Search Results

Search found 19554 results on 783 pages for 'xml pull parser'.

Page 720/783 | < Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >

  • WPF C# Client/Server announcement system

    - by manemawanna
    I'm currently in the process of creating an announcement system at my place of work. The role of this system will be to replace all users email due to people misusing it and generally abusing the facility. The system will consist of: Web Portal: Will allow staff to enter any important announcements (this will be restricted via AD). SQL Server 2k5 DB: Will hold the announcements along with records of staff members and if they've read the announcements etc. Front End: Created in WPF & C# which is nearly complete, it will display the announcements to the users. Web Page: Client will contact every so often, which will return an xml file for the client to read. However my boss has now shifted the goal posts and would like the announcements to appear to the user once they are written to the database, rather than waiting on the client to contact the webpage. So now I'm a bit unsure as to how to go about this. I have one idea where I would create a small server application to monitor for new announcements then contact the clients to inform them to approach the website for the information they need. But I'm just looking to see if theres a better or more efficient way to do this or if someone else has a more appropriate idea or suggestion.

    Read the article

  • web service slowdown

    - by user238591
    Hi, I have a web service slowdown. My (web) service is in gsoap & managed C++. It's not IIS/apache hosted, but speaks xml. My client is in .NET The service computation time is light (<0.1s to prepare reply). I expect the service to be smooth, fast and have good availability. I have about 100 clients, response time is 1s mandatory. Clients have about 1 request per minute. Clients are checking web service presence by tcp open port test. So, to avoid possible congestion, I turned gSoap KeepAlive to false. Until there everything runs fine : I bearly see connections in TCPView (sysinternals) New special synchronisation program now calls the service in a loop. It's higher load but everything is processed in less 30 seconds. With sysinternals TCPView, I see that about 1 thousands connections are in TIME_WAIT. They slowdown the service and It takes seconds for the service to reply, now. Could it be that I need to reset the SoapHttpClientProtocol connection ? Someone has TIME_WAIT ghosts with a web service call in a loop ?

    Read the article

  • Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

    - by Ólafur Waage
    In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

    Read the article

  • GWT with JPA - no persistence provider...

    - by meliniak
    GWT with JPA There are two projects in my eclipse workspace, let's name them: -JPAProject -GWTProject JPAProject contains JPA configuration stuff (persistence.xml, entity classes and so on). GWTProject is an examplary GWT project (taken from official GWT tutorial). Both projects work fine alone. That is, I can create EMF (EntityManagerFactory) in JPAProject and get entities from the database. GWTProject works fine too, I can run it, fill the field text in the browser and get the response. My goal is to call JPAProject from GWTProject to get entities. But the problem is that when calling DAO, I get the following exception: [WARN] Server class 'com.emergit.service.dao.profile.ProfileDaoService' could not be found in the web app, but was found on the system classpath [WARN] Adding classpath entry 'file:/home/maliniak/workspace/emergit/build/classes/' to the web app classpath for this session [WARN] /gwttest/greet javax.persistence.PersistenceException: No Persistence provider for EntityManager named emergitPU at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Unknown Source) at com.emergit.service.dao.profile.JpaProfileDaoService.<init>(JpaProfileDaoService.java:19) at pl.maliniak.server.GreetingServiceImpl.<init>(GreetingServiceImpl.java:21) . . . at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handle(HttpConnection.java:380) at org.mortbay.io.nio.SelectChannelEndPoint.run(SelectChannelEndPoint.java:395) at org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool$PoolThread.run(QueuedThreadPool.java:488) [ERROR] 500 - POST /gwttest/greet (127.0.0.1) 3812 bytes I guess that the warnings at the beginning can be omitted for now. Do you have any ideas? I guess I am missing some basic point. All hints are highly apprecieable.

    Read the article

  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

    Read the article

  • T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

    - by Shayne
    I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

    Read the article

  • a way to use log4j pass values like java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my code

    - by raticulin
    I need to pass some value to enable certain code in may app (in this case is to optionally enable writing some stats to a file in certain conditions, but it might be anything generally). My java app is installed as a service. So every way I have thought of has some drawbacks: Add another param to main(): cumbersome as customers already have the tool installed, and the command line would need to be changed every time. Adding java -DmyEnvVar=A_VALUE to my command line: same as above. Set an environment variable: service should at least be restarted, and even then you must take care of what user is the service running under etc. Adding the property in the config file: I prefer not to have this visible on the config file so the user does not see it, it is something for debugging etc. So I thought maybe there is some way (or hack) to use log4j loggers to pass that value to my code. I have thought of one way already, although is very limited: Add a dummy class to my codebase com.dummy.DevOptions public class DevOptions { public static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(DevOptions.class); In my code, use it like this: if (DevOptions.logger.isInfoEnabled()){ //do my optional stuff } //... if (DevOptions.logger.isDebugEnabled()){ //do other stuff } This allows me to use discriminate among various values, and I could increase the number by adding more loggers to DevOptions. But I wonder whether there is a cleaner way, possibly by configuring the loggers only in log4j.xml??

    Read the article

  • In XSLT, how can you sort using an indirect key?

    - by edholder
    I am having trouble getting xsl:sort to understand the scope of the attributes I am referencing. Here is an XML sample document to illustrate: <Root> <DrinkSelections> <Drink id=1000 name="Coffee"/> <Drink id=1001 name="Water"/> <Drink id=1002 name="Tea"/> <Drink id=1003 name="Almost But Not Quite Entirely Unlike Tea"/> </DrinkSelections> <CustomerOrder> <Drinks> <Drink oid="1001"/> <Drink oid="1002"/> <Drink oid="1003"/> </Drinks> </CustomerOrder </Root> I want to produce a list of drinks (sorted by name) contained in the CustomerOrder. Here is the XSLT code I am fiddling with: <xsl:for-each select="/Root/CustomerOrder/Drinks/Drink"> <xsl:sort select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = @oid]/@name"/> <xsl:variable name=var_oid select="@oid"/> <xsl:value-of select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = $var_oid]/@name"/> </xsl:for-each> Apparently, the xsl:sort command is trying to apply the "oid" attribute to the Drink elements in DrinkSelections, rather than local Drink element. I can get around this using a variable, as in the xsl:value-of statement. But since xsl:sort must be the first statement after the xsl:for-each statement, I can't insert the xsl:variable statement before xsl:sort. Is there a way to explicitly state that the attribute value should be taken from the "local" element?

    Read the article

  • could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

    - by user1144695
    i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • ItemUpdating called twice after ItemAdded in event receiver

    - by Jason
    I've created an event receiver to handle the ItemAdded and ItemUpdating events on a document library in SharePoint 2010. I've encountered a problem where when I add a document to the library (e.g. by saving it back from Word) the ItemAdded method is correctly called however this is then followed by two calls to ItemUpdating. I have removed all code from my handlers to ensure that it's not something I'm doing inside that is causing the problem. They literally look like: public override void ItemUpdating(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } Does anyone have a solution to this issue? Here is my elements.xml file for the event receiver: <Elements xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/"> <Receivers ListTemplateId="101"> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemUpdating</Name> <Type>ItemUpdating</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemAdded</Name> <Type>ItemAdded</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> </Receivers> </Elements>

    Read the article

  • Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

    - by Brandon
    I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

    Read the article

  • Reserve space for initially hidden widget in QVBoxLayout

    - by Skinniest Man
    I am using a QVBoxLayout to arrange a vertical stack of widgets. I want some of them to be initially hidden and only show up when a check box is checked. Here is an example of the code I'm using. MyWidget::MyWidget(QWidget *parent) : QWidget(parent) { QVBoxLayout *layout = new QVBoxLayout(this); QLabel *labelLogTypes = new QLabel(tr("Log Types")); m_checkBoxCsv = new QCheckBox(tr("&Delimited File (CSV)")); m_labelDelimiter = new QLabel(tr("Delimiter:")); m_lineEditDelimiter = new QLineEdit(","); checkBoxCsv_Toggled(m_checkBoxCsv-isChecked()); connect(m_checkBoxCsv, SIGNAL(toggled(bool)), SLOT(checkBoxCsv_Toggled(bool))); QHBoxLayout *layoutDelimitedChar = new QHBoxLayout(); layoutDelimitedChar-addWidget(m_labelDelimiter); layoutDelimitedChar-addWidget(m_lineEditDelimiter); m_checkBoxXml = new QCheckBox(tr("&XML File")); m_checkBoxText = new QCheckBox(tr("Plain &Text File")); // Now that everything is constructed, put it all together // in the main layout. layout-addWidget(labelLogTypes); layout-addWidget(m_checkBoxCsv); layout-addLayout(layoutDelimitedChar); layout-addWidget(m_checkBoxXml); layout-addWidget(m_checkBoxText); layout-addStretch(); } MyWidget::checkBoxCsv_Toggled(bool checked) { m_labelDelimiter-setVisible(checked); m_lineEditDelimiter-setVisible(checked); } I want m_labelDelimiter and m_lineEditDelimiter both to be initially invisible and I want their visibility to toggle with the state of m_checkBoxCsv. This code acheives the functionality I desire, but it doesn't seem to reserve space for the two initially hidden widgets. When I check the checkbox, they become visible, but everything is kind of scrunched to accomodate them. If I leave them initially visible, everything is laid out just the way I would like it. Is there any way to make the QVBoxLayout reserve space for these widgets even if they're initially invisible?

    Read the article

  • Should TcpClient be used for this scenario?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I have to communicate with an iPhone. I have its IP Address and the port (obtained via Bonjour). I need to send a header that is “0x50544833” (or similar, It’s an HEX number), then the size of the data (below) and then the data itself. The data is just a string that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist SYSTEM "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>clientName</key> <string>XXX</string> <key>clientService</key> <string>0be397e7-21f4-4d3c-89d0-cdf179a7e14d</string> <key>registerCode</key> <string>0000</string> </dict> </plist> The requirement also says that I must send the data in little endian format (which I think is the default for Intel anyway). So it would be: hex_number + size of data + string_with_the_above_xml. I need to send that to the iPhone and read the response. What would be, according to your experience, the best way to send this data (and read the response)?

    Read the article

  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • after assembling jar - No Persistence provider for EntityManager named ....

    - by alabalaa
    im developing a standalone application and it works fine when starting it from my ide(intellij idea), but after creating an uberjar and start the application from it javax.persistence.spi.PersistenceProvider is thrown saying "No Persistence provider for EntityManager named testPU" here is my persistence.xml which is placed under meta-inf directory: <persistence-unit name="testPU" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>test.model.Configuration</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.password" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test"/> <property name="hibernate.show_sql" value="true"/> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.c3p0.timeout" value="300"/> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> and here is how im creating the entity manager factory: emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("testPU"); im using maven and tried the assembly plug-in with the default configuration fot it, i dont have much experience with assembling jars and i dont know if im missing something, so if u have any ideas ill be glad to hear them

    Read the article

  • Can I detect whether an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize?

    - by Joe White
    Is there a way to detect whether or not an object has called GC.SuppressFinalize? I have an object that looks something like this (full-blown Dispose pattern elided for clarity): public class ResourceWrapper { private readonly bool _ownsResource; private readonly UnmanagedResource _resource; public ResourceWrapper(UnmanagedResource resource, bool ownsResource) { _resource = resource; _ownsResource = ownsResource; if (!ownsResource) GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~ResourceWrapper() { if (_ownsResource) // clean up the unmanaged resource } } If the ownsResource constructor parameter is false, then the finalizer will have nothing to do -- so it seems reasonable (if a bit quirky) to call GC.SuppressFinalize right from the constructor. However, because this behavior is quirky, I'm very tempted to note it in an XML doc comment... and if I'm tempted to comment it, then I ought to write a unit test for it. But while System.GC has methods to set an object's finalizability (SuppressFinalize, ReRegisterForFinalize), I don't see any methods to get an object's finalizability. Is there any way to query whether GC.SuppressFinalize has been called on a given instance, short of buying Typemock or writing my own CLR host?

    Read the article

  • Can I get an XPathNodeIterator directly from an XPath?

    - by Val
    I hope I'm just missing something obvious. I have a number of repeating nodes in an XML document: <root> <parent> <child/> <child/> </parent> </root> I need to examine the contents of each of the <child> elements in turn, so I need an XPathNodeIterator containing the nodeset of all the <child> nodes. If I have an XPath that would select the child nodes, e.g. /root/parent/child, is there any way to feed that directly to a new XPathNodeIterator? Everything I see in the docs and examples indicates I have to first get an XPathNavigator to the <parent>, then Select the child nodes, like: XPathNavigator nav = datasource.CreateNavigator().SelectSingleNode( "/root/parent" ); XPathNodeIterator it = nav.Select( "./child" ); foreach ( child in it ) { /* do something */ } I was hoping to skip the XPathNavigator, and intialize the XPathNodeIterator with XPath to the child nodes directly, something like: XpathNodeIterator it = new XpathNodeIterator("/root/parent/child"); foreach ( child in it ) { /* do something */ } Possible? The benefit is not only saving a line of code, but I can use a single XPath expression, rather than splitting the path to the <child> nodes in two, first to get the parent element, then to select its children.

    Read the article

  • Random syntactical error in my php code that I can't find

    - by user348538
    Ordinarily I hate coming here with newbie code questions but nobody can find the error with this code. Maybe you guys can :-) <?php defined('SYSPATH') or die('No direct script access.'); /** * to interact with photos * * @author Max Padraig Wolfgang Bucknell-Leahy */ class Model_Photos { private $apiKey = '12664498208a1380fe49fb1b5a238ef0'; private $secret = '03d43dee65a34513'; private $perms = 'read'; private $sigString = 'test'; private $apiSig = md5($_sigString); private $authArray = array('api_key' => $apiKey, 'perms' => $perms, 'api_sig' => $apiSig); private $authArrayImploded = implode('&', $authArray); private $authLink = 'http://www.flickr.com/services/auth/?' . $authArrayImploded; public function get_photos($number = 5) { if(file_exists(APPPATH . 'cache/main_cache.xml') { echo $authLink; } else { echo 'not so good'; /** */ } } } $class = new Model_Photos; $class->get_photos; the error is: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '(', expecting ',' or ';' in /home/p14s9nnd/public_html/testing.php on line 15 Thank you in advance and sorry Regards, Max

    Read the article

  • ant conditions problem

    - by senzacionale
    I have problem with ant. I woul dlike to use conditions in ant. But i get error of: BUILD FAILED C:\Projekti\Projekt ANT\build.xml:412: Problem: failed to create task or type Cause: The name is undefined. Action: Check the spelling. Action: Check that any custom tasks/types have been declared. Action: Check that any / declarations have taken place. and this is code: <target name="test"> <input message="Write some text: " addproperty="foo" /> <if> <equals arg1="${foo}" arg2="bar" /> <then> <echo message="The value of property foo is 'bar'" /> </then> <elseif> <equals arg1="${foo}" arg2="foo" /> <then> <echo message="The value of property foo is 'foo'" /> </then> </elseif> <else> <echo message="The value of property foo is not 'foo' or 'bar'" /> </else> </if> </target>

    Read the article

  • What should I do from here?

    - by Sunscreen
    Hi all, First of all, the site rocks. You can ask and get specific answers, mainly, for programming issues. This question is more generic. I studied Physics for my bachelors and Digital Image Processing for my masters, ended on September 2001. From then on I started working as a developer and software analyst. I worked, and working, witn C, C++, AIX OS, XP OS, MFC 4.21. I also did some data translations from EDIFACT to XML and viceversa. I trained users for the applications that I was running, I created documents (detailed design docs mainly), though most of the time I wrote, and I still write, code. Recently I applied for the best greek, graduate university for my MBA and they accepted me, starting on Jan 2011. I am a developer with no specific insight with the languages I work. I can be very productive with some subsets of the languages that the companies I worked for use, though this is a limited thing for a developer. If I get my MBA I can be a semi-businees analyst ot consultant, as I am now a semi-developer. The problem is that I can do some but not all in a designated working area. What should I do from here? Should I get my MBA and look forswitching industries? Should I read and excersise myself with new languages and frameworks? Should I be more focussed to the deligations from my current job (currently I work with MFC)? Just for the note, I am 32 and I feel I am wasting my time. I am not getting the best that I can get from is current position (and I work here for 3+ years). Thanks all, Sun

    Read the article

  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Get information from WebPage.

    - by william-hu
    I want to set up an app which can get the information from a particular web page. Then i display the value which got from that page to the iPhone user. Detail:In the webpage on server ,there is the schedule for bus time. If the user input origin and terminus then show the user the time information(list on webpage) in a label. That's all. What i have finished is : Open the iphone app, input two value(origin and terminus) to UITextField. Send the URL to server. Get the page, and show in UIWebView. What my problem next is how should i get the information form that page into another two labels to give the user about the bus time. I have store data in my Array receiveData: self.receivedData = data; I am not clear the data i received is XML or what? And how should i pick-up the value i want. (should i save the value to property list and the read the value?) Thank you so much!

    Read the article

  • Batch insert mode with hibernate and oracle: seems to be dropping back to slow mode silently

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to get a batch insert working with Hibernate into Oracle, according to what i've read here: http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/core/3.3/reference/en/html/batch.html , but with my benchmarking it doesn't seem any faster than before. Can anyone suggest a way to prove whether hibernate is using batch mode or not? I hear that there are numerous reasons why it may silently drop into normal mode (eg associations and generated ids) so is there some way to find out why it has gone non-batch? My hibernate.cfg.xml contains this line which i believe is all i need to enable batch mode: <property name="jdbc.batch_size">50</property> My insert code looks like this: List<LogEntry> entries = ..a list of 100 LogEntry data classes... Session sess = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); for(LogEntry e : entries) { sess.save(e); } sess.flush(); sess.clear(); My 'logentry' class has no associations, the only interesting field is the id: @Entity @Table(name="log_entries") public class LogEntry { @Id @GeneratedValue public Long id; ..other fields - strings and ints... However, since it is oracle, i believe the @GeneratedValue will use the sequence generator. And i believe that only the 'identity' generator will stop bulk inserts. So if anyone can explain why it isn't running in batch mode, or how i can find out for sure if it is or isn't in batch mode, or find out why hibernate is silently dropping back to slow mode, i'd be most grateful. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4, Google Chrome, and HttpWebRequest problem

    - by synergetic
    My Silvrlight 4 application hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 working fine when used through Internet Explorer 8, both in development server and remote web server (IIS 6.0). However when I try to browse through Google Chrome (version 5.0.375.70) it throws "remote server returned not found" error. The code causing the problem is the following: public class MyWebClient { private HttpWebRequest _request; private Uri _uri; private AsyncOperation _asyncOp; public MyWebClient(Uri uri) { _uri = uri; } public void Start(XElement data) { _asyncOp = AsyncOperationManager.CreateOperation(null); _data = data; _request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(_uri); _request.Method = "POST"; _request.BeginGetRequestStream(new AsyncCallback(BeginRequest), null); } private void BeginRequest(IAsyncResult result) { Stream stream = _request.EndGetRequestStream(result); using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(stream)) { writer.Write(((XElement)_data).ToString()); } stream.Close(); _request.BeginGetResponse(new AsyncCallback(BeginResponse), null); } private void BeginResponse(IAsyncResult result) { HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)_request.EndGetResponse(result); if (response != null) { //process returned data ... } } ... } In short, the above code sends some XML data to web server (to ASP.NET MVC controller) and gets back a processed data. It works when I use Internet Explorer 8. Can someone please explain what is the problem with Google Chrome?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >