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  • Django: Odd mark_safe behaviour?

    - by Mark
    I wrote this little function for writing out HTML tags: def html_tag(tag, content=None, close=True, attrs={}): lst = ['<',tag] for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): lst.append(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if content is None: lst.append(' />') else: lst.extend(['>', content, '</', tag, '>']) else: lst.append('>') return mark_safe(''.join(lst)) Which worked great, but then I read this article on efficient string concatenation (I know it doesn't really matter for this, but I wanted consistency) and decided to update my script: def html_tag(tag, body=None, close=True, attrs={}): s = StringIO() s.write('<%s'%tag) for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): s.write(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if body is None: s.write(' />') else: s.write('>%s</%s>' % (body, tag)) else: s.write('>') return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) But now my HTML get escaped when I try to render it from my template. Everything else is exactly the same. It works properly if I replace the last line with return mark_safe(unicode(s.getvalue())). I checked the return type of s.getvalue(). It should be a str, just like the first function, so why is this failing?? Also fails with SafeString(s.getvalue()) but succeeds with SafeUnicode(s.getvalue()). I'd also like to point out that I used return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) in a different function with no odd behavior. The "call stack" looks like this: class Input(Widget): def render(self): return html_tag('input', attrs={'type':self.itype, 'id':self.id, 'name':self.name, 'value':self.value, 'class':self.itype}) class Field: def __unicode__(self): return mark_safe(self.widget.render()) And then {{myfield}} is in the template. So it does get mark_safed'd twice, which I thought might have been the problem, but I tried removing that too..... I really have no idea what's causing this, but it's not too hard to work around, so I guess I won't fret about it.

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  • Javascript add a PHP file.

    - by Jordan Pagaduan
    var editing = false; if (document.getElementById && document.createElement) { var butt = document.createElement('BUTTON'); var buttext = document.createTextNode('Ready!'); butt.appendChild(buttext); butt.onclick = saveEdit; } function catchIt(e) { if (editing) return; if (!document.getElementById || !document.createElement) return; if (!e) var obj = window.event.srcElement; else var obj = e.target; while (obj.nodeType != 1) { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.tagName == 'TEXTAREA' || obj.tagName == 'A') return; while (obj.nodeName != 'P' && obj.nodeName != 'HTML') { obj = obj.parentNode; } if (obj.nodeName == 'HTML') return; var x = obj.innerHTML; var y = document.createElement('TEXTAREA'); var z = obj.parentNode; z.insertBefore(y,obj); z.insertBefore(butt,obj); z.removeChild(obj); y.value = x; y.focus(); editing = true; } function saveEdit() { var area = document.getElementsByTagName('TEXTAREA')[0]; var y = document.createElement('P'); var z = area.parentNode; y.innerHTML = area.value; z.insertBefore(y,area); z.removeChild(area); z.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('button')[0]); editing = false; } document.onclick = catchIt; This code is a quick edit and I want to add a PHP script that will UPDATE my database base on the changes on the text.

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  • Input boxes with transparent background are not clickable in IE8

    - by Viliam
    I have an absolutely positioned input box in a form. The input box has transparent background: .form-page input[type="text"] { border: none; background-color: transparent; /* Other stuff: font-weight, font-size */ } Surprisingly, I cannot select this input box by clicking on it in IE8. It works perfectly in Firefox however. The same happens for background: none. When I change the background color: background-color: red; It works fine, so this is issue associated with transparent background. Setting a border makes the input box selectable by clicking on its border only. Is there a workaround to have clickable input box with transparent background working in IE8? Update: Example. Uncomment background-color and the inputbox is selectable. You can also click on the select box, and focus the input box by pressing Shift+Tab. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head></head><body> <style type="text/css"> input[type="text"] { border: none; background: transparent; /*background-color: blue;*/ } #elem528 { position:absolute; left:155px; top:164px; width:60px; height:20px; } #elem529 { position:absolute; left:218px; top:164px; width:40px; height:20px; } </style> <img src="xxx.png" alt="" width="1000" height="1000"> <input id="elem528" maxlength="7" type="text"> <select id="elem529"></select> </body></html>

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  • ASP.NET required field validator firing on focus in Firefox

    - by ren33
    I have 2 asp.net textboxes in an update panel. Both textbox controls have some javascript attached to autotab to the next field and to allow only numeric input. When I enter some data into the first field and press enter, focus shifts to the next field and the requiredfieldvalidator of the second field displays its "* required" error message, even though I've just entered the field. This is only happening in Firefox. How can I prevent the validator from firing when I first enter the textbox? edit Here's the code: <asp:TextBox ID="add_ISBN" runat="server" Columns="14" MaxLength="17" CssClass="focus" /> <asp:TextBox ID="add_Qty" runat="server" Columns="4" MaxLength="4" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvQty" ControlToValidate="add_Qty" ErrorMessage="* required" ForeColor="Red" Display="Dynamic" EnableClientScript="true" ValidationGroup="Add" runat="server" /> In the codebehind: add_ISBN.Attributes.Add("onkeydown", "return isbnCheck(event, '" & add_Qty.ClientID & "')") And the javascript: function isbnCheck(e, id) { e = e || window.event; var key = e.which || e.keyCode if (validIsbnChars.indexOf(parseInt(key, 10)) >= 0) { return true; } else { if (key == 13) { var nextfield = document.getElementById(id); if (nextfield) nextfield.focus(); return false; } if (e.preventDefault) e.preventDefault(); e.returnValue = false; return false; } } The javascript allows only a valid subset of characters, and if the user presses enter, sets focus to the next field.

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  • Delphi dbExpress and Interbase: Unicode migration steps and risks?

    - by mjustin
    Currently, our database uses Win1252 as the only character encoding. We will have to support Unicode in the database tables soon, which means we have to perform this migration for four databases and around 80 Delphi applications which run in-house in a 24/7 environment. Are there recommendations for database migrations to UTF-8 (or UNICODE_FSS) for Delphi applications? Some questions listed below. Many thanks in advance for your answers! are there tools which help with the migration of the existing databases (sizes between 250 MB and 2 GB, no Blob fields), by dumping the data, recreating the database with UNICODE_FSS or UTF-8, and loading the data back? are there known problems with Delphi 2009, dbExpress and Interbase 7.5 related to Unicode character sets? would you recommend to upgrade the databases to Interbase 2009 first? (This upgrade is planned but does not have a high priority) can we simply migrate the database and Delphi will handle the Unicode character sets automatically, or will we have to change all character field types in every Datamodule (dfm and source code) too? which strategy would you recommend to work on the migration in parallel with the normal development and maintenance of the existing application? The application runs in-house so development and database administration is done internally. Update: one problem I found now is that there are two different persistent field types for Unicode and non Unicode character fields. For the existing database, dbExpress creates TStringField objects. For the Unicode database fields, dbExpress creates (or expects!) TWideStringField objects. So we can not just change the database and the connection code page to Unicode. We also have to modify all datamodules to use the new field type. The modified datamodule however will not be backwards compatible.

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  • WPF Combobox Updates list but not the selected item

    - by JoshReedSchramm
    I have a combo box on a WPF form. On this form the user selects a record from the combo box which populates the rest of the fields on the form so the user can update that record. When they click save I am re-retrieving the combo box source which updates the combo box list. The problem is the selected item keeps the original label even though the data behind it is different. When you expand the combo box the selected item shows the right label. I am using a command binding mechanism. Here is some of the relevant code. private void SaveSalesRep() { BindFromView(); if (_salesRep.Id == 0) SalesRepRepository.AddAndSave(_salesRep); else SalesRepRepository.DataContext.SaveChanges(); int originalId = _salesRep.Id; InitSalesRepDropDown(); SalesRepSelItem = ((List<SalesRep>) SalesRepItems.SourceCollection).Find(x => x.Id == originalId); } private void InitSalesRepDropDown() { var salesRepRepository = IoC.GetRepository<ISalesRepRepository>(); IEnumerable<SalesRep> salesReps = salesRepRepository.GetAll(); _salesRepItems = new CollectionView(salesReps); NotifyPropertyChanged("SalesRepItems"); SalesRepSelItem = SalesRepItems.GetItemAt(0) as SalesRep; } The Selected Item property on the combo box is bound to SalesRepSelItem Property and the ItemsSource is bound to SalesRepItems which is backed by _salesRepItems. THe SalesRepSelItem property called NotifyPropertyChanges("SalesRepSelItem") which raises a PropertyChanged event. All told the binding of new items seems to work and the list updates, but the label on the selected item doesnt. Any ideas? Thanks all.

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  • Efficiently Determine if EF 4 POCO Already in ObjectSet

    - by Eric J.
    I'm trying EF 4 with POCO's on a small project for the first time. In my Repository implementation, I want to provide a method AddOrUpdate that will add a passed-in POCO to the repository if it's new, else do nothing (as the updated POCO will be saved when SaveChanges is called). My first thought was to do this: public void AddOrUpdate(Poco p) { if (!Ctx.Pocos.Contains<Poco>(p)) { Ctx.Pocos.AddObject(p); } } However that results in a NotSupportedException as documented under Referencing Non-Scalar Variables Not Supported (bonus question: why would that not be supported?) Just removing the Contains part and always calling AddObject results in an InvalidStateException: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The existing object is in the Unchanged state. An object can only be added to the ObjectStateManager again if it is in the added state. So clearly EF 4 knows somewhere that this is a duplicate based on the key. What's a clean, efficient way for the Repository to update Pocos for either a new or pre-existing object when AddOrUpdate is called so that the subsequent call to SaveChanges() will do the right thing? I did consider carrying an isNew flag on the object itself, but I'm trying to take persistence ignorance as far as practical.

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  • Altering URLs and mapping - path_prefix? - Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL which blows up my view because nothing is being set for the @user variable. How do I tell Rails to create the link reading www.myapp.com/brandon/posts/id vs www.myapp.com/posts/id and then map that action? I am assuming this will involve some code in the view, and then adding another line in the routes.rb file, map.subdomain_link '/:username/posts/:id', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'show' and adding the @user variable to the PostController#show action, but not totally sure if this is even the right approach. UPDATE: I have been reading about :path_prefix and seems like it might be what I am looking for. I have tried to implement simply by adding map.resources :posts, :path_prefix => '/:user_username/:post_id' to the routes.rb file but not working (even after server restart). I am sure this is not correct but wanted to let you know what I have tried.

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  • How do I manage application configuration in ASP.NET?

    - by GlennS
    I am having difficulty with managing configuration of an ASP.Net application to deploy for different clients. The sheer volume of different settings which need twiddling takes up large amounts of time, and the current configuration methods are too complicated to enable us to push this responsibility out to support partners. Any suggestions for better methods to handle this or good sources of information to research? How we do things at present: Various xml configuration files which are referenced in Web.Config, for example an AppSettings.xml. Configurations for specific sites are kept in duplicate configuration files. Text files containing lists of data specific to the site In some cases, manual one-off changes to the database C# configuration for Windsor IOC. The specific issues we are having: Different sites with different features enabled, different external services we have to talk to and different business rules. Different deployment types (live, test, training) Configuration keys change across versions (get added, remove), meaning we have to update all the duplicate files We still need to be able to alter keys while the application is running Our current thoughts on how we might approach this are: Move the configuration into dynamically compiled code (possibly Boo, Binsor or JavaScript) Have some form of diffing/merging configuration: combine a default config with a live/test/training config and a site-specific config

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  • How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

    - by jpierson
    To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

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  • Retrieve blob field from mySQL database with MATLAB

    - by yuk
    I'm accessing public mySQL database using JDBC and mySQL java connector. exonCount is int(10), exonStarts and exonEnds are longblob fields. javaaddpath('mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar') host = 'genome-mysql.cse.ucsc.edu'; user = 'genome'; password = ''; dbName = 'hg18'; jdbcString = sprintf('jdbc:mysql://%s/%s', host, dbName); jdbcDriver = 'com.mysql.jdbc.Driver'; dbConn = database(dbName, user , password, jdbcDriver, jdbcString); gene.Symb = 'CDKN2B'; % Check to make sure that we successfully connected if isconnection(dbConn) qry = sprintf('SELECT exonCount, exonStarts, exonEnds FROM refFlat WHERE geneName=''%s''',gene.Symb); result = get(fetch(exec(dbConn, qry)), 'Data'); fprintf('Connection failed: %s\n', dbConn.Message); end Here is the result: result = [2] [18x1 int8] [18x1 int8] [2] [18x1 int8] [18x1 int8] result{1,2}' ans = 50 49 57 57 50 57 48 49 44 50 49 57 57 56 54 55 51 44 This is wrong. The length of 2nd and 3rd columnsshould match the number in the 1st column. The 1st blob, for example, should be [21992901; 21998673]. How I can convert it? Update: Just after submitting this question I thought it might be hex representation of a string. And it was confirmed: >> char(result{1,2}') ans = 21992901,21998673, So now I need to convert all blobs hex data into numeric vectors. Still thinking to do it in a vectorized way, since number of rows can be large.

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  • Has the recent version of subversion dealt with "Access Denied" errors from windows services that mo

    - by Eric LaForce
    Does anyone know if this subversion "bug" has been dealt with? https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/subversion/tags/1.6.9/www/faq.html#windows-access-denied I'm getting occasional "Access Denied" errors on Windows. They seem to happen at random. Why? These appear to be due to the various Windows services that monitor the filesystem for changes (anti-virus software, indexing services, the COM+ Event Notification Service). This is not really a bug in Subversion, which makes it difficult for us to fix. A summary of the current state of the investigation is available here. A workaround that should reduce the incidence rate for most people was implemented in revision 7598; if you have an earlier version, please update to the latest release. Currently I am experiencing this same behavior in version 1.5.6 when I try and do a SVN switch (I have suspected McAfee as the culprit for a while and when I saw this I feel it validates my suspicions). I read through the link given but it seems pretty old, so I didn't know if this FAQ was just outdated and the issue has actually be resolved. Thanks for any help. Configuration: SVN 1.5.6 TortoiseSVN 1.5.9 Build 15518 Windows XP SP3 32-bit

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  • ifstream Open function not working

    - by Dave Swersky
    I've been all over the ifstream questions here on SO and I'm still having trouble reading a simple text file. I'm working with Visual Studio 2008. Here's my code: // CPPFileIO.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include <fstream> #include <conio.h> #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ifstream infile; infile.open("input.txt", ifstream::in); if (infile.is_open()) { while (infile.good()) cout << (char) infile.get(); } else { cout << "Unable to open file."; } infile.close(); _getch(); return 0; } I have confirmed that the input.txt file is in the correct "working directory" by checking the value of argv[0]. The Open method just won't work. I'm also having trouble debugging- should I not be able to set a watch on "infile.good()" or "infile.is_open()"? I keep getting "Error: member function not present." EDIT: Updated code listing with full code from .CPP file. UPDATE: The file was NOT in the Current Working Directory. This is the directory where the project file is located. Moved it there and it works when debugging in VS.NET.

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  • Eclipse / Aptana File Sync Solutions

    - by Brad
    Our development team uses Eclipse + Aptana to do their web development work. Currently, most of them are mapping their Eclipse projects directly to the web server. I'd rather them create a local project and use that to sync to the web server project directory they are working on. The issue is that there aren't any good solutions which is just appalling given the popularity of the two. The FileSync plugin for Eclipse is only one-way. Meaning if another developer makes a change to the file on the server, another dev isn't even notified and could overwrite the change. The File Transfer option in Aptana 2.0 doesn't support any sort of Sync, just manually uploading/downloading files. The Sync option in Aptana 1.5.1 doesn't allow you to merge files when they are different. You can only update one or the other. It does however allow you to view a diff (but only if you right click and select) and in that diff you can't make any changes. I did find a way to allow files to be uploaded to their Sync repositories in Aptana using Eclipse Monkey. However it doesn't work if a user saves multiple files at once, 'Save All', again it doesn't work. And additionally, there is no notification if a user opens a local file that has an updated copy on the server. I tried to add one using Eclipse Monkey but I couldn't find any sort of listener in the Eclipse API to do it and any Eclipse Monkey documentation is far and few between. My only solution at this point is just to let them continue to map directly to the server or ask them to do a manual download before they do any work (but again what if someone uploads a change right after they do that). Anyone have any ideas?

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  • How are you taking advantage of Multicore?

    - by tgamblin
    As someone in the world of HPC who came from the world of enterprise web development, I'm always curious to see how developers back in the "real world" are taking advantage of parallel computing. This is much more relevant now that all chips are going multicore, and it'll be even more relevant when there are thousands of cores on a chip instead of just a few. My questions are: How does this affect your software roadmap? I'm particularly interested in real stories about how multicore is affecting different software domains, so specify what kind of development you do in your answer (e.g. server side, client-side apps, scientific computing, etc). What are you doing with your existing code to take advantage of multicore machines, and what challenges have you faced? Are you using OpenMP, Erlang, Haskell, CUDA, TBB, UPC or something else? What do you plan to do as concurrency levels continue to increase, and how will you deal with hundreds or thousands of cores? If your domain doesn't easily benefit from parallel computation, then explaining why is interesting, too. Finally, I've framed this as a multicore question, but feel free to talk about other types of parallel computing. If you're porting part of your app to use MapReduce, or if MPI on large clusters is the paradigm for you, then definitely mention that, too. Update: If you do answer #5, mention whether you think things will change if there get to be more cores (100, 1000, etc) than you can feed with available memory bandwidth (seeing as how bandwidth is getting smaller and smaller per core). Can you still use the remaining cores for your application?

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  • Programmatically copying custom content type and columns from one web to another

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I'm experiencing a very stubborn problem when copying custom content type and its columns from one web to another within the same site. Basically, this is the code that I have: foreach (SPField field in existingWeb.Fields) { if (!destinationWeb.Fields.ContainsField(field.Title)) { destinationWeb.Fields.AddFieldAsXml(field.SchemaXml); destinationWeb.Update(); } } foreach (SPContentType existingWebCt in destinationWeb.ContentType) { SPContentType newContentType = new SPContentType(existingWebCt.Parent, destinationWeb.ContentTypes, existingWebCt.Name); foreach (SPFieldLink fieldLink in existingWebCt.FieldLinks) { SPField sourceField = existingWebCt.Fields[fieldLink.Id]; if (destinationWeb.Fields.ContainsField(sourceField.Title)) { SPFieldLink destinationWebFieldLink = new SPFieldLink(destinationWeb.Fields[sourceField.Title]); newContentType.FieldLinks.Add(destinationWebFieldLink); } } } existingWeb and destinationWeb are 2 webs within the same site. The code runs fine. But the problem is that in the SITE Content Type screen (under site settings), when I click the custom column link in the custom content type, I got an error saying: Invalid field name {UID}. The UID is the same UID as the custom column in the existing site. I checked with my web settings after completion. I can see the custom list (which I created with an item for testing purpose), but the custom column is gone from the view (though the actual data is still there... just have to check the box to get it to display). But I think that is less important... more of fyi. I've also gotten a variety of different exceptions should I copy things wrongly. Google has failed to help me out on this one. Does anyone know what I'm missing in order to get that link to work again? Thanks.

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  • asp.net updatepanel inside hidden panel possible bug

    - by MakkyNZ
    Hi The javascript generated by the asp.net SciptManager control seems to have a bug and cant handle hidden UpdatePanels. A javascript error is thrown when a control within one updated panel tries to make another update panel visible. Is this a bug with ASP.Net ajax? And does anyone have any ideas how to get around this? heres is an example of when im trying to to <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Panel1.Visible = true; } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" Text="Show Panel"></asp:LinkButton> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" runat="server" Visible="false"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> blah bla blah </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Panel> this is the javascript error that gets thrown when clicking on the "LinkButton1" link. This error comes from the javascript that is generated by the asp.net ScriptManager control Error: Sys.InvalidOperationException: Could not find UpdatePanel with ID 'ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_UpdatePanel2'

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  • Using Haml & Sass with Eclipse

    - by Sam Hasler
    Are there any plugins for eclipse that add syntax highlighting and other niceties for editing Haml and Sass? Google searches only seem to point to a dead project on lucky-dip.net. Note: it's Sass I'm most interested in. A solution for using just Sass (or something similar to it like less) in Eclipse would suit my needs. Also, I'm developing for Google App Engine (Java), using the App Engine plugin for Eclipse. So switching to another IDE isn't an option. Update: So I've got syntax highlighting now using Pascal's answer and I've installed Ruby and Compass to compile sass into css. However I'm aware that the syntax of sass will be changing with 2.4 so I'd still like to get the Haml and Sass Editors that come with Aptana to work. When I tried to use them they threw an exception and wouldn't display the files. I'd be interested to know if that's because I misconfigured Aptana or is an actual bug in the editors. I'd also be very interested in any way of compiling Sass that integrated with Ecplise so that I didn't have to run something separate from it. (or a way of putting Sass/Compass in the Ecplise build process.)

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Rich faces and dataTable

    - by ortho
    Hi all :) I have the question regarding rich faces and beans. I have a jsp page that is using richfaces and inside it I have the: rich:extendedDatatable component, that takes data from my MainBean as ArrayList (this bean queries the mySQL and puts results to the ArrayList that populates the dataTable later on). There are 4 columns in datatable, first 3 are h:outputLabels and the last one is checkbox. Now I have a question: how can I get information from selected row ? I mean, when user clicks checkbox, I want to take the id/name or whatever that is associated to this particular row, then when user clicks on Apply changed a4j: button I will update the database and when user logs in back again he will see updated info: e.g. checkbox is selected/not selected now because the user checked that. I believe that is a simple query for someone who worked with it. For me ex. flash developer it would be easy in as3, but here I didnt find the solution yet, please help. Thank you in advance, Kindest regards

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  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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  • JQuery not working.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am trying to implement JQuery in my web page but i am not been able to implement it successfully. I have a master page where i added one script for menu bar that is already using jquery hosted by Google This is coded in master page itself <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.0/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseover', ddmenu_open) $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseout', ddmenu_timer) }); document.onclick = ddmenu_close; // ]]> </script> Now i want to implement a Jquery to set the css visibility property to true or false. into my content page of same master page. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#lnkAddMore").click(function(){ alert(); } ); }); </script> This html control is under my UpdatePanel. I dont know why it is not working ? I am using this control under UpdatePanel. <input type="button" id="lnkAddMore" value="Add More" /> I tried to use it outside my update panel it is running successfully but not in UpdatePanel I think there is a problem using it with an UpdatePanel

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • How to create an SaaS Application?

    - by Andrew
    I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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  • IPhone custom UITableViewCell Reloading

    - by Steblo
    Hi, currently I'm struggling with this problem: I got a UITableViewController that displays a tableView with different custom cells. One custom cell displays a number (by a label). If you click on this cell, the navigationController moves to a UIPicker where the user can select the number to be displayes. If the user moves back, the cell should display the updated value. Problem: I managed to reload the cells by calling - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } in the UITableViewController. This works only, if I don't use dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier for the cell (tables won't show updates otherwise). But in this case, memory usage grows and grows... In addition, the program crashes after about 15 movements to pickerView and back - I think because the cell that should be reloaded is already released. How can I update a reusable custom cell every time the view appears ? What is the best solution ? I think retaining cells should not be used ?

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