Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 792/854 | < Previous Page | 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799  | Next Page >

  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

    Read the article

  • vim plugin to show current Perl subroutine

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to make a vim plugin that will split the window on load and simulate a info bar at the top of my terminal. I've got it sorta working but I think I've either reached limits of my knowledge of vim syntax or there's a logic problem in my code. The desired effect would be to do a reverse search for any declaration of a Perl subroutine form my current location in the active buffer and display the line in the top buffer. I'm also trying to make it skip that buffer when I switch buffers with <C-R>. My attempt at that so far can be seen in the mess of nested if statements. Anyway, here's the code. I would greatly appreciate feedback from anyone. (pastebin pastebin.com/8cuMPn1Q) let s:current_function_bufname = 'Current\ Function\/Subroutine' function! s:get_current_function_name(no_echo) let lnum = line(".") let col = col(".") if a:no_echo let s:current_function_name = getline(search("^[^s]sub .$", 'bW')) else echohl ModeMsg echo getline(search("^[^s]sub .$", 'bW')) "echo getline(search("^[^ \t#/]\{2}.[^:]\s$", 'bW')) echohl None endif endfunction let s:previous_winbufnr = 1 let s:current_function_name = '' let s:current_function_buffer_created = 0 let s:current_function_bufnr = 2 function! s:show_current_function() let total_buffers = winnr('$') let current_winbufnr = winnr() if s:previous_winbufnr != current_winbufnr if bufname(current_winbufnr) == s:current_function_bufname if s:previous_winbufnr < current_winbufnr let i = current_winbufnr + 1 if i total_buffers let i = 1 endif if i == s:current_function_bufnr let i = i + 1 endif if i total buffers let i = 1 endif exec i.'wincmd w' else let i = current_winbufnr - 1 if i < 1 let i = total_buffers endif if i == s:current_function_bufnr let i = i - 1 endif if i < 1 let i = total_buffers endif try exec i.'wincmd w' finally exec total_buffers.'wincmd w' endtry endif endif let s:previous_winbufnr = current_winbufnr return 1 endif if s:current_function_buffer_created == 0 exec 'top 1 split '.s:current_function_bufname call s:set_as_scratch_buffer() let s:current_function_buffer_created = 1 let s:current_function_bufnr = winnr() endif call s:activate_buffer_by_name(s:current_function_bufname) setlocal modifiable call s:get_current_function_name(1) call setline(1, s:current_function_name) setlocal nomodifiable call s:activate_buffer_by_name(bufname(current_winbufnr)) endfunction function! s:set_as_scratch_buffer() setlocal noswapfile setlocal nomodifiable setlocal bufhidden=delete setlocal buftype=nofile setlocal nobuflisted setlocal nonumber setlocal nowrap setlocal cursorline endfunction function! s:activate_buffer_by_name(name) for i in range(1, winnr('$')) let name = bufname(winbufnr(i)) let full_name = fnamemodify(bufname(winbufnr(i)), ':p') if name == a:name || full_name == a:name exec i.'wincmd w' return 1 endif endfor return 0 endfunction set laststatus=2 autocmd! CursorMoved,CursorMovedI,BufWinEnter * call s:show_current_function() (pastebin pastebin.com/8cuMPn1Q) similar to VIM: display custom reference bar on top of window and http://vim.wikia.com/wiki/Show_current_function_name_in_C_programs

    Read the article

  • Are there known problems with >= and <= and the eval function in JS?

    - by Augier
    I am currently writing a JS rules engine which at one point needs to evaluate boolean expressions using the eval() function. Firstly I construct an equation as such: var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is the value I want to compare. relation.operator is the operator (either "==", "!=", <=, "<", "", ="). relation.value is the value I want to compare with. I then simply pass this string to the eval function and it returns true or false as such: return eval(equation); This works absolutely fine (with words and numbers) or all of the operators except for = and <=. E.g. When evaluating the equation: relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue <= 100 It returns true when previousValue = 0,1,10,100 & all negative numbers but false for everything in between. I would greatly appreciate the help of anyone to either answer my question or to help me find an alternative solution. Regards, Augier. P.S. I don't need a speech on the insecurities of the eval() function. Any value given to relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is predefined. edit: Here is the full function: function evaluateRelation(relation) { console.log("Evaluating relation") var currentValue; //if multiple values if(relation.value.indexOf(";") != -1) { var values = relation.value.split(";"); for (x in values) { var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "values[x]"; currentValue = eval(equation); if (currentValue) return true; } return false; } //if single value else { //Evaluate the relation and get boolean var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; console.log("relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue " + relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue); console.log(equation); return eval(equation); } } Answer: Provided by KennyTM below. A string comparison doesn't work. Converting to a numerical was needed.

    Read the article

  • Android library to get pitch from WAV file

    - by Sakura
    I have a list of sampled data from the WAV file. I would like to pass in these values into a library and get the frequency of the music played in the WAV file. For now, I will have 1 frequency in the WAV file and I would like to find a library that is compatible with Android. I understand that I need to use FFT to get the frequency domain. Is there any good libraries for that? I found that [KissFFT][1] is quite popular but I am not very sure how compatible it is on Android. Is there an easier and good library that can perform the task I want? EDIT: I tried to use JTransforms to get the FFT of the WAV file but always failed at getting the correct frequency of the file. Currently, the WAV file contains sine curve of 440Hz, music note A4. However, I got the result as 441. Then I tried to get the frequency of G4, I got the result as 882Hz which is incorrect. The frequency of G4 is supposed to be 783Hz. Could it be due to not enough samples? If yes, how much samples should I take? //DFT DoubleFFT_1D fft = new DoubleFFT_1D(numOfFrames); double max_fftval = -1; int max_i = -1; double[] fftData = new double[numOfFrames * 2]; for (int i = 0; i < numOfFrames; i++) { // copying audio data to the fft data buffer, imaginary part is 0 fftData[2 * i] = buffer[i]; fftData[2 * i + 1] = 0; } fft.complexForward(fftData); for (int i = 0; i < fftData.length; i += 2) { // complex numbers -> vectors, so we compute the length of the vector, which is sqrt(realpart^2+imaginarypart^2) double vlen = Math.sqrt((fftData[i] * fftData[i]) + (fftData[i + 1] * fftData[i + 1])); //fd.append(Double.toString(vlen)); // fd.append(","); if (max_fftval < vlen) { // if this length is bigger than our stored biggest length max_fftval = vlen; max_i = i; } } //double dominantFreq = ((double)max_i / fftData.length) * sampleRate; double dominantFreq = (max_i/2.0) * sampleRate / numOfFrames; fd.append(Double.toString(dominantFreq)); Can someone help me out? EDIT2: I manage to fix the problem mentioned above by increasing the number of samples to 100000, however, sometimes I am getting the overtones as the frequency. Any idea how to fix it? Should I use Harmonic Product Frequency or Autocorrelation algorithms?

    Read the article

  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

    Read the article

  • PHP, MySQL - My own version of SALT (I call salty) - Login Issue

    - by Fabio Anselmo
    Ok I wrote my own version of SALT I call it salty lol don't make fun of me.. Anyway the registration part of my script as follows is working 100% correctly. //generate SALTY my own version of SALT and I likes me salt.. lol function rand_string( $length ) { $chars = "ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUWXYZabcdefghijklmnopqrstuwxyz1234567890"; $size = strlen( $chars ); for( $i = 0; $i < $length; $i++ ) { $str .= $chars[ rand( 0, $size - 1 ) ]; } return $str; } $salty = rand_string( 256 ); //generate my extra salty pw $password = crypt('password'); $hash = $password . $salty; $newpass = $hash; //insert the data in the database include ('../../scripts/dbconnect.php'); //Update db record with my salty pw ;) // TESTED WITH AND WITHOUT SALTY //HENCE $password and $newpass mysql_query("UPDATE `Register` SET `Password` = '$password' WHERE `emailinput` = '$email'"); mysql_close($connect); However my LOGIN script is failing. I have it setup to TEST and echo if its login or not. It always returns FAILED. I entered the DB and changed the crypted salty pw to "TEST" and I got a SUCCESS. So my problem is somewhere in this LOGIN script I assume. Now I am not sure how to implement my $Salty in this. But also be advised that even without SALTY (just using crypt to store my pass) - I was still unable to perform a login successfully. And if you're gonna suggest i use blowfish - note that my webhost doesn't have it supported and i don't know how to install it. here's my login script: if (isset($_POST['formsubmitted'])) { include ('../../scripts/dbconnect.php'); $username = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username']); $password = crypt(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['password'])); $qry = "SELECT ID FROM Register WHERE emailinput='$username' AND Password='$password'"; $result = mysql_query($qry); if(mysql_num_rows($result) > 0) { echo 'SUCCESS'; //START SESSION } else { echo 'FAILED'; //YOU ARE NOT LOGGED IN } } So what's wrong with this login? Why isn't it working just using the crypt/storing only crypt? How can i make it work storing both the crypt and randomly generated SALTY :) ? Ty advance

    Read the article

  • Get UITableView to scroll to the selected UITextField and Avoid Being Hidden by Keyboard

    - by Lauren Quantrell
    I have a UITextField in a table view on a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController). If the table view is on a UITableViewController, the table will automatically scroll to the textField being edited to prevent it from being hidden by the keyboard. But on a UIViewController it does not. I have tried for a couple of days reading through multiple ways to try to accomplish this and I cannot get it to work. The closest thing that actually scrolls is: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { // SUPPOSEDLY Scroll to the current text field CGRect textFieldRect = [textField frame]; [self.wordsTableView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; } However this only scrolls the table to the topmost row. What seems like an easy task has been a couple of days of frustration. I am using the following to construct the tableView cells: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%d:%d", [indexPath indexAtPosition: 0], [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]]; UITableViewCell *cell = [aTableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; UITextField *theTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(180, 10, 130, 25)]; theTextField.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; theTextField.textColor = [UIColor redColor]; theTextField.text = [textFieldArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; theTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeDefault; theTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; theTextField.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:14]; theTextField.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; theTextField.autocorrectionType = UITextAutocorrectionTypeNo; theTextField.autocapitalizationType = UITextAutocapitalizationTypeNone; theTextField.clearsOnBeginEditing = NO; theTextField.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentLeft; //theTextField.tag = 0; theTextField.tag=indexPath.row; theTextField.delegate = self; theTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; [theTextField setEnabled: YES]; [cell addSubview:theTextField]; [theTextField release]; } return cell; } I suspect I can get the tableView to scroll properly if I can somehow pass the indexPath.row in the textFieldDidBeginEditing method? Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

    - by Refracted Paladin
    The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

    Read the article

  • jquery, manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

    - by Cody
    I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Loading Modules in Angular

    - by SL Dev
    I'm new to AngularJS. In my efforts to learn, I've relied on the AngularJS tutorials. Now, I'm trying to build an app using the AngularSeed project template. I'm trying to make my project as modular as possible. For that reason, my controllers are broken out into several files. Currently, I have the following: /app index.html login.html home.html javascript app.js loginCtrl.js homeCtrl.js my app.js file has the following: 'use strict'; var app = angular.module('site', ['ngRoute']); app.config(function($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); $routeProvider.when('/login', {templateUrl: 'app/login.html', controller:'loginCtrl'}); $routeProvider.when('/home', {templateUrl: 'app/home.html', controller:'homeCtrl'}); $routeProvider.otherwise({redirectTo: '/login'}); }); my loginCtrl.js file is very basic at the moment. It only has: 'use strict'; app.controller('loginCtrl', function loginCtrl($scope) { } ); My homeCtrl.js is almost the same, except for the name. It looks like the following: 'use strict'; app.controller('homeCtrl', function homeCtrl($scope) { } ); My index.html file is the angularSeed index-async.html file. However, when I load the dependencies, I have the following: // load all of the dependencies asynchronously. $script([ 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular.min.js', 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular-route.min.js', 'javascript/app.js', 'javascript/loginCtrl.js', 'javascript/homeCtrl.js' ], function() { // when all is done, execute bootstrap angular application angular.bootstrap(document, ['site']); }); My problem is, sometimes my app works and sometimes it doesn't. It's almost like something gets loaded before something else. Occasionally, I receive this error. Other times, I get an error in the console window that says: 'Uncaught ReferenceError: app is not defined' in loginCtrl.js. Sometimes it happens with homeCtrl.js. What am I doing wrong? It feels like I need to have my controllers in a module and pass that module in my app.config in the app.js file. However, a) I'm not sure if that allowed and b) I'm not sure how to do it.

    Read the article

  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

    Read the article

  • Multiplying matrices: error: expected primary-expression before 'struct'

    - by justin
    I am trying to write a program that is supposed to multiply matrices using threads. I am supposed to fill the matrices using random numbers in a thread. I am compiling in g++ and using PTHREADS. I have also created a struct to pass the data from my command line input to the thread so it can generate the matrix of random numbers. The sizes of the two matrices are also passed in the command line as well. I keep getting: main.cpp:7: error: expected primary-expression before 'struct' my code @ line 7 =: struct a{ int Arow; int Acol; int low; int high; }; My inpust are : Sizes of two matrices ( 4 arguments) high and low ranges in which o generate the random numbers between. Complete code: [headers] using namespace std; void *matrixACreate(struct *); void *status; int main(int argc, char * argv[]) { int Arow = atoi(argv[1]); // Matrix A int Acol = atoi(argv[2]); // WxX int Brow = atoi(argv[3]); // Matrix B int Bcol = atoi(argv[4]); // XxZ, int low = atoi(argv[5]); // Range low int high = atoi(argv[6]); struct a{ int Arow; // Matrix A int Acol; // WxX int low; // Range low int high; }; pthread_t matrixAthread; //pthread_t matrixBthread; pthread_t runner; int error, retValue; if (Acol != Brow) { cout << " This matrix cannot be multiplied. FAIL" << endl; return 0; } error = pthread_create(&matrixAthread, NULL, matrixACreate, struct *a); //error = pthread_create(&matrixAthread, NULL, matrixBCreate, sendB); retValue = pthread_join(matrixAthread, &status); //retValue = pthread_join(matrixBthread, &status); return 0; } void matrixACreate(struct * a) { struct a *data = (struct a *) malloc(sizeof(struct a)); data->Arow = Arow; data->Acol = Acol; data->low = low; data->high = high; int range = ((high - low) + 1); cout << Arow << endl<< Acol << endl; }// just trying to print to see if I am in the thread

    Read the article

  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

    Read the article

  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

    Read the article

  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

    Read the article

  • Opinions on collision detection objects with a moving scene

    - by Evan Teran
    So my question is simple, and I guess it boils down to how anal you want to be about collision detection. To keep things simple, lets assume we're talking about 2D sprites defined by a bounding box. In addition, let's assume that my sprite object has a function to detect collisions like this: S.collidesWith(other); Finally the scene is moving and "walls" in the scene can move, an object may not touch a wall. So a simple implementation might look like this (psuedo code): moveWalls(); moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } The problem with this is that if the sprite and wall move towards each other, depending on the circumstances (such as diagonal moment). They may pass though each other (unlikely but could happen). So I may do this instead. moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } This takes care of the passing through each other issue, but another rare issue comes up. If they are adjacent to each other (literally the next pixel) and both the wall and the sprite are moving left, then I will get an invalid collision since the wall moves, checks for collision (hit) then the sprite is moved. Which seems unfair. In addition, to that, the redundant collision detection feels very inefficient. I could give the player movement priority alleviating the first issue but it is still checking twice. moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } Am I simply over thinking this issue, should this just be chalked up to "it'll happen rare enough that no one will care"? Certainly looking at old sprite based games, I often find situations where the collision detection has subtle flaws, but I figure by now we can do better :-P. What are people's thoughts?

    Read the article

  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

    Read the article

  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Trappings MySQL Warnings on Calls Wrapped in Classes -- Python

    - by chernevik
    I can't get Python's try/else blocks to catch MySQL warnings when the execution statements are wrapped in classes. I have a class that has as a MySQL connection object as an attribute, a MySQL cursor object as another, and a method that run queries through that cursor object. The cursor is itself wrapped in a class. These seem to run queries properly, but the MySQL warnings they generate are not caught as exceptions in a try/else block. Why don't the try/else blocks catch the warnings? How would I revise the classes or method calls to catch the warnings? Also, I've looked through the prominent sources and can't find a discussion that helps me understand this. I'd appreciate any reference that explains this. Please see code below. Apologies for verbosity, I'm newbie. #!/usr/bin/python import MySQLdb import sys import copy sys.path.append('../../config') import credentials as c # local module with dbase connection credentials #============================================================================= # CLASSES #------------------------------------------------------------------------ class dbMySQL_Connection: def __init__(self, db_server, db_user, db_passwd): self.conn = MySQLdb.connect(db_server, db_user, db_passwd) def getCursor(self, dict_flag=True): self.dbMySQL_Cursor = dbMySQL_Cursor(self.conn, dict_flag) return self.dbMySQL_Cursor def runQuery(self, qryStr, dict_flag=True): qry_res = runQueryNoCursor(qryStr=qryStr, \ conn=self, \ dict_flag=dict_flag) return qry_res #------------------------------------------------------------------------ class dbMySQL_Cursor: def __init__(self, conn, dict_flag=True): if dict_flag: dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.cursor(MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) else: dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.cursor() self.dbMySQL_Cursor = dbMySQL_Cursor def closeCursor(self): self.dbMySQL_Cursor.close() #============================================================================= # QUERY FUNCTIONS #------------------------------------------------------------------------------ def runQueryNoCursor(qryStr, conn, dict_flag=True): dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.getCursor(dict_flag) qry_res =runQueryFnc(qryStr, dbMySQL_Cursor.dbMySQL_Cursor) dbMySQL_Cursor.closeCursor() return qry_res #------------------------------------------------------------------------------ def runQueryFnc(qryStr, dbMySQL_Cursor): qry_res = {} qry_res['rows'] = dbMySQL_Cursor.execute(qryStr) qry_res['result'] = copy.deepcopy(dbMySQL_Cursor.fetchall()) qry_res['messages'] = copy.deepcopy(dbMySQL_Cursor.messages) qry_res['query_str'] = qryStr return qry_res #============================================================================= # USAGES qry = 'DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS database_of_armaments' dbConn = dbMySQL_Connection(**c.creds) def dbConnRunQuery(): # Does not trap an exception; warning displayed to standard error. try: dbConn.runQuery(qry) except: print "dbConn.runQuery() caught an exception." def dbConnCursorExecute(): # Does not trap an exception; warning displayed to standard error. dbConn.getCursor() # try/except block does catches error without this try: dbConn.dbMySQL_Cursor.dbMySQL_Cursor.execute(qry) except Exception, e: print "dbConn.dbMySQL_Cursor.execute() caught an exception." print repr(e) def funcRunQueryNoCursor(): # Does not trap an exception; no warning displayed try: res = runQueryNoCursor(qry, dbConn) print 'Try worked. %s' % res except Exception, e: print "funcRunQueryNoCursor() caught an exception." print repr(e) #============================================================================= if __name__ == '__main__': print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- dbConnRunQuery()' dbConnRunQuery() print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- dbConnCursorExecute()' dbConnCursorExecute() print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- funcRunQueryNoCursor()' funcRunQueryNoCursor() print '\n'

    Read the article

  • How do compare dates when one of those are in string format in android

    - by Raj
    I am very much new to android so need some good help with a code example. I am getting a date in form of string from a server in the following format 2012-08-17 00:00:00 I want to compare this string with current date to find the difference between the dates in the form of year, months and days... I tried playing around it in the following code Date currentDate = new Date(System.currentTimeMillis()); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Current Date: " + currentDate); Date passDate = new SimpleDateFormat().parse(passDateString); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Pass Date: " + passDate); dateDifference = passDate.compareTo(currentDate); but it returned with following exception 04-15 12:08:29.101: V/@@@@@@@@@(1161): Current Date: Sun Apr 15 12:08:29 GMT+01:00 2012 04-15 12:08:29.101: W/System.err(1161): java.text.ParseException: Unparseable date: 2012-08-17 00:00:00 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.text.DateFormat.parse(DateFormat.java:645) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at org.apis.PassesListItemAdapter.getView(PassesListItemAdapter.java:77) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.obtainView(AbsListView.java:1315) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.makeAndAddView(ListView.java:1727) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillDown(ListView.java:652) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillFromTop(ListView.java:709) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.layoutChildren(ListView.java:1580) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.onLayout(AbsListView.java:1147) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.RelativeLayout.onLayout(RelativeLayout.java:909) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.performTraversals(ViewRoot.java:1049) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1744) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:144) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4937) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:868) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:626) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I am stuck... please help Raj

    Read the article

  • Flex/Air/AS3 Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

    - by Deyon
    I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

    Read the article

  • User Defined Exceptions with JMX

    - by Daniel
    I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

    Read the article

  • passing pipe to threads

    - by alaamh
    I see it's easy to open pipe between two process using fork, but how we can passing open pipe to threads. Assume we need to pass out of PROGRAM A to PROGRAM B "may by more than one thread", PROGRAM B send his output to PROGRAM C #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> struct targ_s { int fd_reader; }; void *thread1(void *arg) { struct targ_s *targ = (struct targ_s*) arg; int status, fd[2]; pid_t pid; pipe(fd); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { dup2(STDIN_FILENO, targ->fd_reader); close(fd[0]); dup2(fd[1], STDOUT_FILENO); close(fd[1]); execvp ("PROGRAM B", NULL); exit(1); } else { close(fd[1]); dup2(fd[0], STDIN_FILENO); close(fd[0]); execl("PROGRAM C", NULL); wait(&status); return NULL; } } int main(void) { FILE *fpipe; char *command = "PROGRAM A"; char buffer[1024]; if (!(fpipe = (FILE*) popen(command, "r"))) { perror("Problems with pipe"); exit(1); } char* outfile = "out.dat"; FILE* f = fopen (outfile, "wb"); int fd = fileno( f ); struct targ_s targ; targ.fd_reader = fd; pthread_t thid; if (pthread_create(&thid, NULL, thread1, &targ) != 0) { perror("pthread_create() error"); exit(1); } int len; while (read(fpipe, buffer, sizeof (buffer)) != 0) { len = strlen(buffer); write(fd, buffer, len); } pclose(fpipe); return (0); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799  | Next Page >