Search Results

Search found 20755 results on 831 pages for 'custom map'.

Page 733/831 | < Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >

  • Using EhCache for session.createCriteria(...).list()

    - by James Smith
    I'm benchmarking the performance gains from using a 2nd level cache in Hibernate (enabling EhCache), but it doesn't seem to improve performance. In fact, the time to perform the query slightly increases. The query is: session.createCriteria(MyEntity.class).list(); The entity is: @Entity @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONSTRICT_READ_WRITE) public class MyEntity { @Id @GeneratedValue private long id; @Column(length=5000) private String data; //---SNIP getters and setters--- } My hibernate.cfg.xml is: <!-- all the normal stuff to get it to connect & map the entities plus:--> <property name="hibernate.cache.region.factory_class"> net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheRegionFactory </property> The MyEntity table contains about 2000 rows. The problem is that before adding in the cache, the query above to list all entities took an average of 65 ms. After the cache, they take an average of 74 ms. Is there something I'm missing? Is there something extra that needs to be done that will increase performance?

    Read the article

  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

    Read the article

  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • How to fix Java Image Fetcher error ?

    - by Frank
    My code looks like this : private static JFileChooser fc; if (fc==null) { fc=new JFileChooser(Image_Dir); fc.addChoosableFileFilter(new Image_Filter()); // Add a custom file filter and disable the default (Accept All) file filter. fc.setAcceptAllFileFilterUsed(false); fc.setAccessory(new Image_Preview(fc)); // Add the preview pane. } int returnVal=fc.showDialog(JFileChooser_For_Image.this,"Get Image"); // Show it. After I select an image from the panel, I got the following error message : Exception in thread "Image Fetcher 0" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: Native Library C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\jpeg.dll already loaded in another classloader at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Runtime.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at sun.security.action.LoadLibraryAction.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.awt.image.JPEGImageDecoder.<clinit>(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.FileImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.doFetch(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.fetchloop(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.run(Unknown Source) When I run it from an executable Jar file, it works fine, but after I wrapped it into an exe file, I got the above error, why ? How to fix it ?

    Read the article

  • form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

    - by dhaval
    I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

    Read the article

  • Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars error? python

    - by Randy
    from numpy import * from pylab import * from math import * def LogisticMap(a,x): return 4.*a*x*(1.-x) def CosineMap(a,x): return a*cos(x/(2.*pi)) def TentMap(a,x): if x>= 0 or x<0.5: return 2.*a*x if x>=0.5 or x<=1.: return 2.*a*(1.-x) a = 0.98 N = 40 xaxis = arange(0.0,N,1.0) Func = CosineMap subplot(211) title(str(Func.func_name) + ' at a=%g and its second iterate' %a) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,xaxis), 'g', antialiased=True) subplot(212) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label xlabel('X(n)') # set x-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,Func(a,xaxis)), 'bo', antialiased=True) My program is supposed to take any of the three defined functions and plot it. They all take in a value x from the array xaxis from 0 to N and then return the value. I want it to plot a graph of xaxis vs f(xaxis) with f being any of the three above functions. The logisticmap function works fine, but for CosineMap i get the error "only length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars" and for TentMap i get error "The truth value of an array with more than one element is ambiguous, use a.any() or a.all()". My tent map function is suppose to return 2*a*x if 0<=x<0.5 and it's suppose to return 2*a*(1-x) if 0.5<=0<=1.

    Read the article

  • Options for displaying OG groups a node is published for on node page?

    - by Erik Töyrä
    What I want I have several OG groups in which content can be published. I would like to display which OG groups a node has been published for when viewing the node page. Like in "This page is published for: Department A, Department B." The code snipped below shows the data I have in the $node object in node.tpl.php. This data is generated by the OG module. Extracted data from $node ... [og_groups] => Array ( [993] => 993 [2078] => 2078 ) [og_groups_both] => Array ( [993] => Department A [2078] => Department B ) ... I know I could loop through the og_groups_both array in node.tpl.php and generate the output from there, but it feels like a quite dirty solution. The ideal solution would be to have a $og_groups variable in node.tpl.php, similiar to how $submitted is used in node.tpl.php (see below). Example of how $submitted is used <?php if ($submitted): ?> <div class="submitted"><?php print $submitted; ?></div> <?php endif; ?> Should I use hook_load() in a custom module to insert the new variable $og_groups in $node? What options do I have and which solution would you recommend?

    Read the article

  • Can't seem to get .Union to work (merging 2 array's together, exclude duplicates)

    - by D. Veloper
    I want to combine two array's, excluding duplicates. I am using a custom class: public class ArcContact : IEquatable<ArcContact> { public String Text; public Boolean Equals(ArcContact other) { if (Object.ReferenceEquals(other, null)) return false; if (Object.ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; return Text.Equals(other.Text); } public override Int32 GetHashCode() { return Text == null ? 0 : Text.GetHashCode(); } } I implemented and the needed IEquatable interface as mentioned in this msdn section. I only want to check the Text property of the ArcContact class and make sure an Array of ArcContact have an unique Text. Here I pasted the code that I use, as you can see I have method with two parameters, array's to combine and below that the code I got from the previous mentioned msdn section. internal static class ArcBizz { internal static ArcContact[] MergeDuplicateContacts(ArcContact[] contacts1, ArcContact[] contacts2) { return (ArcContact[])contacts1.Union(contacts2); } internal static IEnumerable<T> Union<T>(this IEnumerable<T> a, IEnumerable<T> b); } What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • C++. How to define template parameter of type T for class A when class T needs a type A template parameter?

    - by jaybny
    Executor class has template of type P and it takes a P object in constructor. Algo class has a template E and also has a static variable of type E. Processor class has template T and a collection of Ts. Question how can I define Executor< Processor<Algo> > and Algo<Executor> ? Is this possible? I see no way to defining this, its kind of an "infinite recursive template argument" See code. template <class T> class Processor { map<string,T> ts; void Process(string str, int i) { ts[str].Do(i); } } template <class P> class Executor { Proc &p; Executor(P &p) : Proc(p) {} void Foo(string str, int i) { p.Process(str,i); } Execute(string str) { } } template <class E> class Algo { static E e; void Do(int i) {} void Foo() { e.Execute("xxx"); } } main () { typedef Processor<Algo> PALGO; // invalid typedef Executor<PALGO> EPALGO; typedef Algo<EPALGO> AEPALGO; Executor<PALGO> executor(PALGO()); AEPALGO::E = executor; }

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Why does the '#weight' property sometimes not have any effect in Drupal forms?

    - by Adrian
    Hello, I'm trying to create a node form for a custom type. I have organic groups and taxonomy both enabled, but want their elements to come out in a non-standard order. So I've implemented hook_form_alter and set the #weight property of the og_nodeapi subarray to -1000, but it still goes after taxonomy and menu. I even tried changing the subarray to a fieldset (to force it to actually be rendered), but no dice. I also tried setting $form['taxonomy']['#weight'] = 1000 (I have two vocabs so it's already being rendered as a fieldset) but that didn't work either. I set the weight of my module very high and confirmed in the system table that it is indeed the highest module on the site - so I'm all out of ideas. Any suggestions? Update: While I'm not exactly sure how, I did manage to get the taxonomy fieldset to sink below everything else, but now I have a related problem that's hopefully more manageable to understand. Within the taxonomy fieldset, I have two items (a tags and a multi-select), and I wanted to add some instructions in hook_form_alter as follows: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); You guessed it, this appears after the terms inserted by the taxonomy module. However, if I change this to a fieldset: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', // <-- here '#title' => 'Instructions', // <-- and here for good measure '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); then it magically floats to the top as I'd intended. I also tried textarea (this also worked) and explicitly saying markup (this did not). So basically, changing the type from "markup" (the default IIRC) to "fieldset" has the effect of no longer ignoring its weight.

    Read the article

  • C++: defining maximum/minimum limits for a class

    - by Luis
    Basically what the title says... I have created a class that models time slots in a variable-granularity daily schedule (where for example the first time slot is 30 minutes, but the second time slot can be 40 minutes); the first available slot starts at (a value comparable to) 1. What I want to do now is to define somehow the maximum and minimum allowable values that this class takes and I have two practical questions in order to do so: 1.- does it make sense to define absolute minimum and maximum in such a way for a custom class? Or better, does it suffice that a value always compares as lower-than any other possible value of the type, given the class's defined relational operators, to be defined the min? (and analogusly for the max) 2.- assuming the previous question has an answer modeled after "yes" (or "yes but ..."), how do I define such max/min? I know that there is std::numeric_limits<> but from what I read it is intended for "numeric types". Do I interpret that as meaning "represented as a number" or can I make a broader assumption like "represented with numbers" or "having a correspondence to integers"? After all, it would make sense to define the minimum and maximum for a date class, and maybe for a dictionary class, but numeric_limits may not be intended for those uses (I don't have much experience with it). Plus, numeric_limits has a lot of extra members and information that I don't know what to make with. If I don't use numeric_limits, what other well-known / widely-used mechanism does C++ offer to indicate the available range of values for a class?

    Read the article

  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

    - by jr
    I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

    Read the article

  • Nested Resource testing RSpec

    - by Joseph DelCioppio
    I have two models: class Solution < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :owner, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => :user_id end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :solutions end with the following routing: map.resources :users, :has_many => :solutions and here is the SolutionsController: class SolutionsController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_user def index @solutions = @user.solutions end private def load_user @user = User.find(params[:user_id]) unless params[:user_id].nil? end end Can anybody help me with writing a test for the index action? So far I have tried the following but it doesn't work: describe SolutionsController do before(:each) do @user = Factory.create(:user) @solutions = 7.times{Factory.build(:solution, :owner => @user)} @user.stub!(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) end it "should find all of the solutions owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:solutions) get :index, :user_id => @user.id end end And I get the following error: Spec::Mocks::MockExpectationError in 'SolutionsController GET index, when the user owns the software he is viewing should find all of the solutions owned by a user' #<User:0x000000041c53e0> expected :solutions with (any args) once, but received it 0 times Thanks in advance for all the help. Joe

    Read the article

  • Using MATLAB's plotting features as an interactive part of a Fortran program

    - by ldigas
    Although many of you will have a decent idea of what I'm aiming at, just from reading the title -- allow me a simple introduction still. I have a Fortran program - it consists of a program, some internal subroutines, 7 modules with its own procedures, and ... uhmm, that's it. Without going into much detail, for I don't think it's necessary at this point, what would be the easiest way to use MATLAB's plotting features (mainly plot(x,y) with some customizations) as an interactive part of my program ? For now I'm using some of my own custom plotting routines (based on HPGL and Calcomp's routines), but just as part of an exercise on my part, I'd like to see where this could go and how would it work (is it even possible what I'm suggesting?). Also, how much effort would it take on my part ? I know this subject has been rather extensively described in many "tutorials" on the net, but for some reason I have trouble finding the really simple yet illustrative introductory ones. So if anyone can post an example or two, simple ones, I'd be really grateful. Or just take me by the hand and guide me through one working example. platform: IVF 11.something :) on Win XP SP2, Matlab 2008b

    Read the article

  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

    Read the article

  • Zend Routes conflict

    - by meder
    I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

    Read the article

  • STL vector performance

    - by iAdam
    STL vector class stores a copy of the object using copy constructor each time I call push_back. Wouldn't it slow down the program? I can have a custom linkedlist kind of class which deals with pointers to objects. Though it would not have some benefits of STL but still should be faster. See this code below: #include <vector> #include <iostream> #include <cstring> using namespace std; class myclass { public: char* text; myclass(const char* val) { text = new char[10]; strcpy(text, val); } myclass(const myclass& v) { cout << "copy\n"; //copy data } }; int main() { vector<myclass> list; myclass m1("first"); myclass m2("second"); cout << "adding first..."; list.push_back(m1); cout << "adding second..."; list.push_back(m2); cout << "returning..."; myclass& ret1 = list.at(0); cout << ret1.text << endl; return 0; } its output comes out as: adding first...copy adding second...copy copy The output shows the copy constructor is called both times when adding and when retrieving the value even then. Does it have any effect on performance esp when we have larger objects?

    Read the article

  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - hiding id in URL?

    - by mcfroob
    I'm building a basic blog application just now, for viewing data I'm just using the default route, i.e. - routes.MapRoute ( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); So that when you go to mysite.com/View/12 it displays the blog with id 12. I want to modify the URLs so that they look as follows: mysite.com/View/2010/06/01/this-is-the-title. I could have a URL mapping like - routes.MapRoute( "View", "View/{year}/{month}/{day}/{title}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View" } ); But then I'm not passing the ID into the Controller action so I would have to search on the date and title which doesn't feel right. On the other hand, if I pass the ID in it will show up in the URL which isn't what I'm aiming for either. Is there any way to redirect to the URL I want in the controller action after passing only the ID in as a paramter, or to pass the ID into the a Map Route but hide it in the URL? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Are application servers necessary? Advantages of using one? (And other JEE questions)

    - by Mike
    Apologies for the long question.. there seems to be other similar questions on here but none really clear up my confusion. I'd be really grateful if someone could confirm or correct my understanding: Java Enterprise Edition is a set of APIs for building enterprise applications, which take away the burden of developing parts of the system that aren't actually features of the application you are trying to build (i.e. messaging, transactions etc). To do this, you can use an application server, which implements these APIs. So you could use JBoss, Glassfish, WebSphere, WebLogic etc which would provide your application with these enterprise services. However, there are many other implementations of these individual services available such as ActiveMQ for messaging, Hibernate for persistence, OpenEJB etc. You can download these implementations as Java libraries and include them in your application, and use the services they provide in a similar way to using the services provided by an application server. So if my understanding is correct, my questions are: I've read a lot of places that application servers are necessary for JEE features like EJB, but can't you just use an implementation such as OpenEJB and not need an application server at all? Are there any features that an application server provides which you cannot get from another source? Why would/wouldn't I choose an application server over a custom stack such as Tomcat, OpenEJB, ActiveMQ, and Hibernate? Is Spring a complete alternative to JEE? Does it ever require an application server or always just a servlet container? Why would someone choose Spring over JEE? Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740  | Next Page >