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  • How is external memory, internal memory, and cache organized?

    - by goldenmean
    Consider a system as follows:= A hardware board having say ARM Cortex-A8 and Neon Vector coprocessor, and Embedded Linux OS running on Cortex-A8. On this environment, if there is some application - say, a video decoder is executing - then: How is it decided that which buffers would be in external memory, which ones would be allocated in internal SRAM, etc. When one says calloc/malloc on such system/code, the pointer returned is from which memory: internal or external? Can a user make buffers to be allocated to the memories of his choice (internal/external)? In ARM architectures, there is another memory called as Tightly coupled memory (TCM). What is that and how can user enable and use it? Can I declare buffers in this memory? Do I need to see the memory map (if any) of the hardware board to understand about all these different physical memories present in a typical hardware board? How much of a role does the OS play in distinguishing these different memories? Sorry for multiple questions, but i think they all are interlinked.

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  • Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

    - by Christian Fazzini
    I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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  • Updating an application OTA

    - by Bostjan
    I'm developing an application that will be available from a website (market probably as well). The problem I'm having at the moment is how to handle the updates to the app. I know how to check the version against the current one and I know if I need to update it. Question is...how? Is there a way I can download an APK from the website and start the install process? The user will have to confirm of course, but I just want to be able to start it for him. At the moment I'm doing this: private void doUpgrade() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setTitle(getString(R.string.upgrade)); builder.setIcon(R.drawable.help); builder.setMessage(getString(R.string.needUpgrade)); builder.setPositiveButton(getString(R.string.ok), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); try { HttpResponse re = Registration.doPost("http://www.android-town.com/appRelease/AndroidTown.apk",data); int statusCode = re.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); closeApp(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } } }); builder.setNegativeButton(getString(R.string.cancel), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub dialog.cancel(); closeApp(); } }); builder.show(); } But it doesn't really do anything...should I open a webView with the URL? A new runnable thread? Any other way? Please help :) Cheers

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • Hibernate collection multiple types

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have a class Player that contains a list of Accessory objects. There are two kinds of Accessories. SocketedAccessories have a list of SocketJewels, and MagicAccessories have a list of MagicEnchantments. At the database level, there is a players table that represents the player, and an accessories table that contains a list of accessories. Accessories have a type field that indicates whether they are socketed or magical, and the columns that are only used by one type are just left blank by entries of the other type. There are socket_jewels and magic_enchantments tables, representing the socket jewels or the magic enchantments on each accessory. I am trying to figure out the correct way to map this with Hibernate. One way would be for the player to have two lists of accessories, one for SocketedAccessories and one for MagicAccessories. That seems undesirable, though. What I want is a way to specify that player should have a field List<Accessory> accessories that contains both types of thing. Is there a way to tell Hibernate, in either hbm.xml or annotations, to do this?

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  • How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

    - by RWC
    In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • Java HashMap containsKey always false

    - by Dennis
    I have the funny situation, that I store a Coordinate into a HashMap<Coordinate, GUIGameField>. Now, the strange thing about it is, that I have a fragment of code, which should guard, that no coordinate should be used twice. But if I debug this code: if (mapForLevel.containsKey(coord)) { throw new IllegalStateException("This coordinate is already used!"); } else { ...do stuff... } ... the containsKey always returns false, although I stored a coordinate with a hashcode of 9731 into the map and the current coord also has the hashcode 9731. After that, the mapForLevel.entrySet() looks like: (java.util.HashMap$EntrySet) [(270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@29e357, (270,90)=gui.GUIGameField@ca470] What could I have possibly done wrong? I ran out of ideas. Thanks for any help! public class Coordinate { int xCoord; int yCoord; public Coordinate(int x, int y) { ...store params in attributes... } ...getters & setters... @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = 1; hash = hash * 41 + this.xCoord; hash = hash * 31 + this.yCoord; return hash; } }

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  • Adding a button bar at the bottom of ListView upon checkbox select (as in gmail app)??

    - by elto
    I have a ListView with custom adapter. In each row there is a checkbox and couple of textviews. I want user to give option to delete the check marked items, so as soon as soon clicks on one of the checkbox, I want a button bar to slide in from the bottom and stay at the bottom regardless of listview scroll. This is something like the email app behavior of Motorola Cliq and to some extent gmail app itself. I have tried adding a relativelayout (containing buttons) below the listview, which has visibility set to gone initially, but as soon as user checks a button, the visibility changes to "visible". I have added a slide-in animation to it too. It is working but problem is that it is overlapping the last element of the listview which user can not checkmark if the button bar has already become visible. So I tried to set the bottom margin of the listview equal to the height of the button bar when I'm changing the button bar visibility, which solves the problem of overlap, but now the checkbox behavior has gone weird. Clicking on one checkmark tries to checkmark another checkmark in the list for some weird reason. I noticed that this happens because as soon as I change the listview margin, list redraws itself, and during this new call to getView() method of adapter, things mess up. I wanted to ask if anyone has done something like this. What is the best method to add such button bar below list while keeping the slide-in animation intact. Also, What is the footer-view of listview and can that solve my problem?

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  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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  • Is there an application that can help someone create an XML document based on the Relax NG schema?

    - by meowsqueak
    I've spent a bit of time creating a Relax NG schema for use within our team to validate XML documents we use for exchanging information. The schema is not complicated, but it is reasonably large. I am wondering if there exists a tool that can read in such a Relax NG schema and assist a user in creating a corresponding instance document, using the schema as a template. Perhaps an application with a GUI that creates fields and drop-down selections for each part of the document? For example, the tool might create an outline XML document and prompt the user to select multiples of certain elements, fill in each field, perhaps with permitted values read directly from the schema. It might also show the user via visual feedback when their document is 'complete', or highlight validation problems as they come up. I could anticipate writing a custom GUI tool to create such an XML document, but I'd really like changes to the schema to be automatically reflected by the GUI - and I really wonder if this hasn't already been done. I know some editors can automatically validate an XML document against a schema as it's being written, but I would really like to get my users one step away from the XML so they don't have to worry about the details of the XML syntax.

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  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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  • Why doesn't Javascript recognize the HTML class attribute?

    - by Cornflake
    Can anyone help me with a Javascript question, please? Why does the following code display only message boxes with the word "null" in them? And I think there are not enough of them either. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function showElementClasses(node) { var els = node.getElementsByTagName("*"); for(var i=0,j=els.length; i<j; i++) alert(els[i].getAttribute("class")); alert("Class: " + els[i].className); } showElementClasses(document); </script> </head> <body class="bla"> <div class="myclass" style="width: 500; height: 400" id="map"></div> </body> </html>

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  • How to define a batching routing service in WCF

    - by mattx
    I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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  • Hibernate Envers : How to delete entries from my audit table?

    - by Laurent T
    Hi everyone, I am currently working with Hibernate Envers. My problem is the following : How to delete entries in the audit table related to the entity I want to delete? My entity has no relation with other entities. I figured out that I have to do that in onPostDelete method of my custom listener : import org.hibernate.envers.event.AuditEventListener; import org.hibernate.event.PostCollectionRecreateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostDeleteEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostInsertEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostUpdateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionRemoveEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionUpdateEvent; public class MyListener extends AuditEventListener { ... @Override public void onPostDelete(PostDeleteEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onPostDelete(arg0); } ... } I've read the documentation, forums, many things but I can't figure it out. May be it's not possible, I don't know. Has someone ever done this before? Thank you :)

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  • How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

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  • Type errors when using same name

    - by lykimq
    I have 3 files: 1) cpf0.ml type string = char list type url = string type var = string type name = string type symbol = | Symbol_name of name 2) problem.ml: type symbol = | Ident of string 3) test.ml open Problem;; open Cpf0;; let symbol b = function | Symbol_name n -> Ident n When I combine test.ml: ocamlc -c test.ml. I received an error: This expression has type Cpf0.name = char list but an expression was expected of type string Could you please help me to correct it? Thank you very much EDIT: Thank you for your answer. I want to explain more about these 3 files: Because I am working with extraction in Coq to Ocaml type: cpf0.ml is generated from cpf.v : Require Import String. Definition string := string. Definition name := string. Inductive symbol := | Symbol_name : name -> symbol. The code extraction.v: Set Extraction Optimize. Extraction Language Ocaml. Require ExtrOcamlBasic ExtrOcamlString. Extraction Blacklist cpf list. where ExtrOcamlString I opened: open Cpf0;; in problem.ml, and I got a new problem because in problem.ml they have another definition for type string This expression has type Cpf0.string = char list but an expression was expected of type Util.StrSet.elt = string Here is a definition in util.ml defined type string: module Str = struct type t = string end;; module StrOrd = Ord.Make (Str);; module StrSet = Set.Make (StrOrd);; module StrMap = Map.Make (StrOrd);; let set_add_chk x s = if StrSet.mem x s then failwith (x ^ " already declared") else StrSet.add x s;; I was trying to change t = string to t = char list, but if I do that I have to change a lot of function it depend on (for example: set_add_chk above). Could you please give me a good idea? how I would do in this case.

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  • SqlCeResultSet Problem

    - by Vlad
    Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

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  • Hibernate collection mapping challenge

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two character of its code : class Item{ string code; string name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <!--====================================== --> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"></many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> <!--====================================== --> </class> </hibernate-mapping> How to definition the mapping relationship? Thanks!

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  • Scala: Correcting type inference of representation type over if statement

    - by drhagen
    This is a follow-up to two questions on representation types, which are type parameters of a trait designed to represent the type underlying a bounded type member (or something like that). I've had success creating instances of classes, e.g ConcreteGarage, that have instances cars of bounded type members CarType. trait Garage { type CarType <: Car[CarType] def cars: Seq[CarType] def copy(cars: Seq[CarType]): Garage def refuel(car: CarType, fuel: CarType#FuelType): Garage = copy( cars.map { case `car` => car.refuel(fuel) case other => other }) } class ConcreteGarage[C <: Car[C]](val cars: Seq[C]) extends Garage { type CarType = C def copy(cars: Seq[C]) = new ConcreteGarage(cars) } trait Car[C <: Car[C]] { type FuelType <: Fuel def fuel: FuelType def copy(fuel: C#FuelType): C def refuel(fuel: C#FuelType): C = copy(fuel) } class Ferrari(val fuel: Benzin) extends Car[Ferrari] { type FuelType = Benzin def copy(fuel: Benzin) = new Ferrari(fuel) } class Mustang(val fuel: Benzin) extends Car[Mustang] { type FuelType = Benzin def copy(fuel: Benzin) = new Mustang(fuel) } trait Fuel case class Benzin() extends Fuel I can easily create instances of Cars like Ferraris and Mustangs and put them into a ConcreteGarage, as long as it's simple: val newFerrari = new Ferrari(Benzin()) val newMustang = new Mustang(Benzin()) val ferrariGarage = new ConcreteGarage(Seq(newFerrari)) val mustangGarage = new ConcreteGarage(Seq(newMustang)) However, if I merely return one or the other, based on a flag, and try to put the result into a garage, it fails: val likesFord = true val new_car = if (likesFord) newFerrari else newMustang val switchedGarage = new ConcreteGarage(Seq(new_car)) // Fails here The switch alone works fine, it is the call to ConcreteGarage constructor that fails with the rather mystical error: error: inferred type arguments [this.Car[_ >: this.Ferrari with this.Mustang <: this.Car[_ >: this.Ferrari with this.Mustang <: ScalaObject]{def fuel: this.Benzin; type FuelType<: this.Benzin}]{def fuel: this.Benzin; type FuelType<: this.Benzin}] do not conform to class ConcreteGarage's type parameter bounds [C <: this.Car[C]] val switchedGarage = new ConcreteGarage(Seq(new_car)) // Fails here ^ I have tried putting those magic [C <: Car[C]] representation type parameters everywhere, but without success in finding the magic spot.

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  • Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

    - by Willis Blackburn
    I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

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  • JQuery datepicker icon trigger broken after inserting data to database

    - by crisgine callano
    at first i got to load my icon for the JQuery datepicker but after i insert the value to my database the icon image is broken. im using Codeigniter framework. here's my html code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html lang="en-US"> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>CRUD</title> <?php echo link_tag(base_url() . 'css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.23.custom.css'); ?> </head> <body> <div> <?php echo form_label('BDay:', 'bday'); $data = array( 'name' => 'bday', 'id' => 'datepicker' ); echo form_input($data); ?> </div> </body> </html> and here's my jscript: <script> $(function() { $( "#datepicker" ).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showOn: "button", buttonImage: "<?php echo base_url() . '/images/icons/calendar_24.png' ?>", buttonImageOnly: true, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ $("input[name='bday']").val(dateText); } }); }); am i missing something? thanks!

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