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  • How to obtain the first cluster of the directory's data in FAT using C# (or at least C++) and Win32A

    - by DarkWalker
    So I have a FAT drive, lets say H: and a directory 'work' (full path 'H:\work'). I need to get the NUMBER of the first cluster of that directory. The number of the first cluster is 2-bytes value, that is stored in the 26th and 27th bytes of the folder enty (wich is 32 bytes). Lets say I am doing it with file, NOT a directory. I can use code like this: static public string GetDirectoryPtr(string dir) { IntPtr ptr = CreateFile(@"H:\Work\dover.docx", GENERIC_READ, FILE_SHARE_READ | FILE_SHARE_WRITE, IntPtr.Zero, OPEN_EXISTING, 0,//FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, IntPtr.Zero); try { const uint bytesToRead = 2; byte[] readbuffer = new byte[bytesToRead]; if (ptr.ToInt32() == -1) return String.Format("Error: cannot open direcotory {0}", dir); if (SetFilePointer(ptr, 26, 0, 0) == -1) return String.Format("Error: unable to set file pointer on file {0}", ptr); uint read = 0; // real count of read bytes if (!ReadFile(ptr, readbuffer, bytesToRead, out read, 0)) return String.Format("cant read from file {0}. Error #{1}", ptr, Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); int result = readbuffer[0] + 16 * 16 * readbuffer[1]; return result.ToString();//ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(readbuffer); } finally { CloseHandle(ptr); } } And it will return some number, like 19 (quite real to me, this is the only file on the disk). But I DONT need a file, I need a folder. So I am puttin FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS param for CreateFile call... and dont know what to do next =) msdn is very clear on this issue http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa365258(v=VS.85).aspx It sounds to me like: "There is no way you can get a number of the folder's first cluster". The most desperate thing is that my tutor said smth like "You are going to obtain this or you wont pass this course". The true reason why he is so sure this is possible is because for 10 years (or may be more) he recieved the folder's first cluster number as a HASH of the folder's addres (and I was stupid enough to point this to him, so now I cant do it the same way) PS: This is the most spupid task I have ever had!!! This value is not really used anythere in program, it is only fcking pointless integer.

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • Ajax problem after deleting a div, then creating a new one

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I'm building a custom CMS where you can add and delete clients using ajax and jquery 1.4.2. My problem lies after I delete a div. The ajax is used to complete this and refresh automatically.. But when I go to create a new div (without a hard refresh) it puts it back in the slot of the div I just deleted. How can I get this to completely forget about the div i just deleted and place the new div in the next database table? link for reference: http://staging.sneakattackmedia.com/cms/ //Add New client // function AddNewClient() { dataToLoad = 'addClient=yes'; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, target: ('#clientssidebar'), async: false, success: function(html){ $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); //$('#clientssidebar').html(html); $('div#' + clientID).slideDown(800); $(this).click(function() { ExpandSidebar()});}, error: function() { alert('An error occured! 222');} });}; //Delete Client // function DeleteClient(){ var yes = confirm("Whoa there chief! Do you really want to DELETE this client?"); if (yes == 1) { dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&deleteClient=yes', $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, success: function(html) { alert('Client' + clientID + ' should have been deleted from the database.'); $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); $('div#' +clientID).slideUp(800); }, error: function() { alert('error'); }});};}; //Re Initialize // function reInitialize() { $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}) $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()});}; //Document Ready // $(document).ready(function(){ if ($('isCMS')){ editCMS = 1; $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}); $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {if (clickClient ==true) { $(this).css('background-image', 'url(/images/highlightclient.png)'); $(this).css('margin-left' , '30px'); }; $(this).click(function(){ $(this).css('background-image', ''); }); $('.uploadbutton').click(function(){UploadThings()}); }); } else ($('#clientscontainer')) { $('#editbutton').css('display', 'none'); }; }); Please help!!!

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • Backtracking infinite loop

    - by Greenhorn
    This is Exercise 28.1.2 from HtDP. I've successfully implemented the neighbors function and all test cases pass. (define Graph (list (list 'A (list 'B 'E)) (list 'B (list 'E 'F)) (list 'C (list 'D)) (list 'D empty) (list 'E (list 'C 'F)) (list 'F (list 'D 'G)) (list 'G empty))) (define (first-line n alist) (cond [(symbol=? (first alist) n) alist] [else empty])) ;; returns empty if node is not in graph (define (neighbors n g) (cond [(empty? g) empty] [(cons? (first g)) (cond [(symbol=? (first (first g)) n) (first-line n (first g))] [else (neighbors n (rest g))])])) ; test cases (equal? (neighbors 'A Graph) (list 'A (list 'B 'E))) (equal? (neighbors 'B Graph) (list 'B (list 'E 'F))) (equal? (neighbors 'C Graph) (list 'C (list 'D))) (equal? (neighbors 'D Graph) (list 'D empty)) (equal? (neighbors 'E Graph) (list 'E (list 'C 'F))) (equal? (neighbors 'F Graph) (list 'F (list 'D 'G))) (equal? (neighbors 'G Graph) (list 'G empty)) (equal? (neighbors 'H Graph) empty) The problem comes when I copy-paste the code from Figure 77 of the text. It is supposed to determine whether a destination node is reachable from an origin node. However it appears that the code goes into an infinite loop except for the most trivial case where the origin and destination nodes are the same. ;; find-route : node node graph -> (listof node) or false ;; to create a path from origination to destination in G ;; if there is no path, the function produces false (define (find-route origination destination G) (cond [(symbol=? origination destination) (list destination)] [else (local ((define possible-route (find-route/list (neighbors origination G) destination G))) (cond [(boolean? possible-route) false] [else (cons origination possible-route)]))])) ;; find-route/list : (listof node) node graph -> (listof node) or false ;; to create a path from some node on lo-Os to D ;; if there is no path, the function produces false (define (find-route/list lo-Os D G) (cond [(empty? lo-Os) false] [else (local ((define possible-route (find-route (first lo-Os) D G))) (cond [(boolean? possible-route) (find-route/list (rest lo-Os) D G)] [else possible-route]))])) Does the problem lie in my code? Thank you.

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  • Get UITableView to scroll to the selected UITextField and Avoid Being Hidden by Keyboard

    - by Lauren Quantrell
    I have a UITextField in a table view on a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController). If the table view is on a UITableViewController, the table will automatically scroll to the textField being edited to prevent it from being hidden by the keyboard. But on a UIViewController it does not. I have tried for a couple of days reading through multiple ways to try to accomplish this and I cannot get it to work. The closest thing that actually scrolls is: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { // SUPPOSEDLY Scroll to the current text field CGRect textFieldRect = [textField frame]; [self.wordsTableView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; } However this only scrolls the table to the topmost row. What seems like an easy task has been a couple of days of frustration. I am using the following to construct the tableView cells: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%d:%d", [indexPath indexAtPosition: 0], [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]]; UITableViewCell *cell = [aTableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; UITextField *theTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(180, 10, 130, 25)]; theTextField.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; theTextField.textColor = [UIColor redColor]; theTextField.text = [textFieldArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; theTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeDefault; theTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; theTextField.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:14]; theTextField.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; theTextField.autocorrectionType = UITextAutocorrectionTypeNo; theTextField.autocapitalizationType = UITextAutocapitalizationTypeNone; theTextField.clearsOnBeginEditing = NO; theTextField.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentLeft; //theTextField.tag = 0; theTextField.tag=indexPath.row; theTextField.delegate = self; theTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; [theTextField setEnabled: YES]; [cell addSubview:theTextField]; [theTextField release]; } return cell; } I suspect I can get the tableView to scroll properly if I can somehow pass the indexPath.row in the textFieldDidBeginEditing method? Any help is appreciated.

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  • How To Load Images into Custom UITableViewCell?

    - by Clifton Burt
    This problem is simple, but crucial and urgent. Here's what needs to be done: load 66px x 66px images into the table cells in the MainViewController table. each TableCell has a unique image. But how? Would we use cell.image?... cell.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"]; If so, where? Is an if/else statement required? Help? Here's the project code, hosted on Google Code, for easy and quick reference... http://www.google.com/codesearch/p?hl=en#Fcn2OtVUXnY/trunk/apple-sample-code/NavBar/NavBar/MyCustomCell.m&q=MyCustomCell%20lang:objectivec To load each cell's labels, MainViewController uses an NSDictionary and NSLocalizedString like so... //cell one menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; //cell two menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; ... // this is where MainViewController loads the cell content - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { MyCustomCell *cell = (MyCustomCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[MyCustomCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:kCellIdentifier] autorelease]; } ... // MyCustomCell.m adds the subviews - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)aRect reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)identifier { self = [super initWithFrame:aRect reuseIdentifier:identifier]; if (self) { // you can do this here specifically or at the table level for all cells self.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Create label views to contain the various pieces of text that make up the cell. // Add these as subviews. nameLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame nameLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; nameLabel.opaque = NO; nameLabel.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; nameLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; nameLabel.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18]; [self.contentView addSubview:nameLabel]; explainLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame explainLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; explainLabel.opaque = NO; explainLabel.textColor = [UIColor grayColor]; explainLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; explainLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:14]; [self.contentView addSubview:explainLabel]; //added to mark where the thumbnail image should go imageView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 66, 66)]; [self.contentView addSubview:imageView]; } return self; } HELP?

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

    - by iqessar
    Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

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  • Memory Leak with Swing Drag and Drop

    - by tom
    I have a JFrame that accepts top-level drops of files. However after a drop has occurred, references to the frame are held indefinitely inside some Swing internal classes. I believe that disposing of the frame should release all of its resources, so what am I doing wrong? Example import java.awt.datatransfer.DataFlavor; import java.io.File; import java.util.List; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.TransferHandler; public class DnDLeakTester extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { new DnDLeakTester(); //Prevent main from returning or the jvm will exit while (true) { try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } } } public DnDLeakTester() { super("I'm leaky"); add(new JLabel("Drop stuff here")); setTransferHandler(new TransferHandler() { @Override public boolean canImport(final TransferSupport support) { return (support.isDrop() && support .isDataFlavorSupported(DataFlavor.javaFileListFlavor)); } @Override public boolean importData(final TransferSupport support) { if (!canImport(support)) { return false; } try { final List<File> files = (List<File>) support.getTransferable().getTransferData(DataFlavor.javaFileListFlavor); for (final File f : files) { System.out.println(f.getName()); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return true; } }); setDefaultCloseOperation(DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); pack(); setVisible(true); } } To reproduce, run the code and drop some files on the frame. Close the frame so it's disposed of. To verify the leak I take a heap dump using JConsole and analyse it with the Eclipse Memory Analysis tool. It shows that sun.awt.AppContext is holding a reference to the frame through its hashmap. It looks like TransferSupport is at fault. What am I doing wrong? Should I be asking the DnD support code to clean itself up somehow? I'm running JDK 1.6 update 19.

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  • Multiplying matrices: error: expected primary-expression before 'struct'

    - by justin
    I am trying to write a program that is supposed to multiply matrices using threads. I am supposed to fill the matrices using random numbers in a thread. I am compiling in g++ and using PTHREADS. I have also created a struct to pass the data from my command line input to the thread so it can generate the matrix of random numbers. The sizes of the two matrices are also passed in the command line as well. I keep getting: main.cpp:7: error: expected primary-expression before 'struct' my code @ line 7 =: struct a{ int Arow; int Acol; int low; int high; }; My inpust are : Sizes of two matrices ( 4 arguments) high and low ranges in which o generate the random numbers between. Complete code: [headers] using namespace std; void *matrixACreate(struct *); void *status; int main(int argc, char * argv[]) { int Arow = atoi(argv[1]); // Matrix A int Acol = atoi(argv[2]); // WxX int Brow = atoi(argv[3]); // Matrix B int Bcol = atoi(argv[4]); // XxZ, int low = atoi(argv[5]); // Range low int high = atoi(argv[6]); struct a{ int Arow; // Matrix A int Acol; // WxX int low; // Range low int high; }; pthread_t matrixAthread; //pthread_t matrixBthread; pthread_t runner; int error, retValue; if (Acol != Brow) { cout << " This matrix cannot be multiplied. FAIL" << endl; return 0; } error = pthread_create(&matrixAthread, NULL, matrixACreate, struct *a); //error = pthread_create(&matrixAthread, NULL, matrixBCreate, sendB); retValue = pthread_join(matrixAthread, &status); //retValue = pthread_join(matrixBthread, &status); return 0; } void matrixACreate(struct * a) { struct a *data = (struct a *) malloc(sizeof(struct a)); data->Arow = Arow; data->Acol = Acol; data->low = low; data->high = high; int range = ((high - low) + 1); cout << Arow << endl<< Acol << endl; }// just trying to print to see if I am in the thread

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  • BizTalk - generating schema from Oracle stored proc with table variable argument

    - by Ron Savage
    I'm trying to set up a simple example project in BizTalk that gets changes made to a table in a SQL Server db and updates a copy of that table in an Oracle db. On the SQL Server side, I have a stored proc named GetItemChanges() that returns a variable number of records. On the Oracle side, I have a stored proc named Update_Item_Region_Table() designed to take a table of records as a parameter so that it can process all the records returned from GetItemChanges() in one call. It is defined like this: create or replace type itemrec is OBJECT ( UPC VARCHAR2(15), REGION VARCHAR2(5), LONG_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(50), POS_DESCRIPTION VARCHAR2(30), POS_DEPT VARCHAR2(5), ITEM_SIZE VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_UOM VARCHAR2(5), BRAND VARCHAR2(10), ITEM_STATUS VARCHAR2(5), TIME_STAMP VARCHAR2(20), COSTEDBYWEIGHT INTEGER ); create or replace type tbl_of_rec is table of itemrec; create or replace PROCEDURE Update_Item_Region_table ( Item_Data tbl_of_rec ) IS errcode integer; errmsg varchar2(4000); BEGIN for recIndex in 1 .. Item_Data.COUNT loop update FL_ITEM_REGION_TEST set Region = Item_Data(recIndex).Region, Long_description = Item_Data(recIndex).Long_description, Pos_Description = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_description, Pos_Dept = Item_Data(recIndex).Pos_dept, Item_Size = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Size, Item_Uom = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Uom, Brand = Item_Data(recIndex).Brand, Item_Status = Item_Data(recIndex).Item_Status, Timestamp = to_date(Item_Data(recIndex).Time_stamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd HH24:mi:ss'), CostedByWeight = Item_Data(recIndex).CostedByWeight where UPC = Item_Data(recIndex).UPC; log_message(Item_Data(recIndex).Region, '', 'Updated item ' || Item_Data(recIndex).UPC || '.'); end loop; EXCEPTION WHEN OTHERS THEN errcode := SQLCODE(); errmsg := SQLERRM(); log_message('CE', '', 'Error in Update_Item_Region_table(): Code [' || errcode || '], Msg [' || errmsg || '] ...'); END; In my BizTalk project I generate the schemas and binding information for both stored procedures. For the Oracle procedure, I specified a path for the GeneratedUserTypesAssemblyFilePath parameter to generate a DLL to contain the definition of the data types. In the Send Port on the server, I put the path to that Types DLL in the UserAssembliesLoadPath parameter. I created a map to translate the GetItemChanges() schema to the Update_Item_Region_Table() schema. When I run it the data is extracted and transformed fine but causes an exception trying to pass the data to the Oracle proc: *The adapter failed to transmit message going to send port "WcfSendPort_OracleDBBinding_HOST_DATA_Procedure_Custom" with URL "oracledb://dvotst/". It will be retransmitted after the retry interval specified for this Send Port. Details:"System.InvalidOperationException: Custom type mapping for 'HOST_DATA.TBL_OF_REC' is not specified or is invalid.* So it is apparently not getting the information about the custom data type TBL_OF_REC into the Types DLL. Any tips on how to make this work?

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  • Windows phone app xaml error

    - by thewarri0r9
    i am developing an app for windows phone 8 and i stuck on this code which visual studio showing invalid xaml. But Code compiles and works well. Invalid xaml Code is : <DataTemplate x:Key="AddrBookItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Margin="0,0,0,2" Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Width="80" Orientation="Horizontal" Height="80"> <Ellipse Margin="0" Height="70" Width="70" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="{x:Null}"> <Ellipse.Fill> <ImageBrush Stretch="Fill" ImageSource="{Binding imageBytes, Converter={StaticResource BytesToImageConverter}}"/> </Ellipse.Fill> </Ellipse> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Height="80" Margin="0" Width="380" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding FirstName}" FontFamily="Segoe WP Semibold" FontSize="30" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="5,0,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Phone}" FontFamily="Segoe WP" FontSize="24" Foreground="{StaticResource PhoneTextBoxReadOnlyBrush}" Margin="5,0,0,-12" Width="320" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> I am serializing image by converting it to byte, it works fine but if image is null it gives an error. code behind: if (e.Results != null) { List<AddressBook> source = new List<AddressBook>(); foreach (var result in e.Results) { if (result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault() != null && result.GetPicture()!=null) { BitmapImage bmp = new BitmapImage(); BitmapImage nullbmp = new BitmapImage(); if (result.GetPicture() == null) { bmp.UriSource = new Uri(@"/Images/ci2.png", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); } else { bmp.SetSource(result.GetPicture()); } listobj.Add(new AddressBook() { FirstName = result.DisplayName != null ? result.DisplayName : "", imageBytes = AddressBook.imageConvert(bmp), EmailAddress = "", LastName = "", Phone = result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault() != null ? result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault().PhoneNumber : "", }); } } Above code show an error "object reference not set to instance of an object". I want to show the default image (or color) in ellipse when image is null.What should I do?

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • Route Angular to New Controller after Login

    - by MizAkita
    I'm kind of stuck on how to route my angular app to a new controller after login. I have a simple app, that uses 'loginservice'... after logging in, it then routes to /home which has a different template from the index.html(login page). I want to use /home as the route that displays the partial views of my flightforms controllers. What is the best way to configure my routes so that after login, /home is the default and the routes are called into that particular templates view. Seems easy but I keep getting the /login page when i click on a link which is suppose to pass the partial view into the default.html template: var app= angular.module('myApp', ['ngRoute']); app.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/login', { templateUrl: 'partials/login.html', controller: 'loginCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); }]); flightforms.config(['$routeProvider', function($routeProvider){ //sub pages $routeProvider.when('/home', { templateUrl: 'partials/default.html', controller: 'defaultCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/status', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/home.html', controller: 'statusCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/observer-ao', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/aobsrv.html', controller: 'obsvaoCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/dispatch', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/disp.html', controller: 'dispatchCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/fieldmgr', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/fieldopmgr.html', controller: 'fieldmgrCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/obs-backoffice', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/obsbkoff.html', controller: 'obsbkoffCtrl' }); $routeProvider.when('/add-user', { templateUrl: 'partials/subpages/users.html', controller: 'userCtrl' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/status' }); }]); app.run(function($rootScope, $location, loginService) { var routespermission=['/home']; //route that require login $rootScope.$on('$routeChangeStart', function(){ if( routespermission.indexOf($location.path()) !=-1) { var connected=loginService.islogged(); connected.then(function(msg) { if(!msg.data) $location.path('/login'); }); } }); }); and my controllers are simple. Here's a sample of what they look like: var flightformsControllers = angular.module('flightformsController', []); flightforms.controller('fieldmgrCtrl', ['$scope','$http','loginService', function($scope,loginService) { $scope.txt='You are logged in'; $scope.logout=function(){ loginService.logout(); } }]); Any ideas on how to get my partials to display in the /home default.html template would be appreciated.

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  • passing pipe to threads

    - by alaamh
    I see it's easy to open pipe between two process using fork, but how we can passing open pipe to threads. Assume we need to pass out of PROGRAM A to PROGRAM B "may by more than one thread", PROGRAM B send his output to PROGRAM C #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> struct targ_s { int fd_reader; }; void *thread1(void *arg) { struct targ_s *targ = (struct targ_s*) arg; int status, fd[2]; pid_t pid; pipe(fd); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { dup2(STDIN_FILENO, targ->fd_reader); close(fd[0]); dup2(fd[1], STDOUT_FILENO); close(fd[1]); execvp ("PROGRAM B", NULL); exit(1); } else { close(fd[1]); dup2(fd[0], STDIN_FILENO); close(fd[0]); execl("PROGRAM C", NULL); wait(&status); return NULL; } } int main(void) { FILE *fpipe; char *command = "PROGRAM A"; char buffer[1024]; if (!(fpipe = (FILE*) popen(command, "r"))) { perror("Problems with pipe"); exit(1); } char* outfile = "out.dat"; FILE* f = fopen (outfile, "wb"); int fd = fileno( f ); struct targ_s targ; targ.fd_reader = fd; pthread_t thid; if (pthread_create(&thid, NULL, thread1, &targ) != 0) { perror("pthread_create() error"); exit(1); } int len; while (read(fpipe, buffer, sizeof (buffer)) != 0) { len = strlen(buffer); write(fd, buffer, len); } pclose(fpipe); return (0); }

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  • jquery, manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

    - by Cody
    I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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  • LINQ Except operator and object equality

    - by Abhijeet Patel
    Here is an interesting issue I noticed when using the Except Operator: I have list of users from which I want to exclude some users: The list of users is coming from an XML file: The code goes like this: interface IUser { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class User: IUser { #region IUser Members public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } #endregion public override string ToString() { return ID + ":" +Name; } public static IEnumerable<IUser> GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable<IUser> users) { IEnumerable<IUser> localList = new List<User> { new User{ ID=4, Name="James"}, new User{ ID=5, Name="Tom"} }.OfType<IUser>(); var matches = from u in users join lu in localList on u.ID equals lu.ID select u; return matches; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { XDocument doc = XDocument.Load("Users.xml"); IEnumerable<IUser> users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u => new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType<IUser>(); //still a query, objects have not been materialized var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes should contain 6 users but here it contains 8 users } } When I call User.GetMatchingUsers(users) I get 2 matches as expected. The issue is that when I call users.Except(matches) The matching users are not being excluded at all! I am expecting 6 users ut "excludes" contains all 8 users instead. Since all I'm doing in GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable users) is taking the IEnumerable and just returning the IUsers whose ID's match( 2 IUsers in this case), my understanding is that by default "Except" will use reference equality for comparing the objects to be excluded. Is this not how "Except" behaves? What is even more interesting is that if I materialize the objects using .ToList() and then get the matching users, and call "Except", everything works as expected! Like so: IEnumerable users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u = new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType().ToList(); //explicity materializing all objects by calling ToList() var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes now contains 6 users as expected I don't see why I should need to materialize objects for calling "Except" given that its defined on IEnumerable? Any suggesstions / insights would be much appreciated.

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  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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  • OpenGL ES functions not accepting values originating outside of it's view

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I've been unable to figure this out on my own. I currently have an Open GLES setup where a view controller both updates a game world (with a dt), fetches the data I need to render, passes it off to an EAGLView through two structures (built of Apple's ES1Renderer), and draws the scene. Whenever a value originates outside of the Open GL view, it can't be used to either translate objects using glTranslatef, or set up the scene using glOrthof. If I assign a new value to something, it will work - even if it is the exact same number. The two structures I have each contain a variety of floating-point numbers and booleans, along with two arrays. I can log the values from within my renderer - they make it there - but I receive errors from OpenGL if I try to do anything with them. No crashes result, but the glOrthof call doesn't work if I don't set the camera values to anything different. Code used to set up scene: [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); //clears the color buffer bit glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); //sets up the scene w/ ortho projection glViewport(0, 0, 320, 480); glLoadIdentity(); glOrthof(320, 0, dynamicData.cam_x2, dynamicData.cam_x1, 1.0, -1.0); glClearColor(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); /*error checking code here*/ "dynamicData" (which is replaced every frame) is created within my game simulation. From within my controller, I call a method (w/in my simulation) that returns it, and pass the result on to the EAGLView, which passes it on to the renderer. I haven't been able to come up with a better solution for this - suggestions in this regard would be greatly appreciated as well. Also, this function doesn't work as well (values originate in the same place): glTranslatef(dynamicData.ship_x, dynamicData.ship_y, 0.0); Thanks in advance. Additional Definitions: Structure (declared in a separate header): typedef struct { float ship_x, ship_y; float cam_x1, cam_x2; } dynamicRenderData; Render data getter (and builder) (every frame) - (dynamicData)getDynRenderData { //d_rd is an ivar, zeroed on initialization d_rd.ship_x = mainShip.position.x; d_rd.ship_y = mainShip.position.y; d_rd.cam_x1 = d_rd.ship_x - 30.0f; d_rd.cam_x2 = d_rd.cam_x1 + 480.0f; return d_rd; } Zeroed at start. (d_rd.ship_x = 0;, etc…) Setting up the view. Prototype (GLView): - (void)draw: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData Prototype (Renderer): - (void)drawView: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData How it's called w/in the controller: //controller [glview draw: [world getDynRenderData]]; //glview (within draw) [renderer drawView: dynamicData];

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • How do compare dates when one of those are in string format in android

    - by Raj
    I am very much new to android so need some good help with a code example. I am getting a date in form of string from a server in the following format 2012-08-17 00:00:00 I want to compare this string with current date to find the difference between the dates in the form of year, months and days... I tried playing around it in the following code Date currentDate = new Date(System.currentTimeMillis()); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Current Date: " + currentDate); Date passDate = new SimpleDateFormat().parse(passDateString); Log.v("@@@@@@@@@","Pass Date: " + passDate); dateDifference = passDate.compareTo(currentDate); but it returned with following exception 04-15 12:08:29.101: V/@@@@@@@@@(1161): Current Date: Sun Apr 15 12:08:29 GMT+01:00 2012 04-15 12:08:29.101: W/System.err(1161): java.text.ParseException: Unparseable date: 2012-08-17 00:00:00 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.text.DateFormat.parse(DateFormat.java:645) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at org.apis.PassesListItemAdapter.getView(PassesListItemAdapter.java:77) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.obtainView(AbsListView.java:1315) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.makeAndAddView(ListView.java:1727) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillDown(ListView.java:652) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.fillFromTop(ListView.java:709) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.ListView.layoutChildren(ListView.java:1580) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.AbsListView.onLayout(AbsListView.java:1147) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.RelativeLayout.onLayout(RelativeLayout.java:909) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.widget.FrameLayout.onLayout(FrameLayout.java:333) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.View.layout(View.java:7034) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.performTraversals(ViewRoot.java:1049) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1744) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:144) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4937) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:868) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:626) 04-15 12:08:29.111: W/System.err(1161): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I am stuck... please help Raj

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  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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