Search Results

Search found 20755 results on 831 pages for 'custom map'.

Page 732/831 | < Previous Page | 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739  | Next Page >

  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

    Read the article

  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

    - by dvanaria
    I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

    Read the article

  • Creating Actions from UIActionSheets help

    - by user337174
    I am using two UIAction sheets within my current project. I can get one to work perfectly fine but when i insert a second action sheet it runs the same arguements as the first. How do i define the actionsheets seperatly? -(IBAction) phoneButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Phone: %@",phone],nil]; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [actionSheet release]; } -(IBAction) mapButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *mapActionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Map"],nil]; mapActionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [mapActionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [mapActionSheet release]; } -(void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if(buttonIndex == 0){ NSString *callPhone = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@",phone]; NSLog(@"Calling: %@", callPhone); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:callPhone]]; } }

    Read the article

  • Google MapView doesn't work after signed the app.

    - by user164589
    Hi guys, I am facing to android application signing problem. My application contains Google MapView. When I compile the app and run on the emulator, MapView works fine. But signed the app, MapView doesn't work. I've get Google Map API. This works on the simulator. I could sign the app once 2 months ago. Then I've upgraded the app. Now I need to sign the app again. Actually I don't know why signed app's mapView doesn't work. How to fix it ? Please advice. I used following steps when sign the app: Run Eclipse. Select the project. Right Click - Android Tools - Export Signed Application Package - Then Filled forms. (In forms, Validity years: 200, and all passwords are same.) Can you suggest me ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Project euler problem 3 in haskell

    - by shk
    I'm new in Haskell and try to solve 3 problem from http://projecteuler.net/. The prime factors of 13195 are 5, 7, 13 and 29. What is the largest prime factor of the number 600851475143 ? My solution: import Data.List getD :: Int -> Int getD x = -- find deviders let deriveList = filter (\y -> (x `mod` y) == 0) [1 .. x] filteredList = filter isSimpleNumber deriveList in maximum filteredList -- Check is nmber simple isSimpleNumber :: Int -> Bool isSimpleNumber x = let deriveList = map (\y -> (x `mod` y)) [1 .. x] filterLength = length ( filter (\z -> z == 0) deriveList) in case filterLength of 2 -> True _ -> False I try to run for example: getD 13195 > 29 But when i try: getD 600851475143 I get error Exception: Prelude.maximum: empty list Why? Thank you @Barry Brown, I think i must use: getD :: Integer -> Integer But i get error: Couldn't match expected type `Int' with actual type `Integer' Expected type: [Int] Actual type: [Integer] In the second argument of `filter', namely `deriveList' In the expression: filter isSimpleNumber deriveList Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

    Read the article

  • Running a Model::find in for loop in cakephp v1.3

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Hi all, How can I achieve the following result in cakephp: In my application a Topic is related to category, category is related to city and city is finally related to state in other words: topic belongs to category, category belongs to city , city belongs to state.. Now in the Topic controller's index action I want to find out all the topics and it's city and state. How can I do this. I can easily do this using a custom query ($this-Model-query() function ) but then I will be facing pagination difficulties. I tried doing like this function index() { $this->Topic->recursive = 0; $topics = $this->paginate(); for($i=0; $i<count($topics);$i++) { $topics[$i]['City'] = $this->Topic->Category->City->find('all', array('conditions' => array('City.id' => $topics[$i]['Category']['city_id']))); } $this->set(compact('messages')); } The method that I have adopted is not a good one (running query in a loop) Using the recursive property and setting it to highest value (2) will degrade performance and is not going to yield me state information. How shall I solve this ? Please help Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

    Read the article

  • difference between http.context.user and thread.currentprincipal and when to use them?

    - by yamspog
    I have just recently run into an issue running an asp.net web app under visual studio 2008. I get the error 'type is not resolved for member...customUserPrincipal'. Tracking down various discussion groups it seems that there is an issue with Visual Studio's web server when you assign a custom principal against the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. In my code, I now use... HttpContext.Current.User = myCustomPrincipal //Thread.CurrentPrincipal = myCustomPrincipal I'm glad that I got the error out of the way, but it begs the question "What is the difference between these two methods of setting a principal?". There are other stackoverflow questions related to the differences but they don't get into the details of the two approaches. I did find one tantalizing post that had the following grandiose comment but no explanation to back up his assertions... Use HttpConext.Current.User for all web (ASPX/ASMX) applications. Use Thread.CurrentPrincipal for all other applications like winForms, console and windows service applications. Can any of you security/dot.net gurus shed some light on this subject?

    Read the article

  • Can't seem to get .Union to work (merging 2 array's together, exclude duplicates)

    - by D. Veloper
    I want to combine two array's, excluding duplicates. I am using a custom class: public class ArcContact : IEquatable<ArcContact> { public String Text; public Boolean Equals(ArcContact other) { if (Object.ReferenceEquals(other, null)) return false; if (Object.ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; return Text.Equals(other.Text); } public override Int32 GetHashCode() { return Text == null ? 0 : Text.GetHashCode(); } } I implemented and the needed IEquatable interface as mentioned in this msdn section. I only want to check the Text property of the ArcContact class and make sure an Array of ArcContact have an unique Text. Here I pasted the code that I use, as you can see I have method with two parameters, array's to combine and below that the code I got from the previous mentioned msdn section. internal static class ArcBizz { internal static ArcContact[] MergeDuplicateContacts(ArcContact[] contacts1, ArcContact[] contacts2) { return (ArcContact[])contacts1.Union(contacts2); } internal static IEnumerable<T> Union<T>(this IEnumerable<T> a, IEnumerable<T> b); } What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to build a control programatically?

    - by W_K
    I have custom control written in Java. For the sake of simplicity lets assume that it looks like this: public class HelloworldControl extends UIComponentBase { @Override public void decode(FacesContext context) { String cid = this.getClientId(context); ... super.decode(context); } @Override public void encodeBegin(FacesContext context) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.writeText("Hello world!", this); // I want a view!! } @Override public void encodeEnd(FacesContext context) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); ... } public void restoreState(FacesContext context, Object state) { Object values[] = (Object[]) state; ... super.restoreState(context, values[0]); } public Object saveState(FacesContext context) { Object values[] = ... } } I would like to add programatically child control to it. For example I would like a child view control to render a view just under the Hellow world text. How can i do this? What is the standard procedure to build dynamically a control? To put it simply - I want programatically build a hierarchy of standard components and I want to attach it to my control.

    Read the article

  • Are application servers necessary? Advantages of using one? (And other JEE questions)

    - by Mike
    Apologies for the long question.. there seems to be other similar questions on here but none really clear up my confusion. I'd be really grateful if someone could confirm or correct my understanding: Java Enterprise Edition is a set of APIs for building enterprise applications, which take away the burden of developing parts of the system that aren't actually features of the application you are trying to build (i.e. messaging, transactions etc). To do this, you can use an application server, which implements these APIs. So you could use JBoss, Glassfish, WebSphere, WebLogic etc which would provide your application with these enterprise services. However, there are many other implementations of these individual services available such as ActiveMQ for messaging, Hibernate for persistence, OpenEJB etc. You can download these implementations as Java libraries and include them in your application, and use the services they provide in a similar way to using the services provided by an application server. So if my understanding is correct, my questions are: I've read a lot of places that application servers are necessary for JEE features like EJB, but can't you just use an implementation such as OpenEJB and not need an application server at all? Are there any features that an application server provides which you cannot get from another source? Why would/wouldn't I choose an application server over a custom stack such as Tomcat, OpenEJB, ActiveMQ, and Hibernate? Is Spring a complete alternative to JEE? Does it ever require an application server or always just a servlet container? Why would someone choose Spring over JEE? Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Android: CustomListAdapter

    - by primal
    Hi, I have implemented a custom list view which looks like the twitter timeline. adapter = new MyClickableListAdapter(this, R.layout.timeline, mObjectList); setListAdapter(adapter); The constructor for MyClickableListAdapter is as follows private class MyClickableListAdapter extends ClickableListAdapter{ public MyClickableListAdapter(Context context, int viewId, List objects) { super(context, viewId, objects); } ClickableListAdapter extends BaseAdapter and implements the necessary methods. The xml code for the list view is as follows <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> This is what it looks like. I have 3 questions 1) I tried registering a context menu for the list view by adding the line after setting the list adapter registerforContextMenu(getListView()); But on long-click the menu doesnt get displayed. I cannot understand what I am doing wrong! 2) Is it possible to display a textview above the listview? I tried it by adding the code for textview above the listview. But then, only the textview gets displayed. 3) I have seen in many twitter clients that on clicking post a window pops up from the top covering only some portion of the screen and rest of the timeline is visible. How can this be done possibly without starting a new activity? Any help would be much appreciated..

    Read the article

  • Where do I put the logic of my MFC program?

    - by Matthew
    I created an application core, in C++, that I've compiled into a static library in Visual Studio. I am now at the process of writing a GUI for it. I am using MFC to do this. I figured out how to map button presses to execute certain methods of my application core's main class (i.e. buttons to have it start and stop). The core class however, should always be sampling data from an external source every second or two. The GUI should then populate some fields after each sample is taken. I can't seem to find a spot in my MFC objects like CDialog that I can constantly check to see if my class has grabbed the data.. then if it has put that data into some of the text boxes. A friend suggested that I create a thread on the OnInit() routine that would take care of this, but that solution isn't really working for me. Is there no spot where I can put an if statement that keeps being called until the program quits? i.e. if( coreapp.dataSampleReady() ) { // put coreapp.dataItem1() in TextBox1 // set progress bar to coreapp.dataItem2() // etc. // reset dataSampleReady }

    Read the article

  • How to get acts on taggable working

    - by Schipperius
    I am new to ruby on rails (and programming) and this is probably a really stupid question. I am using Rails 3.2 and trying to use acts_as_taggable_on to generate tags on articles and to have those tags show on article index and show pages as a clickable links. I have tags clickable on both the article show and index pages, but the links just go back to the index page and don't sort according to the tag name. I have scoured the Internet and pieced together the code below from various sources, but I am clearly missing something. Any help is greatly appreciated, as I have exhausted my seemingly limited knowledge! Thanks. Here is what I have: class ArticlesController < ApplicationController def tagged @articles = Article.all(:order => 'created_at DESC') @tags = Article.tag_counts_on(:tags) @tagged_articles = Article.tagged_with(params[:tags]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @articles } end end def index @article = Article.new @articles = Article.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 3 @tags = Article.tag_counts_on(:tags) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @articles } end end module ArticlesHelper include ActsAsTaggableOn::TagsHelper end class Article < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_ordered_taggable acts_as_ordered_taggable_on :tags, :location, :about attr_accessible :tag_list scope :by_join_date, order("created_at DESC") end article/index.html.erb <% tag_cloud(@tags, %w(tag1 tag2 tag3 tag4)) do |tag| %> <%= link_to tag.name, articles_path(:id => tag.name) %> <% end %> article/show.html.erb <%= raw @article.tags.map { |tag| link_to tag.name, articles_path(:tag_id => tag) }.join(" | ") %>

    Read the article

  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

    Read the article

  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

    Read the article

  • Two pass JSP page rendering

    - by dotsid
    Suppose an example. I have following interface: public interface DataSource<T> { Future<T> fetch(); } This datasource can do asynchronous data fetching. And we have following tag for using datasource in JSP: <html> <d:fetch from="${orderDS}" var="orders"> <c:foreach in="${orders}" var="order"> <div class="order"> <c:out value="${order.title}" /> </div> </c:foreach> </d:fetch> </html> So, what I want? I want JSP rendering engine to call my custom tag (FetchTag in this example) twice. On first call FetchTag will do DataSource.fetch() call and save Future locally as a object field. On second call FetchTag do Future.get() call and will be blocked until data becomes available. Is there any way to do such a thing?

    Read the article

  • Length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars error? python

    - by Randy
    from numpy import * from pylab import * from math import * def LogisticMap(a,x): return 4.*a*x*(1.-x) def CosineMap(a,x): return a*cos(x/(2.*pi)) def TentMap(a,x): if x>= 0 or x<0.5: return 2.*a*x if x>=0.5 or x<=1.: return 2.*a*(1.-x) a = 0.98 N = 40 xaxis = arange(0.0,N,1.0) Func = CosineMap subplot(211) title(str(Func.func_name) + ' at a=%g and its second iterate' %a) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,xaxis), 'g', antialiased=True) subplot(212) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label xlabel('X(n)') # set x-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,Func(a,xaxis)), 'bo', antialiased=True) My program is supposed to take any of the three defined functions and plot it. They all take in a value x from the array xaxis from 0 to N and then return the value. I want it to plot a graph of xaxis vs f(xaxis) with f being any of the three above functions. The logisticmap function works fine, but for CosineMap i get the error "only length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars" and for TentMap i get error "The truth value of an array with more than one element is ambiguous, use a.any() or a.all()". My tent map function is suppose to return 2*a*x if 0<=x<0.5 and it's suppose to return 2*a*(1-x) if 0.5<=0<=1.

    Read the article

  • pushd - handling multiple drives from cmd

    - by user673600
    I'm trying to figure out how to install some programs where the components reside on two different drives on a networked path. However whenever I use pushd \\xyz\c$ I get a mapped drive which means I cannot use any knowledge of using for example c:\install e:\mycomponents.dll. Is there anyway that I can do this once I have used the pushd command? How can I ensure that I keep the drives the same for example. I'm in the process of installing services. So it seems that when I install the service, I need to keep the path as the same as the actual location of the .exe which means that I'm running into issues. Is there a way to simply use pushd but at the sametime not actually map drives? As when installing services, when I've been using net use, I've found that there is an issue with installing on drives which are mapped, as the service whilst can be installed doesn't find the actual .exe when it comes to starting up the service. So to expand this, is there a way to solve this using net use or pushd or a combination that lets me install a service as such: c:\windows\..\installutil e:\mynode? So to clarify, I need to somehow be able to see both drives on the remote machine by their relative drives i.e. E:\ and C:\ - if I use a mapped drive letter then it means installing service is a pain because I cannot use the path.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739  | Next Page >