Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 774/956 | < Previous Page | 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781  | Next Page >

  • How do I use a modalViewController Identically in Two Controllers?

    - by Theory
    I'm using the Three20 TTMessageController in my app. I've figured out how to use it, adding on a bunch of other stuff (including TTMessageControllerDelegate methods and ABPeoplePickerNavigationControllerDelegate methods). It works great for me, after a bit of a struggle to figure it out. The trouble I'm having now is a design issue: I want to use it identically in two different places, including with the same delegate methods. My current approach is that I've put all the code into a single class inheriting from NSObject, called ComposerProxy, and I'm just having the two controllers that use it use the proxy, like so: ComposerProxy *proxy = [[ComposerProxy alloc] initWithController:this]; [proxy go]; The go method constructs the TTMessageController, configures it, adds it to a UINavigationController, and presents it: [self.controller presentModalViewController: navController animated: YES]; This works great, as I have all my code nicely encapsulated in ComposerProxy and I need only the above two lines anywhere I want to use it. The downside, though, is that I can't dealloc the proxy variable without getting crashes. I can't autorelease it, either: same problem. So I'm wondering if my proxy approach is a poor one. How does one normally encapsulate a bunch of behaviors like this without requiring a lot of duplicate code in the classes that use it? Do I need to add a delegate class to my ComposerProxy and make the controller responsible for dismissing the modal view controller in a hypothetical composerDidFinish method or some such? Many TIA!

    Read the article

  • Writing re-entrant lexer with Flex

    - by Viet
    I'm newbie to flex. I'm trying to write a simple re-entrant lexer/scanner with flex. The lexer definition goes below. I get stuck with compilation errors as shown below (yyg issue): reentrant.l: /* Definitions */ digit [0-9] letter [a-zA-Z] alphanum [a-zA-Z0-9] identifier [a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]+ integer [0-9]+ natural [0-9]*[1-9][0-9]* decimal ([0-9]+\.|\.[0-9]+|[0-9]+\.[0-9]+) %{ #include <stdio.h> #define ECHO fwrite(yytext, yyleng, 1, yyout) int totalNums = 0; %} %option reentrant %option prefix="simpleit_" %% ^(.*)\r?\n printf("%d\t%s", yylineno++, yytext); %% /* Routines */ int yywrap(yyscan_t yyscanner) { return 1; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { yyscan_t yyscanner; if(argc < 2) { printf("Usage: %s fileName\n", argv[0]); return -1; } yyin = fopen(argv[1], "rb"); yylex(yyscanner); return 0; } Compilation errors: vietlq@mylappie:~/Desktop/parsers/reentrant$ gcc lex.simpleit_.c reentrant.l: In function ‘main’: reentrant.l:44: error: ‘yyg’ undeclared (first use in this function) reentrant.l:44: error: (Each undeclared identifier is reported only once reentrant.l:44: error: for each function it appears in.)

    Read the article

  • String to array or Array to string tips on formats, etc

    - by user316841
    hi, first of all thanks for taking your time! I'm a junior Dev, working with PHP + mysql. My issue: I'm saving data from a form to my database. From this form, there's only need to save the contacts: Name, phone number, address. But, it would be nice to have a small reference to the user answers. Let's say for each question we've got a value betwee 1 and 4. Since there's no need to create a table just for it, because what's needed is just the personal contacts. I'm thinking of recording each question/answer, as a letter and its correspondent value. Example (A2, B1, C5, D3, etc). My question is: Is there a format I could afterwards, handle easily ? Convert to array (string to array) in case the client change ideas, and ask this data, placed in table columns ? Just to prevent this situation! Example, From (A2, B1, C5 ) to array( "A" = "1", "B" = "1", "C" = "5" ) For now I guess, Regex is the answer, but it's allways hard to figure it out and I'm allways getting in troubles =) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • TemplateField button causing GridView Invalid Postback

    - by Carter
    Ok, so I've got a template field in a gridview that contains just a simple button... <asp:GridView ID="KeywordsGridView" AllowPaging="false" AutoGenerateColumns="false" BackColor="white" GridLines="None" HeaderStyle-CssClass="Table_Header" RowStyle-CssClass="Table_Style" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="References" SortExpression="References" HeaderText="Total References" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Keyword" SortExpression="Keyword" HeaderText="Keyword" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Whenever I click the button I get the error... Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using <pages enableEventValidation="true"/> in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" %> in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. I've found a decent amount of articles referencing this issue, including a couple on SO, for example... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/228969/asp-net-invalid-postback-or-callback-argument-event-validation-is-enabled-usi and... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/103560/invalid-postback-or-callback-argument I might just be misunderstanding, but as far as I can tell they don't really help me. How do I get this to go away without setting enableEventValidation="false"?

    Read the article

  • How to protect copyright on large web applications?

    - by Saif Bechan
    Recently I have read about Myows, described as "the universal copyright management and protection app for smart creatives". It is used to protect copyright and more. Currently I am working on a large web application which is in late testing phase. Because of the complexity of the app there are not many versions of it online so copyright will be a huge issue for me as much of the code is in JavaScript and is easy copyable. I was glad to see that there is some company out there that provide such services, and naturally I wanted to know if there were people using it. I did not know that this type of concept was so new. Is protecting copyright a good idea for a large web application? If so, do you think Myows will be worth using, or are there better ways to achieve that? Update: Wow, there is no better person to have answered this question like the creator himself. There were some nice points made in the answer, and I think it will be a good service for people like me. In the next couple of weeks I will be looking further into the subject and start uploading my code and see how it works out. I will leave this question up because I do want some more suggestions on this topic.

    Read the article

  • Trouble with C# array

    - by Biosci3c
    Hi, I am writing a card playing program as a way of learning C#. I ran into an issue with an array going out of bounds. Here is my code: namespace Pcardconsole { class Deck { public Deck() { // Assign standard deck to new deck object int j; for (int i = 0; i != CurrentDeck.Length; i++) { CurrentDeck[i] = originalCards[i]; } // Fisher-Yates Shuffling Algorithim Random rnd = new Random(); for (int k = CurrentDeck.Length - 1; k >= 0; k++) { int r = rnd.Next(0, k + 1); int tmp = CurrentDeck[k]; CurrentDeck[k] = CurrentDeck[r]; CurrentDeck[r] = tmp; // Console.WriteLine(i); } } public void Shuffle() { // TODO } // public int[] ReturnCards() // { // TODO // } public int[] originalCards = new int[54] { 0x11, 0x12, 0x13, 0x14, 0x15, 0x16, 0x17, 0x18, 0x19, 0x1A, 0x1B, 0x1C, 0x1D, 0x21, 0x22, 0x23, 0x24, 0x25, 0x26, 0x27, 0x28, 0x29, 0x2A, 0x2B, 0x2C, 0x2D, 0x31, 0x32, 0x33, 0x34, 0x35, 0x36, 0x37, 0x38, 0x39, 0x3A, 0x3B, 0x3C, 0x3D, 0x41, 0x42, 0x43, 0x44, 0x45, 0x46, 0x47, 0x48, 0x49, 0x4A, 0x4B, 0x4C, 0x4D, 0x50, 0x51 }; public int[] CurrentDeck = new int[54]; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Create a Deck object Deck mainDeck = new Deck(); Console.WriteLine("Here is the card array:"); for (int index = 0; index != mainDeck.CurrentDeck.Length; index++) { string card = mainDeck.CurrentDeck[index].ToString("x"); Console.WriteLine("0x" + card); } } } The hexidecimal numbers stand for different cards. When I compile it I get an array index out of bounds error, and a crash. I don't understand what is wrong. Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • zend_captcha always fails isValid()

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I've got an issue with Zend_Captcha always returning false when the page is submitted and the captcha's isValid() method is being called. It's driving my nuts because this as far as I am concerned should work. I start by declaring this at the top of the action function of the controller $captcha = new Zend_Captcha_Image('captcha', array( 'captcha' => array( 'name' => 'graduatesignupcaptcha', 'wordlen' => 6, 'font' => $this->config->captcha->font, 'imgDir' => $baseUrl.'/images/captcha/', 'imgUrl' => $this->config->webserver->name.'/images/captcha/', ) ) ); $captcha->setHeight(80) ->setTimeout(300); I do usual form validation and that all works, however it is when I come to validate that the value entered into form for the captcha it always returns false. //next we check the captcha text to ensure that the form is a person not a script $captchaText = $form->getElement('captchainput')->getValue(); $captchaId = $form->getElement('captchaid')->getValue(); //$captchaSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('Zend_Form_Captcha_'.$captchaId); $captchaArray = array( 'id' => $captchaId, 'input' => $captchaText ); if(!$captcha->isValid($captchaArray)){ $log->log(implode(",",$captcha->getErrors()), Zend_Log::DEBUG); $form->getElement('captchainput')->setErrors(array('messages' => 'Bad security code')); $formFailed = true; } I've check to ensure that the id that I am getting and storing as a hidden element in my form match the image that is being generated but no matter what I do this always fails. Am I missing something simple here?? Or is there a better way of dealing with this?? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80040e14' Could not find stored procedure

    - by BBlake
    I am migrating a classic ASP web app to new servers. The database back end is migrating from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008, and the app is moving from Win2000 x86 to Win2003R2 x64. I am getting the above error on every single stored procedure call within the application. I have verified: Yes, the SQL user is set up, using correct username and password Yes, the SQL user has execute permissions on the stored procedures in the database Yes, I have updated the TypeLib references to the new UUID Yes, I have logged into the database via SSMS with the SQL user id and it can see and execute the stored procedures just fine in SSMS, but not from the web app. Yes, the SQL user has the database set as its default database. The most frustrating thing is it works fine on the DEV server, but not on the production server. I have gone through every IIS setting 5 or 6 times and the web app is set up precisely the same in both environments. The only difference is the database server name in the connection string (DEV vs prod) EDIT: I have also tried pointing the prod web box at the dev database server and get the same error so I'm fairly sure the issue isn't on the database side.

    Read the article

  • Scala Interpreter scala.tools.nsc.interpreter.IMain Memory leak

    - by Peter
    I need to write a program using the scala interpreter to run scala code on the fly. The interpreter must be able to run an infinite amount of code without being restarted. I know that each time the method interpret() of the class scala.tools.nsc.interpreter.IMain is called, the request is stored, so the memory usage will keep going up forever. Here is the idea of what I would like to do: var interpreter = new IMain while (true) { interpreter.interpret(some code to be run on the fly) } If the method interpret() stores the request each time, is there a way to clear the buffer of stored requests? What I am trying to do now is to count the number of times the method interpret() is called then get a new instance of IMain when the number of times reaches 100, for instance. Here is my code: var interpreter = new IMain var counter = 0 while (true) { interpreter.interpret(some code to be run on the fly) counter = counter + 1 if (counter > 100) { interpreter = new IMain counter = 0 } } However, I still see that the memory usage is going up forever. It seems that the IMain instances are not garbage-collected by the JVM. Could somebody help me solve this issue? I really need to be able to keep my program running for a long time without restarting, but I cannot afford such a memory usage just for the scala interpreter. Thanks in advance, Pet

    Read the article

  • Installing applications OTA

    - by Ed Marty
    I have a system set up to download jad files on users' Blackberries, but it only works intermittently, and seemingly randomly. If the user clicks on the link within their BlackBerry browser, 95% of the time on the first try an error message will pop up saying there was an HTTP 500 error (which our server never returns). Viewing the details of this message within the blackberry browser, it says nothing but java.lang.nullpointerexception which, again, could not have come from our server (running apache/php). However, if the user clicks on the link a few more times, or navigates away and goes back to that page, it suddenly works. No change on the server, it just shows the application install screen. Unfortunately, this doesn't always work; sometimes the error 500 just keeps showing up. The link is rather long (containing an sha hash as a token as part of the URL), but I would think that a long URL would either always be broken or always work, not work intermittently. The link uses a php script to download the jad and cod files. Linking to the files directly rather than using the script seems to work more often (I haven't determined if that also ever has an error 500 or not), but I can't find any issues with the headers. The content type is set correctly and, like I said, if the headers were an issue, I'd think it would either always work or always break. Any clues?

    Read the article

  • How to modify the style of jQuery DatePicker's disabled dates?

    - by Clay
    Given this page: http://jqueryui.com/demos/datepicker/#min-max And viewing its source: http://jqueryui.com/themeroller/css/parseTheme.css.php I can change the following line (using Chrome's inspect element feature) and see those changes reflected: .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .35; filter:Alpha(Opacity=35); background-image: none; } However, if I try to override my own test page with something like... .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .99 !important; filter:Alpha(Opacity=99) !important; background-image: none !important; color:Red !important; } ...I do not see my changes reflected in the calendar. I can make other changes in my own test page and those are reflected for other classes in the datepicker. So, I'm not having any kind of path issue to the .js or .css files. What am I missing here? UPDATE/SOLUTION Firebug to the rescue...this took care of my styling needs: .ui-datepicker-week-end{color: #c0c0c0 !important;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker{color: #c0c0c0;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker:hover{cursor: default important;} .ui-datepicker-calendar th{color: #222222 !important;}

    Read the article

  • Logout exception flooding elmah

    - by durilai
    I am using ASP.NET membership, and in particular a copy of the membership code included in the MVC project. I am also using elmah to log exceptions. I am getting flooded with the following when people sign out. System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. Here is the stack trace sent System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. at System.Web.HttpResponse.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.HttpResponseWrapper.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.Mvc.HandleErrorAttribute.OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeExceptionFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, IList`1 filters, Exception exception) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.<>c__DisplayClass8.<BeginProcessRequest>b__4() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass1.<MakeVoidDelegate>b__0() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass8`1.<BeginSynchronous>b__7(IAsyncResult _) at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.WrappedAsyncResult`1.End() at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult result) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) I cannot seem to find any reason for this. It is not causing an issue for end users, but would still like to resolve/learn about it. Thanks for any help or guidance.

    Read the article

  • iPad: Cannot load facebook page wall in UIWebview

    - by geekay
    Its already too long i am struggling with this issue. After searching a lot I decided to post a question here. What my app does Captures photo Uploads the photo on the wall of the page Displays the facebook page wall in a UIWebview after upload is complete Everything was working as expected 4 days back :) Suddenly something went wrong :( Code NSString *facebookPageURL =@"https://m.facebook.com/pages/<myPageName>/<myPageID>?v=wall" UIWebView *webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:kAppFrame]; [webView setUserInteractionEnabled:NO]; [webView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; webView.delegate = self; [webView setHidden: YES]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[facebookPageURL stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] relativeToURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://login.facebook.com"]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = nil; if(url) request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; [self.view addSubview:webView]; [webView reload]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:webView]; webView = nil; Scenario If I open the url facebookPageURL in Safari in iOS Simulator it works well If I open the url in any browser on Mac it works well In webView I see a white screen If I change the facebookPageURL to remove ?v=wall to ?v=info I am stil able to see the page.(not blank screen atleast). Note 1. My facebook Page is NOT unpublished and is visible. 2. I have cross checked the facebook page permissions. I suspect there is something changed on facebook side overnight. Please guide.

    Read the article

  • On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

    - by pravin
    I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

    Read the article

  • Unable to connect on socket across different networks.

    - by maleki
    I am having trouble connecting my online application to others across another network. I am able to give them the hostAddress to connect when we are on the same network but when we are doing it across the internet the generated host address doesn't allow a connection, nor does using the ip address gotten from online sites such as whatismyip.com My biggest issue isn't debugging this code, because it works over intra-network but The server doesn't see attempts when we try to move to different networks. Also, the test ip I am using is 2222. InetAddress addr = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); String hostname = addr.getHostName(); System.out.println("Hostname: " + hostname); System.out.println("IP: " + addr.getHostAddress()); I display the host to the server when it is starting if (isClient) { System.out.println("Client Starting.."); clientSocket = new Socket(host, port_number); } else { System.out.println("Server Starting.."); echoServer = new ServerSocket(port_number); clientSocket = echoServer.accept(); System.out.println("Warning, Incoming Game.."); }

    Read the article

  • Datagridview DateTime Format not using System Region settings

    - by Nick
    I've got a datagridview that is hooked up to a bindingsource on my main form. One of the columns and datamembers in the bindingsource is a DateTime object. When the datagridview shows this item it doesn't use Window's default region settings for displaying datetime. The weird thing is, I can access this same DateTime object and print it to a text box, or even pass it off to another form with another datagridview and binding source and it actually shows up properly in that table. So then, why does the datagridview on my main form not use the regional date/time settings when converting the DateTime object to a string? I've checked that there was no special formatting applied to the datagridview and so I'm running out of ideas to check. Do you guys know if there is any super secret way to get a datagridview to follow system regional format rules or not? Also, since I highly doubt that I did something different with this datagridview vs the others in my application, the next potential area for issue could be on application load: Perhaps since this comes up when the application loads, it's not getting the same cultureUI settings as the other datagridviews? Any Help?

    Read the article

  • Source of UIView Implicit Animation delay?

    - by iPhoneToucher
    I have a block of UIView animation code that looks like this: [UIView beginAnimations:@"pushView" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:0]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationWillStartSelector:@selector(animationWillStart)]; view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 416); [UIView commitAnimations]; The code basically mimics the animation of a ModalView presentation and is tied to a button on my interface. When the button is pressed, I get a long (.5 sec) delay (on iPod Touch...twice as fast on iPhone 3GS) before the animationWillStart: actually gets called. My app has lots going on besides this, but I've timed various points of my code and the delay definitely occurs at this block. In other words, a timestamp immediately before this code block and a timestamp when animationWillStart: gets called shows a .5 sec difference. I'm not too experienced with Core Animation and I'm just trying to figure out what the cause of the delay is...Memory use is stable when the animation starts and CoreAnimation FPS seems to be fine in Instruments. The view that gets animated does have upwards of 20 total subviews, but if that were the issue wouldn't it cause choppiness after the animation starts, rather than before? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • -[NSCFData writeStreamHandleEvent:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance in a stream callback

    - by user295491
    Hi everyone, I am working with streams and sockets in iPhone SDK 3.1.3 the issue is when the program accept a callback and I want to handle this writestream callback the following error is triggered " Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: ' -[NSCFData writeStreamHandleEvent:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x17bc70'" But I don't know how to solve it because everything seems fine. Even when I run the debugger there is no error the program works. Any hint here will help! The code of the callback is: void myWriteStreamCallBack (CFWriteStreamRef stream, CFStreamEventType eventType, void *info){ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; Connection *handlerEv = [(Connection *)info retain] autorelease]; [handlerEv writeStreamHandleEvent:eventType]; [pool release]; } The code of the writeStreamHandleEvent: - (void)writeStreamHandleEvent:(CFStreamEventType) eventType{ switch(eventType) { case kCFStreamEventOpenCompleted: writeStreamOpen = YES; break; case kCFStreamEventCanAcceptBytes: NSLog(@"Writing in the stream"); [self writeOutgoingBufferToStream]; break; case kCFStreamEventErrorOccurred: error = CFWriteStreamGetError(writeStream); fprintf(stderr, "CFReadStreamGetError returned (%ld, %ld)\n", error.domain, error.error); CFWriteStreamUnscheduleFromRunLoop(writeStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(),kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CFWriteStreamClose(writeStream); CFRelease(writeStream); break; case kCFStreamEventEndEncountered: CFWriteStreamUnscheduleFromRunLoop(writeStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(),kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CFWriteStreamClose(writeStream); CFRelease(writeStream); break; } } The code of the stream configuration: CFSocketContext ctx = {0, self, nil, nil, nil}; CFWriteStreamSetClient (writeStream,registeredEvents, (CFWriteStreamClientCallBack)&myWriteStreamCallBack,(CFStreamClientContext *)(&ctx) ); CFWriteStreamScheduleWithRunLoop (writeStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); You can see that there is nothing strange!, well at least I don't see it. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • PostSharp when using DataContractSerializer?

    - by Dan Bryant
    I have an Aspect that implements INotifyPropertyChanged on a class. The aspect includes the following: [OnLocationSetValueAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectProperties")] public void OnPropertySet(LocationInterceptionArgs args) { var currentValue = args.GetCurrentValue(); bool alreadyEqual = (currentValue == args.Value); // Call the setter args.ProceedSetValue(); // Invoke method OnPropertyChanged (ours, the base one, or the overridden one). if (!alreadyEqual) OnPropertyChangedMethod.Invoke(args.Location.Name); } This works fine when I instantiate the class normally, but I run into problems when I deserialize the class using a DataContractSerializer. This bypasses the constructor, which I'm guessing interferes with the way that PostSharp sets itself up. This ends up causing a NullReferenceException in an intercepted property setter, but before it has called the custom OnPropertySet, so I'm guessing it interferes with setting up the LocationInterceptionArgs. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is there a way I can work around it? I did some more research and discovered I can fix the issue by doing this: [OnDeserializing] private void OnDeserializing(StreamingContext context) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } I thought, okay, that's not too bad, so I tried to do this in my Aspect: private IEnumerable<MethodInfo> SelectDeserializing(Type type) { return type.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Public).Where( t => t.IsDefined(typeof (OnDeserializingAttribute), false)); } [OnMethodEntryAdvice, MethodPointcut("SelectDeserializing")] public void OnMethodEntry(MethodExecutionArgs args) { AspectUtilities.InitializeCurrentAspects(); } Unfortunately, even though it intercepts the method properly, it doesn't work. I'm thinking the call to InitializeCurrentAspects isn't getting transformed properly, since it's now inside the Aspect rather than directly inside the aspect-enhanced class. Is there a way I can cleanly automate this so that I don't have to worry about calling this on every class that I want to have the Aspect?

    Read the article

  • How do I break down MySQL query results into categories, each with a specific number of rows?

    - by Mel
    Hello, Problem: I want to list n number of games from each genre (order not important) The following MySQL query resides inside a ColdFusion function. It is meant to list all games under a platform (for example, list all PS3 games; list all Xbox 360 games; etc...). The variable for PlatformID is passed through the URL. I have 9 genres, and I would like to list 10 games from each genre. SELECT games.GameID AS GameID, games.GameReleaseDate AS rDate, titles.TitleName AS tName, titles.TitleShortDescription AS sDesc, genres.GenreName AS gName, platforms.PlatformID, platforms.PlatformName AS pName, platforms.PlatformAbbreviation AS pAbbr FROM (((games join titles on((games.TitleID = titles.TitleID))) join genres on((genres.GenreID = games.GenreID))) join platforms on((platforms.PlatformID = games.PlatformID))) WHERE (games.PlatformID = '#ARGUMENTS.PlatformID#') ORDER BY GenreName ASC, GameReleaseDate DESC Once the query results come back I group them in ColdFusion as follows: <cfoutput query="ListGames" group="gName"> (first loop which lists genres) #ListGames.gName# <cfoutput> (nested loop which lists games) #ListGames.tName# </cfoutput> </cfoutput> The problem is that I only want 10 games from each genre to be listed. If I place a "limit" of 50 in the SQL, I will get ~ 50 games of the same genre (depending on how much games of that genre there are). The second issue is I don't want the overload of querying the database for all games when each person will only look at a few. What is the correct way to do this? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Efficient data importing?

    - by Kevin
    We work with a lot of real estate, and while rearchitecting how the data is imported, I came across an interesting issue. Firstly, the way our system works (loosely speaking) is we run a Coldfusion process once a day that retrieves data provided from an IDX vendor via FTP. They push the data to us. Whatever they send us is what we get. Over the years, this has proven to be rather unstable. I am rearchitecting it with PHP on the RETS standard, which uses SOAP methods of retrieving data, which is already proven to be much better than what we had. When it comes to 'updating' existing data, my initial thought was to query only for data that was updated. There is a field for 'Modified' that tells you when a listing was last updated, and the code I have will grab any listing updated within the last 6 hours (give myself a window in case something goes wrong). However, I see a lot of real estate developers suggest creating 'batch' processes that run through all listings regardless of updated status that is constantly running. Is this the better way to do it? Or am I fine with just grabbing the data I know I need? It doesn't make a lot of sense to me to do more processing than necessary. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Mimic.js handle fault response

    - by nikolas
    i use mimic.js regarding a project that i m developing.. the issue that i face, is if there is a fault response from the webservice, mimic, doesn't handle it, and the browser remains "awaiting" for a response, that has actually been back, but hasn't been handled by mimic.. to be more specific, one typical fault response is the following.. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <methodResponse> <fault> <value> <struct> <member> <name>faultCode</name><value><int>104</int></value> </member> <member> <name>faultString</name><value><string>Invalid Input Parameters</string></value> </member> </struct></value></fault></methodResponse> and chrome console get me the error mimic.js:11 Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'childNodes' of null any suggestions on how to handle "fault" responses? mimic.js hasn't been altered at all.. also tried to bypass the fact that mimic can't handle the fault, by trying to use the isFault flag, in the if statement, with no success either.. isFault is supposed to get a boolean value, i guess true/false?

    Read the article

  • Drop Down Box and other stuff in ASP.NET with VB.NET (VS 2008)

    - by typoknig
    Hi all, I am trying to polish up a program a program that I have converted from a Windows Form in to an ASP.NET Web Application. I have several questions: 1.) I have a drop down box where users can select their variables, but users can also enter their variables manually into various text fields. What I want is for the drop down box to show a string like "Choose Variables" when ever the user enters their variables manually. I want this to happen without having to reload the page. 2.) In the Windows Form version of this application I had a RichTextBox that populated with data (line by line) after a calculation was made. I used "AppendText" in my Windows Form, but that is not available in ASP.NET, and neither is the RichTextBox. I am open to suggestions here, I tried to use just a text box but that isn't working right. 3.) In my Windows Form application I was using "KeyPress" events to prevent incorrect characters from being entered into the text fields. My code for these events looked similar to this: Private Sub TextBox_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles TextBox.KeyPress If (e.KeyChar < "0" OrElse e.KeyChar > "9") AndAlso e.KeyChar <> ControlChars.Back AndAlso e.KeyChar <> "." Then e.Handled = True End If End Sub How can I make this work again... also without reloading the page. 4.) This is not a major issue, but I would like all of the text to be selected when the cursor enters a field. In my Windows Form application I used "SelectAll", but again, that is not available in ASP.NET Thanks in advanced.

    Read the article

  • Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

    - by user1449855
    Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

    Read the article

  • Word VBA - Find text between delimiters and convert to lower case

    - by jJack
    I would like to find text which is between the < and characters, and then turn any found text into "normal" case, where first letter of word is capitalized. Here is what I have thus far: Function findTextBetweenCarots() As String Dim strText As String With Selection .Find.Text = "<" ' what about <[^0-9]+> ? .Find.Forward = True .Find.Wrap = wdFindContinue End With Selection.Find.Execute ' Application.Selection. ' how do I get the text between the other ">"? findCarotSymb = Application.Selection.Text End Function Or, is there a better way of doing this? I also approached the problem using the VBScript Regex 5.5 library, which worked on simple documents, but not on certain documents with complex tables. For example, trying to just bold the text (for simplicity): Sub BoldUpperCaseWords() Dim regEx, Match, Matches Dim rngRange As Range Set regEx = New RegExp regEx.Pattern = "<[^0-9]+>" regEx.IgnoreCase = False regEx.Global = True Set Matches = regEx.Execute(ActiveDocument.Range.Text) For Each Match In Matches ActiveDocument.Range(Match.FirstIndex, Match.FirstIndex + Len(Match.Value)).Bold = True Next End Sub would not work in a document with tables. In fact, it would not even bold the correct text (the text between the <. This leads me to believe I have a broader issue here that I am missing. Here is what a sample doc looks like. Notice the wrong text is bold:

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779 780 781  | Next Page >