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  • Can't get Secondary UITableViewController to display inside a UITabBarController

    - by Paul Johnston
    I've programmatically created a UITabBarController that is loaded in my App Delegate like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; myTableViewController = [[MyTableViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tableNavController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:myTableViewController] autorelease]; myTableViewController.title = @"Tab 1"; [myTableViewController release]; mySecondTableViewController = [[MySecondTableViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *table2NavController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:mySecondTableViewController] autorelease]; mySecondTableViewController.title = @"Tab 2"; [mySecondTableViewController release]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:tableNavController, table2NavController, nil]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Now the issue I have is that I can get into the views no problem, but when I try and click onto any item in the Table View, I can't get a secondary table view to appear in any tab. The tabs work absolutely fine, just the secondary views. I'm using the code below in my myTableViewController to run when selecting a specific row (the code reaches the HELP line, and crashes)... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; // this gets the correct view controller from a list of controllers SecondaryViewController *svc = [self.controllers objectAtIndex:row]; /*** HELP NEEDED WITH THIS LINE ***/ [self.navigationController pushViewController:svc animated:YES]; } Simply put, I'm trying to switch views to the new view controller whilst keeping the tabs available and using the navigation to go back and forth (like in the iTunes App). Any help appreciated. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC : strange POST behavior

    - by user93422
    ASP.NET MVC 2 app I have two actions on my controller (Toons): [GET] List [POST] Add App is running on IIS7 integration mode, so /Toons/List works fine. But when I do POST (that redirects to /Toons/List internally) it redirects (with 302 Object Moved) back to /Toons/Add. The problem goes away if I use .aspx hack (that works in IIS6/IIS7 classic mode). But without .aspx - GET work fine, but POST redirects me onto itself but with GET. What am I missing? I'm hosting with webhost4life.com and they did change IIS7 to integrated mode already. EDIT: The code works as expected using UltiDev Cassini server. EDIT: It turned out to be trailing-slash-in-URL issue. Somehow IIS7 doesn't route request properly if there is no slash at the end. EDET: Explanation of the behavior What happens is when I request (POST) /Toons/List (without trailing slash), IIS doesn't find the handler (I do not have knowledge to understand how exactly IIS does URL-to-handler mapping) and redirects the request (using 302 code) to /Toons/List/ (notice trailing slash). A browser, according to the HTTP specification, must redirect the request using same method (POST in this case), but instead it handles 302 as if it is 303 and issues GET request for the new URL. This is incorrect, but known behavior of most browsers. The solution is either to use .aspx-hack to make it unambiguous for IIS how to map requests to ASP.NET handler, or configure IIS to handle everything in the virtual directory using ASP.NET handler. Q: what is a better way to handle this?

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  • CSS: Horizontally scrolling image inside variable width div?

    - by neezer
    I have... <div id="tabs"> <!-- ... --> <div id="interior-photo"> <img src="..."> </div> <!-- ... --> </div> ... and ... #interior-photo { overflow-x: auto; } Basically, I have a page broken down into a main section and a fixed-width right sidebar. Within the main section, I have my tabbed div. The entire page grows with the width of the window, so when the window is resized, the tabbed div grows horizontally in size too. My problem is that the image that I'm loading inside one of the tabbed divs is generally much, much wider than the window usually is (they're panorama pictures; very lengthy horizontally, but not much vertically). I know that I can force the contents of #interior-photo to scroll horizontally using the CSS rule above, but that only seems to work when that same div has a fixed width. Since I want that div to have a variable width, it always seems to display the full width of the image, pushing my layout way out of whack. I know how to fix this using Javascript, but I was wondering if anyone has a CSS-only solution. If you need more information about my layout to solve this issue, please let me know. Thanks!

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  • PHP session_write_close() causes empty response

    - by Xeoncross
    When using session_write_close() in a shutdown function at the end of my script - PHP just dies. There is no error logged, response headers (firebug), or data (even whitespace!) returned. I have full PHP error reporting on with STRICT enabled and PHP 5.2.1. My guess is that since session_write_close() is being called after shutdown - some fatal error is being encountered that crashes PHP before it has a chance to send the output or log anything. This only happens on the logout page where I first: ... //If there is no session to delete (not started) if ( ! session_id()) { return; } // Get the session name $name = session_name(); // Delete the session cookie (if exists) if ( ! empty($_COOKIE[$name])) { //Get the current cookie config $params = session_get_cookie_params(); // Delete the cookie from globals unset($_COOKIE[$name], $_SESSION); //Delete the cookie on the user_agent setcookie($name, '', time()-43200, $params['path'], $params['domain'], $params['secure']); } // Destroy the session session_destroy(); ... then 2) do some more stuff 3) issue a redirect and 4) finally, after the whole page is done the register_shutdown_function(); I placed earlier runs and calls session_write_close() which saves the session to the database. The end. Since this blank response only occurs on logout I'm guessing that I'm not restarting the session properly which is causing session_write_close() to die fatally at the end of the script.

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  • How to fix IE ClearType + jQuery opacity problem in this script?

    - by Justine
    Hello, I'm having a rather common problem (or so it seems, after some googling around...) with IE messing both bold text AND transparent pngs while animating opacity using jQuery. You can view the sample here: http://dev.gentlecode.net/dotme/index-sample.html (only occurs in IE, obviously) I've seen some blog posts saying the fix is to remove the filter attribute but I'm not sure how to apply it to the script I'm using since I got it from a tutorial and am still learning jQuery... The script goes as follows: $('ul.nav').each(function() { var $links = $(this).find('a'), panelIds = $links.map(function() { return this.hash; }).get().join(","), $panels = $(panelIds), $panelWrapper = $panels.filter(':first').parent(), delay = 500; $panels.hide(); $links.click(function() { var $link = $(this), link = (this); if ($link.is('.current')) { return; } $links.removeClass('current'); $link.addClass('current'); $panels.animate({ opacity : 0 }, delay); $panelWrapper.animate({ height: 0 }, delay, function() { var height = $panels.hide().filter(link.hash).show().css('opacity', 1).outerHeight(); $panelWrapper.animate({ height: height }, delay); }); return false; }); var showtab = window.location.hash ? '[hash=' + window.location.hash + ']' : ':first'; $links.filter(showtab).click(); }); I would appreciate if someone could go over it and show me how to fix the opacity issue. Will the filter method also fix the trouble I'm having with transparent pngs having pixelated ugly borders like the bold type as well? Thanks in advance for all help!

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  • Using a Visual Sourcesafe 2005 database with VB6 still launches VSS 6.0d

    - by John Galt
    I know all versions of VSS have many horror stories and I feel I will escape to a better source control mechanism someday but in the short term I am just trying to do a little cleanup and would like your advice on this issue: Objective - consolidate old VB6 source code in a "new" VSS 2005 database (currently all these old projects are checked in to an "old" VSS 6.0d database); eventually, eliminate the "old" VSS. Progress so far - The new VSS 2005 database now contains a mixture of projects. Some are using Visual Studio 2008, some use Vstudio 2005, and the more recently added ones are the above mentioned VB6 projects. Individually all these projects and "solutions" come up OK, I can check in - check out, launch SourceSafe, view differences, etc. But all the VB6 projects now in a VSS 2005 database launch VSS 6.0d when asked, rather than VSS 2005. Is this normal and just something to cope with until I get to some better nonVSS approach? Or can VB6 be re-configured someway to launch VSS 2005 when I click Tools-SourceSafe-Run SourceSafe? I seem to recall VSS 6.0d got "integrated" into VB6 by way of the "Add-In Manager". At this point, the development PC with VB6 installed has both VSS 2005 and VSS 6.0d clients installed.

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  • Zend Framework subdomain+subfolder router rewrite problem

    - by zf_novice
    I'm new to Zend Framwork and this is an issue I've been struggling for several hours already... I'm trying to chain Hostname and standard Route in order to get url with subdomain+subfolders ie.: http:// lang.mydomain.com/myapplication/public/controller http:// lang.mydomain.com/myapplication/public/controller/action (sorry for the empty space in the address, this site won't allow links) Basically what I have done in Bootstrap is: // add language to default route $routePath = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( ':controller/:action/*', array('controller'=>'index','action' => 'index','module'=>'default') ); $routeHostname = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname( ':lang.mydomain.com', array('lang'=>$lang) ); $frontController = $this->getResource('FrontController'); $router = $frontController->getRouter(); $router->addRoute('default', $routeHostname->chain($routePath)) $frontController->setRouter($router); it finds the route ok, but every time I generate url in view or layout by $this-url() <?php echo $this->url( array( 'controller'=> 'guestbook', 'action' => 'sign', 'lang' => Zend_Registry::get('lang'), ), 'default', true) ?>"> I get http:// lang.mydomain.com/controller instead of http:// lang.mydomain.com/myapplication/public/controller I've been trying to set baseUrl on front controller but no luck... Also I've tried the static route with myapplication/public or following standard route: 'myapplication/public/:controller/:action/*' - it result with "An error occurred Page not found Exception information: Message: No route matched the request" and empty request Is there any way to assembly subdomain with subfolder in Zend Framwork?? EDIT: I changed above to: $frontController->setBaseUrl('.'); // add language to default route $routePath = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( 'quickstart/public/:controller/:action/*', array( 'controller'=>'index', 'action' => 'index', 'module'=>'default', ) ); and it works form me, although I'm not sure whether it's been correct approach...

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  • WCF 3.5 to 3.0 backwards compatibility with callback services

    - by Miral
    I have a set of existing WCF services hosted in a .NET 3.0 app. They're using the WSHttp bindings and no security. I need to connect to these from a .NET 3.5 client. This seems to be working fine for the one-way services, but I also have some callback services (with CallbackContract and SessionMode = Required, using WSDualHttpBinding); these fail to connect with a timeout somewhere in the ReliableSession code. The service side cannot be changed (it's a historic version issue). Can I modify something on the client side to get this working? (I can connect with a .NET 3.0 client just fine, but I'd rather not be forced to try that path.) The open operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:00:09.9410000. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.ThrowTimeoutException() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.Request(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableSession.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout)

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  • Looking for input on GWT / MVP action w/o browser history change

    - by user198313
    Hello there, I am trying to develop a GWT app with the MVP pattern. So far so good except for one specific case of actions: actions that do not change the url (no browser history change). In the GWT MVP pattern, events are sent from presenters, the an app controller catches them and update the browser history. If the history has changed then the view updates. ** MVP with history change (Works well)** Current URL is /list User clicks on contactdelete button. Fire DeleteContactAction event. App controller catches, change history to 'delete' onValueChange is called if (token.equals("delete")) delete contact screen, then delete contact Fire ContactDeletedEvent app controller catches and change the history to list onValueChange is called: contact list refreshes GWT MVP pattern for dialog box w/o history changes ** Issue ** - I use a dialog box and I don't want to change the browser history, so here is the problem: Current URL is /list User clicks on contactdelete button. Contact is deleted Fire ContactDeletedEvent. App controller catches, change history to 'list' **onValueChange is NOT called** because url is already /list and there is no change # problem: contact list does not refresh Question: does anyone know a pattern to implement this in the context of MVP? Any help / idea appreciated.

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  • Conditional alternative table row styles in HTML5

    - by Budda
    Is there any changes regarding this questions Conditional alternative table row styles since HTML5 came in? Here is a copy of original question: Is it possible to style alternate table rows without defining classes on alternate tags? With the following table, can CSS define alternate row styles WITHOUT having to give the alternate rows the class "row1/row2"? row1 can be default, so row2 is the issue. <style> .altTable td { } .altTable .row2 td { background-color: #EEE; } </style> <table class="altTable"> <thead><tr><td></td></tr></thead> <tbody> <tr><td></td></tr> <tr class="row2"><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td></tr> <tr class="row2"><td></td></tr> </tbody> </table> Thanks a lot!

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  • Help using mod_jk to forward to backend app server

    - by ravun
    I had mod-jk working a while ago but after switching servers and modifying some files, it no longer works. I am using mod_jk-1.2.28 with JBoss 4.2.3 as the backend. In the JBoss server.xml file I have the AJP 1.3 connector defined on port 8009 and I am binding jboss to the server's new IP address. The app I am trying to forward to is deployed as: [TomcatDeployer] deploy, ctxPath=/ManualAlerts, warUrl=.../tmp/deploy/tmp8097651929280250028ManualAlertsApp.ear-contents/ManualAlerts-exp.war/ On the web server, I have worker.properties with a worker set for the JBoss address and port 8009. The mod-jk.conf has JkMount /ManualAlerts/* worker1. Shouldn't this forward all requests to the web server with the URL http://address/ManualAlerts/ to the backend app named ManualAlerts? The mod-jk.log shows: [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] ajp_send_request::jk_ajp_common.c (1507): (worker1) connecting to backend failed. Tomcat is probably not started or is listening on the wrong port (errno=115) [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] ajp_service::jk_ajp_common.c (2447): (worker1) sending request to tomcat failed (recoverable), because of error during request sending (attempt=2) [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] ajp_service::jk_ajp_common.c (2466): (worker1) connecting to tomcat failed. [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1384): service failed, worker worker1 is in error state [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1464): All tomcat instances are busy or in error state [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1469): All tomcat instances failed, no more workers left Running netstat -an on the app server shows jboss listening on 8009 and the local address is the app server's address. In the mod-jk.log it shows connect to (XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX:8009) failed, and the app-server address is correct here, too. I cannot figure out what's causing the issue.

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  • Load Balance WCF and Share a Remote MSMQ for High Throughput

    - by BarDev
    After a ton of reading in books and on the web, I have noticed hints of information that WCF and MSMQ can be used in achieving high throughput. The information I have seen mentions using multiple WCF services in a farm that reads from a single MSMQ queue. The problem is that I have found paragraphs here and there that mentions that high throughput can be done, but I cannot seem to find a document of how to implement it. The following is an excerpt from a MSDN article. The following paragraph is from Best Practices for Queued Communication http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms731093.aspx To achieve higher throughput and availability, use a farm of WCF services that read from the queue. This requires that all of these services expose the same contract on the same endpoint. The farm approach works best for applications that have high production rates of messages because it enables a number of services to all read from the same queue. This is what I'm trying to solve. I have an intranet application where a client sends a request to a WCF service. But I want the ability to load balance the WCF services on multiple servers in a farm. I also want these WCF services in the farm to do transactional reads from a remote MSMQ when an item is available in the Queue. If this is possible, an issue I have is that I do not understand the activation process of WCF to retrieve messages from a remote queue. If this is possible, does anyone know of any articles or Webcasts that would explain it in detail? BarDev

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  • XML deserialization doubling up on entities

    - by Nathan Loding
    I have an XML file that I am attempting to deserialize into it's respective objects. It works great on most of these objects, except for one item that is being doubled up on. Here's the relevant portion of the XML: <Clients> <Client Name="My Company" SiteID="1" GUID="xxx-xxx-xxx-xxx"> <Reports> <Report Name="First Report" Path="/Custom/FirstReport"> <Generate>true</Generate> </Report> </Reports> </Client> </Clients> "Clients" is a List<Client> object. Each Client object has a List<Report> object within it. The issue is that when this XML is deserialized, the List<Report> object has a count of 2 -- the "First Report" Report object is in there twice. Why? Here's the C#: public class Client { [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArray("Reports"), System.Xml.Serialization.XmlArrayItem(typeof(Report))] public List<Report> Reports; } public class Report { [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttribute("Name")] public string Name; public bool Generate; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttribute("Path")] public string Path; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { List<Client> _clients = new List<Client>(); string xmlFile = "myxmlfile.xml"; System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(List<Client>), new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRootAttribute("Clients")); using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(xmlFile, FileMode.Open)) { _clients = xmlSerializer.Deserialize(stream) as List<Client>; } foreach(Client _client in _clients) { Console.WriteLine("Count: " + _client.Reports.Count); // This write "2" foreach(Report _report in _client.Reports) { Console.WriteLine("Name: " + _report.Name); // Writes "First Report" twice } } } }

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  • Eclipse RCP: Using different JUnit version (4.3.1) than shipped with eclipse galileo (4.5.0)

    - by Skrrytch
    Hallo, I have the following situation: We are developing an Eclipse RCP Application and want to switch from Eclipse 3.4 to Eclipse 3.5. Our JUnit-Tests are using JUnit 4.3.1 and we have a launch configuration to start our test suite. I think I don't need to go into more details here. The problem is: Running the tests with Eclipse 3.5 does not work: JUnit cannot find any annotations in the test classes (neither (at)Test nor (at)RunWith). I patched the junit library with some logging output to check what is going on. I found out that this problem is a classloading issue: The test class passed to JUnit 'lies in' a ClassLoader which is different from the one JUnit uses to load the annotation classes like 'RunWith'. This is not the case in Eclipse 3.4 in org.junit.internal.requests.ClassRequest: public Runner getRunner() { log("TestClass ClassLoader: "+this.fTestClass.getClassLoader()); log("RunWith.class ClassLoader: "+RunWith.class.getClassLoader()); ... // validating test class: searching for annotations and more } The first line prints another classloader than the second line. This is bad because JUnit cannot match the annotations in the test class with the Annotation-Class (here: RunWith.class): "RunWith" in CL1 is not equal to "RunWith" in CL2. I have a solution which points to the core problem: Replace JUnit 4.5 in Eclipse Galileo with JUnit 4.3.1 so that there is only one JUnit-Version: The Test-Run and the tests classes are both using JUnit 4.3.1 (I had to patch "org.eclipse.jdt.junit4.runtime" to accept an ealier junit version). I think I can also replace JUnit 4.3.1 in my test class with Version 4.5, but that is not an option yet. Guess: The classloaders are different because the classes 'come from' different JUnit-Bundles: the testclass with its annotations from version 4.3.1 and the test runs in version 4.5 What I want to know: Is there any other solution besides patching Eclipse (replace JUnit versions)? Any commandline argument or such? Any configuration to force Eclipse to Use JUnit 4.3.1? Any hints on the above described analysis are welcome!

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  • Looking for ideas for a simple pattern matching algorithm to run on a microcontroller

    - by pic_audio
    I'm working on a project to recognize simple audio patterns. I have two data sets, each made up of between 4 and 32 note/duration pairs. One set is predefined, the other is from an incoming data stream. The length of the two strongly correlated data sets is often different, but roughly the same "shape". My goal is to come up with some sort of ranking as to how well the two data sets correlate/match. I have converted the incoming frequencies to pitch and shifted the incoming data stream's pitch so that it's average pitch matches that of the predefined data set. I also stretch/compress the incoming data set's durations to match the overall duration of the predefined set. Here are two graphical examples of data that should be ranked as strongly correlated: http://s2.postimage.org/FVeG0-ee3c23ecc094a55b15e538c3a0d83dd5.gif (Sorry, as a new user I couldn't directly post images) I'm doing this on a 8-bit microcontroller so resources are minimal. Speed is less an issue, a second or two of processing isn't a deal breaker. It wouldn't surprise me if there is an obvious solution, I've just been staring at the problem too long. Any ideas? Thanks in advance...

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  • VB6 Manifest not working on Windows 7

    - by Matt
    I have created a manifest file for a VB6 application that is running on Windows 7 (not for any visual style changes, just to make sure it accesses the common registry and not a virtualised one) The exe name is Capadm40.exe, the manifest is named Capadm40.exe.manifest and contains the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="1.0.0.0" processorArchitecture="X86" name="CompanyName.Capadm40" type="win32"/> <description>Administers the System</description> <!-- Identify the application security requirements. --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> However, this doesn't seem to make any difference. ie the application is still using the virtualised registry hive. What is also strange is the after I unticked the 'Run this program as an administrator' option in the properties of the application exe, windows still shows a shield on the application icon, leading my to think this is some issue with my windows installation rather than a fault with the manifest. Any ideas?

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  • Working with partial views

    - by MrW
    Hi. I'm trying to create a page that contains a grid and searching. The issue is that I want to have a partial view for the grid and one for the searching. If doing a search, this should render the grid partial view with the new information. At the moment I need information, such as what column I'm sorting by and so on, from the grid (currently stored in viewdata), in order to do the search as I want to keep those settings. This information is only available in the grid partial though. What's the best approach of this to make it neat and nice in the code, but not a mess to work with? Where can I store information that I need in the other partial view? Partial View 1; <table> <%= Html.CreateGrid(Model, "Grid", "Grid", (int)ViewData["SortColumn"], (bool)ViewData["SortedASC"])%> </table> Partial View 2; <div class="searchControl"> <input type="text" class="SearchBox" href="<%= Url.Action("Grid", "Grid", new {page = 1, columnToSortBy=/* would like to access viewdata from partial view 1 here. */, sortASC = /* would like to access viewdata from partial view 1 here. */ } ) %>" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="SearchButton" /> </div> I know I might take the completely wrong approach on this, so feel free to point me in the right one! Thanks!

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed when compiling web si

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it I get the following compiler error: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines, I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration trust level to full for the local intranet (fix outlined here). I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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  • SubSonic missing stored procedures in StoredProcedures.cs when generated with SubCommander sonic.exe

    - by Mark
    We have been using SubSonic to generate our DAL with a lot of success on VS2005 and SubSonic Tools 2.0.3. SubSonic Tools do not work on VS2008 (as far as we can work out) so we have tried to use SubCommander\sonic.exe and are now hitting some problems. When we regenerate the project using SubCommander\sonic.exe and try to compile we get some errors reporting missing members (which should have been automatically generated based on the stored procedures we have). On closer inspection it looks like my StoredProcedures.cs file is missing some (not all) automatically generated methods for my classes. As an example, I have 2 procs: [dbo]._ClassA_Func1 [dbo]._ClassA_Func2 Only one of these is being generated in the StoredProcedures.cs file. These methods generate fine using the SubSonic Tools plugin. We have tried now with versions 2.1 and 2.2 of SubSonic with the same issue. We are still on .NET 2.0 so cannot use SubSonic 3.0. I have checked the permissions of both procs using fn_my_permissions and they seem identical. Does anyone have any ideas on what I can check? Thanks -- Mark

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  • iPad receiving memory warning with low memory use

    - by Fer
    I have an UIWebKit with a HTML, this HTML have several images and text, but just displaying it gives me the memory warning. So I did some tests: The same HTML with different images, fullsize, and after the same images but reduced 50% from it's original size, for the 50% reduced images, I went to preview and reduced all images in 50% The surprising part is the 50% test, you can see that even with 16 images, the memory peak is 4.90MB. That's really surprising. Notice that these values are not always the same, they change but there's not a huge difference between the tests. In the 50% issue, in the 8 and 16 images, although the memory is low, sometimes a memory warning appears, but the performance enhance is noticeable compared to the full size images standing still = memory after scrolling all article 1 Image = [standing still 5MB] [rotating 5.6MB] 2 Images = [standing still 6.99MB] [rotating 7.7MB] 3 Images = [standing still 9.04MB] [rotating 10.9MB] 4 Images = [standing still 10.89MB] [rotating 13.20MB] 8 Images = [standing still 23.14MB] [rotating 25.20MB] (sometimes crashes) 16 Images = [standing still 27.14MB and app crashes] 50% 1 Image = [standing still 3.2MB] [rotating 3.67MB] 2 Image = [standing still 3.2MB] [rotating 3.70MB] 3 Image = [standing still 3.3MB] [rotating 3.79MB] 4 Image = [standing still 3.3MB] [rotating 3.80MB] 8 Images = [standing still 4.29MB] [rotating 4,63MB] (sometimes crashes) 16 Images = [standing still 4.79MB] [rotating 4,90MB] (sometimes crashes) My question is: The app sometimes crashed with 16 small images. Why? The memory was much lower. What is the limit of memory use? These numbers are helpful if you also tell us the maximum. But, the maximum seemed different with the 50% size images. 13.2MB works for large images and 3.8 for small images. Anything higher sometimes crashes. That makes no sense.

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  • Java NoClassDefFoundError when calling own class from instrumented method

    - by lethal_possum
    Hello, I am working on a kit of simple Java agents to help me (and hopefully others) troubleshoot Java applications. One of the agents I would like to create instruments the JComponent.getToolTipText() method to quickly identify any GUI class by just hovering the mouse cursor over it. You can find the code of my transformer and the rest of the project here: http://sfn.cvs.sourceforge.net/viewvc/sfn/core/src/main/java/org/leplus/sfn/transformer/JComponentTransformer.java?view=markup I launch my test GUI with the agent attached as follow: $ java -javaagent:target/jars/sfn-0.1-agent.jar=JComponent -cp lib/jars/bcel-5.2.jar:target/jars/sfn-0.1-test.jar:target/jars/sfn-0.1-agent.jar org.leplus.sfn.test.Main sfn-0.1-agent.jar contains the org.leplus.sfn.transformer.JComponentTransformer class. sfn-0.1-test.jar contains the org.leplus.sfn.test.Main class. Here is what the application prints when I launch it and I put the mouse over it: Loading agent: JComponent Instrumentation ready! Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/leplus/sfn/tracer/ComponentTracer at javax.swing.JComponent.getToolTipText(JComponent.java) at javax.swing.ToolTipManager$insideTimerAction.actionPerformed(ToolTipManager.java:662) ... What is surprising to me is that if I change my transformer to call any class from the JRE, it works. But it doesn't work when I call my own class org.leplus.sfn.tracer.ComponentTracer. My first guess was a classpath issue but the ComponentTracer is both in the classpath and in the agent's jar. So I am lost. If any of you see where I am missing something. Cheers, Tom

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  • user input question

    - by jdbeverly87
    My program checks to test if a word or phrase is a palindrome (reads the same both backward and forward, ex "racecar"). The issue I'm having is after someone enters in "racecar" getting it to actually test. In the below code, I marked where if I type in "racecar" and run, Java returns the correct answer so I know I'm right there. But what am I missing as far as entering it into the console. I think my code is ok, but maybe I have something missing or in the wrong spot? Not really looking for a new answer unless I'm missing something, but if possible perhaps a pro at this moving my code to the correct area bc I'm stuck! `import java.util.*; public class Palindrome { public static void main(String[] args) { String myInput; Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println("Enter a word or phrase: "); **//this asks user for input but doesn't check for whether or not it is a palindrome** myInput = in.nextLine(); in.close(); System.out.println("You entered: " + myInput); } { String s="racecar"; **//I can type a word here and it works but I need** int i; **//I need it to work where I ask for the input** int n=s.length(); String str=""; for(i=n-1;i>=0;i--) str=str+s.charAt(i); if(str.equals(s)) System.out.println(s+ " is a palindrome"); else System.out.println(s+ " is not a palindrome"); } }` I'm new at programming so I'm hoping what I got is ok. I know the palindrome test works I'm just needing helping having it test thru where I'm entering it into the console. Thanks

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  • Not able to save extjs combo using grails controller

    - by abhi
    Hi all, I am a newbie to grails/extjs I am developing a web based config tool for my team .My issue is with comboboxes of extjs I have three remote comboxes(many to one hibernate mappng).I am using hiddenName to submit its value field(which is id primay key of database) instead of its display field which is name which i get by rendering it as json.some how I see that if I select diff index other than which is loaded from db and try updating it.it definitely sends it as params but in save method of grails its not updated. I want to understand Why? I have pasted snippetof both combobox and grails method? { xtype : 'combo', id:'cpsServerid', fieldLabel : 'CpsServer', name : 'cpsServer', //hiddenId:'cpsID', hiddenName:'cpsID', store: cpsServerStore, displayField:'NAME', valueField:'ID', editable:true, typeAhead:true, mode:'remote', triggerAction:'all', width:300, autoScroll:true, selected:name, selectOnFocus:true}, GRAILS SAVE def saveApplicationSubscription = { println "saveApplicationSubscription, params = $params" ApplicationSubscription subscription if (params.id) { subscription = ApplicationSubscription.get(params.id as int) subscription.cpsServer = CpsServer.get(params.cpsID as int) subscription.topic = params.topic subscription.description = params.description subscription.subscriberApplication = SubscriberApplication.get(params.subAppID as int) subscription.outputQueue = OutputQueue.get(params.outputID as int) bindData(subscription , params) } else { params.id = 0 subscription = new ApplicationSubscription(params) subscription.id = params.id as int subscription.cpsServer = CpsServer.get(params.cpsID as int ) subscription.topic = params.topic subscription.description = params.description subscription.subscriberApplication = SubscriberApplication.get(params.subAppID as int) subscription.outputQueue = OutputQueue.get(params.outputID as int) // subscription.messageFormat = params.messageFormat } if (subscription.save()) { log.info("Saved ApplicationSubscription $subscription") render([success: true] as JSON) } else { log.info("Failed to save ApplicationSubscription $subscription, errors = ${subscription.errors}") render([success: false, errors: subscription.errors] as JSON) } } I would really apperciate any help

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  • Core Data Migration - "Can't add source store" error

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, In my iPhone app I'm using Core Data and I've made changes to my data model that cannot be automatically migrated over (i.e. added new relationships). I added the data model version (Design - Data Model - Add Model Version) and applied my new data model changes to the new version 2. I then created a mapping object model and set the Source and Destination models to their correct data models (old and new respectively). When I run the app and call the persistentStoreCoordinator, my app barfs with the following: 2010-02-27 02:40:30.922 XXXX[73578:20b] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134110 UserInfo=0xfc2240 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134110.)", { NSUnderlyingError = Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134130 UserInfo=0xfbb3a0 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134130.)"; reason = "Can't add source store"; } FWIW (not much i think) I've also made the usual code changes in persistentStoreCoordinator to use the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption and NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption (for future data model changes that can be automatically migrated). More relevantly, my managedObjectModel is created by calling initWithContentsOfURL where the file/resource type is "momd". I've tried updating both the source and destination model in the mapping model (Design - Mapping Model - Update XXX Model) as well as deleted the mapping model and recreated it. I've cleaned and re-built but all to no avail. I still get the above error message. Any pointers/thoughts on how I can further debug or resolve this problem please? I haven't posted any code snippets because this feels much more like a build environment issue (and my code is very standard - just the usual core data code to handle migrations using a mapping model but I'm happy to show the code if it helps). Appreciate any help. Thanks

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  • Modify Wordpress SQL Query to pull from within a category

    - by Levi
    Hi I am using a wordpress plugin called "kf most read" which stores a count of how many times a post was read, and lets you output a list of most read posts. This works well. The issue is, I am trying to pull the most read posts, but only the most read posts within the current category you are viewing. I am close to clueless when it comes to sql. Here us what the plugin is currently using to pull the most read posts: $sql = "SELECT count(mr.post_ID) as totHits, p.ID, p.post_title from $wpdb-posts p JOIN {$wpdb-prefix}kf_most_read mr on mr.post_ID = p.ID where mr.hit_ts = '".(time() - ( 86400 * $period))."' GROUP BY mr.post_ID order by totHits desc, ID ASC LIMIT $limit"; How could I incorporate the below query which pulls from a specific category into the above? $sql .= "LEFT JOIN $wpdb-term_taxonomy ON($wpdb-term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id = $wpdb-term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id)" ; $sql .= "WHERE $wpdb-term_taxonomy.term_id IN ($currentcat)" ; $sql .= "AND $wpdb-term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category'" ; Any Help on this would be much appreciated.

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