Things like SVGConverter have descriptions like "Defines the interface for classes that are able to convert part or all of a GraphicContext", but I don't really know what that means. I have this feeling there must be an API to do this quite simply, provided by FOP or Batik, but I'm just not able to find it at the moment (or perhaps it really doesn't exist.) In terms of the supported SVG features I need, the file has some paths which are filled with some linear gradients. Ideally if I could pass the SVG in as a DOM Document that would be ideal; then I would load my template SVG file, change it as specified by the user, and then generate the PDF.

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • GridView to excel after create send mail c#

    - by Diego Bran
    I want to send a .xlsx , first I created (It has html code in it) then I used a SMTP server to send it , it does attach the file but when I tried to open it " It says that the file is corrupted etc" any help? Here is my code try { System.IO.StringWriter sw = new System.IO.StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htw = new System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter(sw); // Render grid view control. gvStock.RenderControl(htw); // Write the rendered content to a file. string renderedGridView = sw.ToString(); File.WriteAllText(@"C:\test\ExportedFile.xls", renderedGridView); // File.WriteAllText(@"C:\test\ExportedFile.xls", p1); } catch (Exception e) { Response.Write(e.Message); } try { MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); SmtpClient SmtpServer = new SmtpClient("server"); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Test Mail - 1"; mail.Body = "mail with attachment"; Attachment data = new Attachment("C:/test/ExportedFile.xls"); mail.Attachments.Add(data); SmtpServer.Port = 25; SmtpServer.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("user", "pass"); // SmtpServer.EnableSsl = true; SmtpServer.UseDefaultCredentials = false; SmtpServer.Send(mail); } catch( Exception e) { Response.Write(e.Message); }

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  • Codeigniter return config file as array with autoload enabled

    - by Fverswijver
    So I'm using CodeIgniter to build a website and I've made it so that all my specific settings are stored in a config file that's automatically loaded. I've also built a page that loads the settings file, makes a nice little table and allows me to edit everything from that page, afterwards it saves the entire page again (I know I could've done the same with a database but I want to try it this way). My problem is that I can't seem to use this bit when autoloading of my config file is enabled, but when I disable autoloading I can't seem to manually load it, it never finds my variables. So what I'm doing here is just taking all values from the config file and putting them in a single array so I can pass this array onto my settings administration page (edit/show all settings). $this->config->load('site_settings', TRUE); $data['settings'] = $this->config->item('site_settings'); ... $this->load->view('template', $data); config/site_settings.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); $config['header_img'] = './img/header/'; $config['copyright_text'] = 'Copyright Instituto Kabu'; $config['copyright_font'] = './system/fonts/motoroil.ttf'; $config['copyright_font_color'] = 'ffffff'; $config['copyright_font_size'] = '32';

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

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  • send post data in jsf

    - by milostrivun
    I just cannot figure this out, it looks really simple but I'm relatively new at jsf. Here is the old stuff: Plain old html form tag like this: <form name="someForm" action="somewhere" method="post"> <input name="param1"/> <input name="param2" /> </form That is sending data by post to a location specified in the action attribute of the form. The new stuff: <h:form id="paymentForm"> <h:panelGroup> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param1}" ></h:inputText> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param2}" ></h:inputText> <h:panelGroup> <h:commandLink>Submit</h:commandLink> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> This other new stuff doesn't work. 1.How do I specify to this h:form where to go(like setting action in old html) because I need it to go to a totally new url. 2.how to pass params with POST? Any help is appreciated. Milos

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • Working With Feeds and Lists

    - by Nathan Campos
    I'm using a ListView component to list up some informations at a RSS feed, but when the user clicks the row, I want to change into a detailed view of that RSS Item, so far I've done this: function parseFeed(feed) { var html = ""; for(var i = 0; i < feed.items.length && i < 5; i++) { var item = feed.items[i]; var title = item.title; html += "\n<li onClick='goDetailed()'>\n"; html += "<h3><a href='#' class='ui-link-inherit'>" + title + "</a></h3>\n"; html += "<p>" + item.description + "</p>\n"; html += "</li>"; } $("#dList").append(html); $("#dList").listview('refresh'); } function goDetailed() { $.mobile.changePage($('#detailedPage')); } One of my problems is that the Back button won't come back(it does nothing). My other question is how I can pass the item.title, item.description, item.link and item.updated of the selected row(feed item) to some <div data-role="content">'s at the detail page.

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • How to force inclusion of an object file in a static library when linking into executable?

    - by Brian Bassett
    I have a C++ project that due to its directory structure is set up as a static library A, which is linked into shared library B, which is linked into executable C. (This is a cross-platform project using CMake, so on Windows we get A.lib, B.dll, and C.exe, and on Linux we get libA.a, libB.so, and C.) Library A has an init function (A_init, defined in A/initA.cpp), that is called from library B's init function (B_init, defined in B/initB.cpp), which is called from C's main. Thus, when linking B, A_init (and all symbols defined in initA.cpp) is linked into B (which is our desired behavior). The problem comes in that the A library also defines a function (Af, defined in A/Afort.f) that is intended to by dynamically loaded (i.e. LoadLibrary/GetProcAddress on Windows and dlopen/dlsym on Linux). Since there are no references to Af from library B, symbols from A/Afort.o are not included into B. On Windows, we can artifically create a reference by using the pragma: #pragma comment (linker, "/export:_Af") Since this is a pragma, it only works on Windows (using Visual Studio 2008). To get it working on Linux, we've tried adding the following to A/initA.cpp: extern void Af(void); static void (*Af_fp)(void) = &Af; This does not cause the symbol Af to be included in the final link of B. How can we force the symbol Af to be linked into B?

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  • Python FTP grabbing and saving images issue

    - by PylonsN00b
    OK So I have been messing with this all day long. I am fairly new to Python FTP. So I have searched through here and came up w/ this: images = notions_ftp.nlst() for image_name in image_names: if found_url == False: try: for image in images: ftp_image_name = "./%s" % image_name if ftp_image_name == image: found_url = True image_name_we_want = image_name except: pass # We failed to find an image for this product, it will have to be done manually if found_url == False: log.info("Image ain't there baby -- SKU: %s" % sku) return False # Hey we found something! Open the image.... notions_ftp.retrlines("RETR %s" % image_name_we_want, open(image_name_we_want, "rb")) 1/0 So I have narrowed the error down to the line before I divide by zero. Here is the error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 6, in <module> File "<console>", line 39, in insert_image IOError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '411483CC-IT,IM.jpg' So if you follow the code you will see that the image IS in the directory because image_name_we_want is set if found in that directory listing on the first line of my code. And I KNOW it's there because I am looking at the FTP site myself and ...it's freakin there. So at some point during all of this I got the image to save locally, which is most desired, but I have long since forgot what I used to make it do that. Either way, why does it think that the image isn't there when it clearly finds it in the listing.

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  • How might one cope with the ambiguous value produced by GetDllDirectory?

    - by Integer Poet
    GetDllDirectory produces an ambiguous value. When the string this call produces is empty, it means one of the following: nobody has called SetDllDirectory somebody passed NULL to SetDllDirectory somebody passed an empty string to SetDllDirectory The first two cases are equivalent for my purposes, but the third case is a problem. If I want to write save/restore code (call GetDllDirectory to save the "old" value, SetDllDirectory to set a "new" value temporarily, and later SetDllDirectory again to restore the "old" value), I run the risk of reversing some other programmer's intent. If the other programmer intended for the current working directory to be in the DLL search order (in other words, one of the first two bullets is true), and I pass an empty string to SetDllDirectory, I will be taking the current working directory out of the DLL search order, reversing the other programmer's intent. Can anyone suggest an approach to eliminate or work around this ambiguity? P.S. I know having the current working directory in the DLL search order could be interpreted as a security hole. Nevertheless, it is the default behavior, and my code is not in a position to undo that; my code needs to be compatible with the expectations of all potential callers, many of which are large and old and beyond my control.

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  • How to cache code in PHP?

    - by Janis Peisenieks
    I am creating a custom form building system, which includes various tokens. These tokens are found using Regular Expressions, and depending on the type of toke, parsed. Some require simple replacement, some require cycles, and so forth. Now I know, that RegExp is quite resource and time consuming, so I would like to be able to parse the code for the form once, creating a php code, and then save the PHP code, for next uses. How would I go about doing this? So far I have only seen output caching. Is there a way to cache commands like echo and cycles like foreach()? Because of misunderstandings, I'll create an example. Unparsed template data: Thank You for Your interest, [*Title*] [*Firstname*] [*Lastname*]. Here are the details of Your order! [*KeyValuePairs*] Here is the link to Your request: [*LinkToRequest*]. Parsed template: "Thank You for Your interest, <?php echo $data->title;?> <?php echo $data->firstname;?> <?php echo $data->lastname;?>. Here are the details of Your order! <?php foreach($data->values as $key=>$value){ echo $key."-".$value }?> Here is the link to Your request: <?php echo $data->linkToRequest;?>. I would then save the parsed template, and instead of parsing the template every time, just pass the $data variable to the already parsed one, which would generate an output.

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

    - by Steve
    I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

    - by DroidIn.net
    I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

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  • Webkit browsers rendering CSS different than Mozilla Firefox...Why??

    - by JAG2007
    I'm styling a form that was already marked up (made some markup changes), and I normally work in Firefox to style so I can use firebug and the web developer toolbar. On this project, I noticed that my styles are displaying quite differently for one particular area (several elements) in webkit based browsers Chrome and Safari, than in Firefox (we won't even get into Internet Explorer, although it is siding with the Firefox display). I can't figure out though why the styles are displaying so differently. Normally there is some rule that I'm neglecting that Firefox just takes for granted, and the others need it specified. But here I'm not getting why it's displaying this way. In particular I'm referring to the bottom area of the form where users can enter their contact info, then submit the form. I'll attach screen shots for reference as to the discrepancy. Here's the URL so feel free to check it out on your own. Although be advised that this is a production page (already released) so if you try out the form, you WILL BE added to CURE's contact database. http://www.helpcurenow.org/survey2010 Here's the screen shots: Firefox (the way I intend it to look) Chrome, and then Safari - strange change to submit button As a bonus, if anybody wants to help me with figuring out why on earth IE7 wants to not show the background behind the questions only, and how to fix that I would be much obliged! Thanks very much.

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  • How to Object Array to List

    - by Peter Black
    (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

    - by williamjones
    Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

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