Search Results

Search found 15376 results on 616 pages for 'once'.

Page 85/616 | < Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >

• Should I go along with my choice of web hosting company or still search?

  - by Devner

  Hi all, I have been searching for a good website hosting company that can offer me all the services that I need for hosting my PHP & MySQL based website. Now this is a community based website and users will be able to upload pictures, etc. The hosting company that I have in mind, currently lets me do everything... let me use mail(), supports CRON jobs, etc. Of course they are charging about $6/month. Now the only problem with this company is that they have a limit of 50,000 files that can exist within the hosting account at any time. This kind of contradicts their frontpage ad of "UNLIMITED SPACE" on their website. Apart from this, I know of no other reason why I should not go with this hosting company. But my issue is that 50,000 file limit is what I cannot live with, once the users increase in significant number and the files they upload, exceed 50,000 in number. Now since this is a dynamic website and also includes sensitive issues like payments, etc. I am not sure if I should go ahead with this company as I am just starting out and then later switch over to a better hosting company which does not limit me with 50,000 files. If I need to switch over once I host with this company, I will need to take backups of all the files located in my account (jpg, zip, etc.), then upload them to the new host. I am not aware of any tools that can help me in this process. Can you please mention if you know any? I can go ahead with the other companies right now, but their cost is double/triple of the current price and they all sport less features than my current choice. If I pay more, then they are ready to accommodate my higher demands. Unfortunately, the company that I am willing to go with now, does NOT have any other higher/better plans that I can switch to. So that's the really really bad part. So my question(s): Since I am starting out with my website and since the scope of users initially is going to be less/small, should I go ahead with the current choice and then once the demand increases, switch over to a better provider? If yes, how can I transfer my database, especially the jpg files, etc. to the new provider? I don't even know the tools required to backup and restore to another host. (I don't like this idea but still..) Should I go ahead and pay more right now and go with better providers (without knowing if the website is going to do really that well) just for saving myself the trouble of having to take a backup of the 50,000 files and upload to a new host from an old host and just start paying double/triple the price without even knowing if I would receive back the returns as I expected? Backup and Restore in such a bulky numbers is something that I have never done before and hence I am stuck here trying to decide what to do. The price per month is also a considerable factor in my decision. All these web hosting companies say one common thing: It is customers responsibility to backup and restore data and they are not liable for any loss. So no matter what hosting company that I would like to go with, they ask me to take backup via FTP so that I can restore them whenever I want (& it seems to be safer to have the files locally with me). Some are providing tools for backup and some are not and I am not sure how much their backup tools can be trusted considering the disclaimers they have. I have never backed-up and restored 50,000 files from one web host to another, so please, all you experienced people out there, leave your comments and let me know your suggestions so that I can decide. I have spent 2 days fighting with myself trying to decide what to do and finally concluded that this is a double-edged sword and I can't arrive at a satisfactory final decision without involving others suggestions. I believe that someone must be out there who may have had such troublesome decision to make. So all your suggestions to help me make my decision are appreciated. Thank you all.

  Read the article

• How to use pthread_atfork() and pthread_once() to reinitialize mutexes in child processes

  - by Blair Zajac

  We have a C++ shared library that uses ZeroC's Ice library for RPC and unless we shut down Ice's runtime, we've observed child processes hanging on random mutexes. The Ice runtime starts threads, has many internal mutexes and keeps open file descriptors to servers. Additionally, we have a few of mutexes of our own to protect our internal state. Our shared library is used by hundreds of internal applications so we don't have control over when the process calls fork(), so we need a way to safely shutdown Ice and lock our mutexes while the process forks. Reading the POSIX standard on pthread_atfork() on handling mutexes and internal state: Alternatively, some libraries might have been able to supply just a child routine that reinitializes the mutexes in the library and all associated states to some known value (for example, what it was when the image was originally executed). This approach is not possible, though, because implementations are allowed to fail *_init() and *_destroy() calls for mutexes and locks if the mutex or lock is still locked. In this case, the child routine is not able to reinitialize the mutexes and locks. On Linux, the this test C program returns EPERM from pthread_mutex_unlock() in the child pthread_atfork() handler. Linux requires adding _NP to the PTHREAD_MUTEX_ERRORCHECK macro for it to compile. This program is linked from this good thread. Given that it's technically not safe or legal to unlock or destroy a mutex in the child, I'm thinking it's better to have pointers to mutexes and then have the child make new pthread_mutex_t on the heap and leave the parent's mutexes alone, thereby having a small memory leak. The only issue is how to reinitialize the state of the library and I'm thinking of reseting a pthread_once_t. Maybe because POSIX has an initializer for pthread_once_t that it can be reset to its initial state. #include <pthread.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> static pthread_once_t once_control = PTHREAD_ONCE_INIT; static pthread_mutex_t *mutex_ptr = 0; static void setup_new_mutex() { mutex_ptr = malloc(sizeof(*mutex_ptr)); pthread_mutex_init(mutex_ptr, 0); } static void prepare() { pthread_mutex_lock(mutex_ptr); } static void parent() { pthread_mutex_unlock(mutex_ptr); } static void child() { // Reset the once control. pthread_once_t once = PTHREAD_ONCE_INIT; memcpy(&once_control, &once, sizeof(once_control)); setup_new_mutex(); } static void init() { setup_new_mutex(); pthread_atfork(&prepare, &parent, &child); } int my_library_call(int arg) { pthread_once(&once_control, &init); pthread_mutex_lock(mutex_ptr); // Do something here that requires the lock. int result = 2*arg; pthread_mutex_unlock(mutex_ptr); return result; } In the above sample in the child() I only reset the pthread_once_t by making a copy of a fresh pthread_once_t initialized with PTHREAD_ONCE_INIT. A new pthread_mutex_t is only created when the library function is invoked in the child process. This is hacky but maybe the best way of dealing with this skirting the standards. If the pthread_once_t contains a mutex then the system must have a way of initializing it from its PTHREAD_ONCE_INIT state. If it contains a pointer to a mutex allocated on the heap than it'll be forced to allocate a new one and set the address in the pthread_once_t. I'm hoping it doesn't use the address of the pthread_once_t for anything special which would defeat this. Searching comp.programming.threads group for pthread_atfork() shows a lot of good discussion and how little the POSIX standards really provides to solve this problem. There's also the issue that one should only call async-signal-safe functions from pthread_atfork() handlers, and it appears the most important one is the child handler, where only a memcpy() is done. Does this work? Is there a better way of dealing with the requirements of our shared library?

  Read the article

• About global.asax and the events there

  - by eski

  So what i'm trying to understand is the whole global.asax events. I doing a simple counter that records website visits. I am using MSSQL. Basicly i have two ints. totalNumberOfUsers - The total visist from begining. currentNumberOfUsers - Total of users viewing the site at the moment. So the way i understand global.asax events is that every time someone comes to the site "Session_Start" is fired once. So once per user. "Application_Start" is fired only once the first time someone comes to the site. Going with this i have my global.asax file here. <script runat="server"> string connectionstring = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs on application startup Application.Lock(); Application["currentNumberOfUsers"] = 0; Application.UnLock(); string sql = "Select c_hit from v_counter where (id=1)"; SqlConnection connect = new SqlConnection(connectionstring); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, connect); cmd.Connection.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); SqlDataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { Application.Lock(); Application["totalNumberOfUsers"] = reader.GetInt32(0); Application.UnLock(); } reader.Close(); cmd.Connection.Close(); } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs on application shutdown } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when a new session is started Application.Lock(); Application["totalNumberOfUsers"] = (int)Application["totalNumberOfUsers"] + 1; Application["currentNumberOfUsers"] = (int)Application["currentNumberOfUsers"] + 1; Application.UnLock(); string sql = "UPDATE v_counter SET c_hit = @hit WHERE c_type = 'totalNumberOfUsers'"; SqlConnection connect = new SqlConnection(connectionstring); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, connect); SqlParameter hit = new SqlParameter("@hit", SqlDbType.Int); hit.Value = Application["totalNumberOfUsers"]; cmd.Parameters.Add(hit); cmd.Connection.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); cmd.Connection.Close(); } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when a session ends. // Note: The Session_End event is raised only when the sessionstate mode // is set to InProc in the Web.config file. If session mode is set to StateServer // or SQLServer, the event is not raised. Application.Lock(); Application["currentNumberOfUsers"] = (int)Application["currentNumberOfUsers"] - 1; Application.UnLock(); } </script> In the page_load i have this protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { l_current.Text = Application["currentNumberOfUsers"].ToString(); l_total.Text = Application["totalNumberOfUsers"].ToString(); } So if i understand this right, every time someone comes to the site both the currentNumberOfUsers and totalNumberOfUsers are incremented with 1. But when the session is over the currentNumberOfUsers is decremented with 1. If i go to the site with 3 types of browsers with the same computer i should have 3 in hits on both counters. Doing this again after hours i should have 3 in current and 6 in total, right ? The way its working right now is the current goes up to 2 and the total is incremented on every postback on IE and Chrome but not on firefox. And one last thing, is this the same thing ? Application["value"] = 0; value = Application["value"] //OR Application.Set("Value", 0); Value = Application.Get("Value");

  Read the article

• How to handle recurring dates (dates only) in .NET?

  - by Wayne M

  I am trying to figure out a good way to handle recurring events in .NET, specifically for an ASP.NET MVC application. The idea is that a user can create an event and specify that the event can occur repeatedly after a specific interval (e.g. "every two weeks", "once a month" and so on). What would be the best way to tackle this? My brainstorming right now is to have two tables: Job and RecurringJob. Job is the "master" record and has the description of the job as well a key to what customer it's for, while RecurringJob links back to Job and has additional info on what the occurrence frequency is (e.g. 1 for "once a month") as well as the timespan (e.g. "Weekly", "Monthly"). The issue is how to determine and set the next occurrence of the job since this will have to be something that's done regularly. I've seen two trains of thought with this: This logic should either be stored in a database column and periodically updated, or calculated on the fly in the code. Any thoughts or suggestions on tackling this? Edit: this is for a subscription based web app I'm creating to let service businesses schedule their common recurring jobs easily and track their customers. So a typical use might be to create a "Cut lawn" job for Mr Smith that occurs every month The exact date isn't important - it's the ability for the customer to see that Mr Smith gets his lawn cut every month and followup with him about it. Let me rephrase the above to better convey my idea. A sample use case for the application might be as follows: User pulls up the customer record for John Smith and clicks the Add Job link. The user fills out the form to create a job with a name of "Cut lawn", a start date of 11/15/2009, and selects a checkbox indicating that this job continually occurs. The user is presented with a secondary screen asking for the job frequency. The user indicates (haven't decided how at this point - let's assume select lists) that the job occurs once a month. User clicks save. Now, when the user views the record for John Smith, they can see that he has a job, "Cut lawn", that occurs every month starting from 11/15/2009. On the main dashboard when it's one week prior to the assumed start date, the user sees the job displayed with an indicator such as "12/15/2009 - Cut lawn (John Smith)". A week before the due date someone from the company calls him up to schedule and he says he's going to be out of town until 1/1/2010, so he wants his appointment rescheduled for that date. Our user can change the date for the job to be 1/1/2010, and now the recurrence will start one month from that date (e.g. next time will be 2/1/2010). The idea behind this is that the app is targeting businesses like lawn care, plumbers, carpet cleaners and the like where the exact date isn't as important (because it can and will change as people are busy), the key thing is to give the business an indicator that Mr. Smith's monthly service is coming up, and someone should give him a call to determine when exactly it can be scheduled for. In effect give these businesses a way to track repeat business and know when it's time to followup with a customer.

  Read the article

• Why does @PostConstruct callback fire every time even though bean is @ViewScoped? JSF

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I am using datatable on page and using binding attribute to bind it to my backing bean. This is my code :- <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:p="http://primefaces.prime.com.tr/ui"> <h:head> <title>Facelet Title</title> </h:head> <h:body> <h:form prependId="false"> <h:dataTable var="item" value="#{testBean.stringCollection}" binding="#{testBean.dataTable}"> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{item}"/> </h:column> <h:column> <h:commandButton value="Click" actionListener="#{testBean.action}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:form> </h:body> </html> This is my bean :- package managedBeans; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.annotation.PostConstruct; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.ViewScoped; import javax.faces.component.html.HtmlDataTable; @ManagedBean(name="testBean") @ViewScoped public class testBean implements Serializable { private List<String> stringCollection; public List<String> getStringCollection() { return stringCollection; } public void setStringCollection(List<String> stringCollection) { this.stringCollection = stringCollection; } private HtmlDataTable dataTable; public HtmlDataTable getDataTable() { return dataTable; } public void setDataTable(HtmlDataTable dataTable) { this.dataTable = dataTable; } @PostConstruct public void init(){ System.out.println("Post Construct fired!!"); stringCollection = new ArrayList<String>(); stringCollection.add("a"); stringCollection.add("b"); stringCollection.add("c"); } public void action(){ System.out.println("Clicked!!"); } } Please tell me why is the @PostConstruct firing each and every time i click on button? It should fire only once as long as i am on same page beacause my bean is @ViewScoped. Further, if i remove the binding attribute then everything works fine and @PostConstruct callback fires only once. Then why every time when i use binding attribute? I need binding attribute and want to perform initialisation tasks like fetching data from webservice, etc only once. What should i do? Where should i write my initialisation task?

  Read the article

• Java code optimization leads to numerical inaccuracies and errors

  - by rano

  I'm trying to implement a version of the Fuzzy C-Means algorithm in Java and I'm trying to do some optimization by computing just once everything that can be computed just once. This is an iterative algorithm and regarding the updating of a matrix, the clusters x pixels membership matrix U, this is the update rule I want to optimize: where the x are the element of a matrix X (pixels x features) and v belongs to the matrix V (clusters x features). And m is a parameter that ranges from 1.1 to infinity. The distance used is the euclidean norm. If I had to implement this formula in a banal way I'd do: for(int i = 0; i < X.length; i++) { int count = 0; for(int j = 0; j < V.length; j++) { double num = D[i][j]; double sumTerms = 0; for(int k = 0; k < V.length; k++) { double thisDistance = D[i][k]; sumTerms += Math.pow(num / thisDistance, (1.0 / (m - 1.0))); } U[i][j] = (float) (1f / sumTerms); } } In this way some optimization is already done, I precomputed all the possible squared distances between X and V and stored them in a matrix D but that is not enough, since I'm cycling througn the elements of V two times resulting in two nested loops. Looking at the formula the numerator of the fraction is independent of the sum so I can compute numerator and denominator independently and the denominator can be computed just once for each pixel. So I came to a solution like this: int nClusters = V.length; double exp = (1.0 / (m - 1.0)); for(int i = 0; i < X.length; i++) { int count = 0; for(int j = 0; j < nClusters; j++) { double distance = D[i][j]; double denominator = D[i][nClusters]; double numerator = Math.pow(distance, exp); U[i][j] = (float) (1f / (numerator * denominator)); } } Where I precomputed the denominator into an additional column of the matrix D while I was computing the distances: for (int i = 0; i < X.length; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < V.length; j++) { double sum = 0; for (int k = 0; k < nDims; k++) { final double d = X[i][k] - V[j][k]; sum += d * d; } D[i][j] = sum; D[i][B.length] += Math.pow(1 / D[i][j], exp); } } By doing so I encounter numerical differences between the 'banal' computation and the second one that leads to different numerical value in U (not in the first iterates but soon enough). I guess that the problem is that exponentiate very small numbers to high values (the elements of U can range from 0.0 to 1.0 and exp , for m = 1.1, is 10) leads to ver y small values, whereas by dividing the numerator and the denominator and THEN exponentiating the result seems to be better numerically. The problem is it involves much more operations. Am I doing something wrong? Is there a possible solution to get both the code optimized and numerically stable? Any suggestion or criticism will be appreciated.

  Read the article

• OpenCV Mat creation memory leak

  - by Royi Freifeld

  My memory is getting full fairly quick once using the next piece of code. Valgrind shows a memory leak, but everything is allocated on stack and (supposed to be) freed once the function ends. void mult_run_time(int rows, int cols) { Mat matrix(rows,cols,CV_32SC1); Mat row_vec(cols,1,CV_32SC1); /* initialize vector and matrix */ for (int col = 0; col < cols; ++col) { for (int row = 0; row < rows; ++row) { matrix.at<unsigned long>(row,col) = rand() % ULONG_MAX; } row_vec.at<unsigned long>(1,col) = rand() % ULONG_MAX; } /* end initialization of vector and matrix*/ matrix*row_vec; } int main() { for (int row = 0; row < 20; ++row) { for (int col = 0; col < 20; ++col) { mult_run_time(row,col); } } return 0; } Valgrind shows that there is a memory leak in line Mat row_vec(cols,1,CV_32CS1): ==9201== 24,320 bytes in 380 blocks are definitely lost in loss record 50 of 50 ==9201== at 0x4026864: malloc (vg_replace_malloc.c:236) ==9201== by 0x40C0A8B: cv::fastMalloc(unsigned int) (in /usr/local/lib/libopencv_core.so.2.3.1) ==9201== by 0x41914E3: cv::Mat::create(int, int const*, int) (in /usr/local/lib/libopencv_core.so.2.3.1) ==9201== by 0x8048BE4: cv::Mat::create(int, int, int) (mat.hpp:368) ==9201== by 0x8048B2A: cv::Mat::Mat(int, int, int) (mat.hpp:68) ==9201== by 0x80488B0: mult_run_time(int, int) (mat_by_vec_mult.cpp:26) ==9201== by 0x80489F5: main (mat_by_vec_mult.cpp:59) Is it a known bug in OpenCV or am I missing something?

  Read the article

• Rebinding events in jQuery after Ajax update (updatepanel)

  - by Hojou

  I have several input and option elements on my page, each (well almost) have an event attached to update some text on the page once they change. I use jQuery which is really really cool :) I also use Microsofts Ajax framework, utilizing the UpdatePanel. The reason why I do that is that certain elements are created on the page based on some server-side logic. I don't really want to explain why I use the UpdatePanel - even if it could (it can with quite some effort) be rewritten to use only jQuery I still want that UpdatePanel. You probably guessed it - once I have a postback on the UpdatePanel the jQuery events stops working. I actually was expecting this, since the "postback" is not really a new postback so my code in document.ready that binds the events won't be fired again. I also confirmed my suspicion by reading up on it in the jQuery help libraries. Anyway I'm left with the problem of rebinding my controls after the UpdatePanel is done updating the DOM. I preferably need a solution that does not require adding more .js files (jQuery plug-ins) to the page but something as simple as being able to catch the UpdatePanel's 'afterupdating' where I can just call my method to rebind all the form elements.

  Read the article

• Limiting Number of Characters in a ContentEditable div

  - by Bill Dami

  Hi guys, I am using contenteditable div elements in my web application and I am trying to come up with a solution to limit the amount of characters allowed in the area, and once the limit is hit, attempting to enter characters simply does nothing. This is what I have so far: var content_id = 'editable_div'; //binding keyup/down events on the contenteditable div $('#'+content_id).keyup(function(){ check_charcount(content_id, max); }); $('#'+content_id).keydown(function(){ check_charcount(content_id, max); }); function check_charcount(content_id, max) { if($('#'+content_id).text().length > max) { $('#'+content_id).text($('#'+content_id).text().substring(0, max)); } } This DOES limit the number of characters to the number specified by 'max', however once the area's text is set by the jquery .text() function the cursor resets itself to the beginning of the area. So if the user keeps on typing, the newly entered characters will be inserted at the beginning of the text and the last character of the text will be removed. So really, I just need some way to keep the cursor at the end of the contenteditable area's text.

  Read the article

• how to tackle this combinatorial algorithm problem

  - by Andrew Bullock

  I have N people who must each take T exams. Each exam takes "some" time, e.g. 30 min (no such thing as finishing early). Exams must be performed in front of an examiner. I need to schedule each person to take each exam in front of an examiner within an overall time period, using the minimum number of examiners for the minimum amount of time (i.e. no examiners idle) There are the following restrictions: No person can be in 2 places at once each person must take each exam once noone should be examined by the same examiner twice I realise that an optimal solution is probably NP-Complete, and that I'm probably best off using a genetic algorithm to obtain a best estimate (similar to this? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/184195/seating-plan-software-recommendations-does-such-a-beast-even-exist). I'm comfortable with how genetic algorithms work, what i'm struggling with is how to model the problem programatically such that i CAN manipulate the parameters genetically.. If each exam took the same amount of time, then i'd divide the time period up into these lengths, and simply create a matrix of time slots vs examiners and drop the candidates in. However because the times of each test are not necessarily the same, i'm a bit lost on how to approach this. currently im doing this: make a list of all "tests" which need to take place, between every candidate and exam start with as many examiners as there are tests repeatedly loop over all examiners, for each one: find an unscheduled test which is eligible for the examiner (based on the restrictions) continue until all tests that can be scheduled, are if there are any unscheduled tests, increment the number of examiners and start again. i'm looking for better suggestions on how to approach this, as it feels rather crude currently.

  Read the article

• EF 4, POCO and AddOrUpdate

  - by Eric J.

  I'm trying to create a method on an EF 4 POCO repository called AddOrUpdate. The idea is that the business layer can pass in a POCO object and the persistence framework will add the object if it is new (not yet in the database), else will update the database (once SaveChanges() is called) with the new value. This is similar to some other questions I have asked about EF, but I'm only about 80% there in understanding this so please forgive partial duplication. The part I'm missing is how to update the object graph in my ObjectContext/associated ObjectSet for the passed-in business object once I have determined that the business object indeed already exists in the database (and now has been loaded thanks to TryGetObjectByKey). ApplyCurrentValues sounds sort of like what I want, but it only copies scalar values and doesn't seem intended to update the object graph in the ObjectContext/ObjectSet. Because of my particular use case I don't care about concurrency right now. public void AddOrUpdate(BO biz) { object obj; EntityKey ek = Ctx.CreateEntityKey(mySetName, biz); bool found = Ctx.TryGetObjectByKey(ek, out obj); if (found) { // How do I do what this method name implies? Biz is a parent with children. mySet.TellTheSetToUpdateThisObject(biz); } else { mySet.AddObject(biz); } Ctx.DetectChanges(); }

  Read the article

• SSRS 2008 and SSAS 2008 transport error

  - by dan english

  I am testing an upgrade to SSAS 2008 and verifying existing reports working properly. I am able to get some SSRS reports that are using SSAS as a datasource to run without any issues. They are simple and only have a single dataset. The reports that I am unable to get to work correctly against SSAS 2008 have multiple datasets and have a fitler setup with a data range setup as a parameter. As soon as I setup that filter as a parameter and deploy them the report returns a "The connection either timed out or was lost. Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host" message. The funny thing is that the report works fine when I run it locally in BIDS and it works fine once deployed if I point it to a SSAS 2005 server. Once I point it to the SSAS 2008 server it fails. I can get other reports to work fine, but not the ones with this type of a filter setup. I can see that the start and end date parameter MDX statements get run in the trace, but that is it. After those run then we receive the transport connection message. Another funny thing is that in the production environment the reports are working fine, but that has SSRS 2005 and SSAS 2008. Does this make sense? What could be causing this? I have tried setting the single transaction level on the datasource too, but that does not seem to make a difference.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC2 Access-Control: How to do authorization dynamically?

  - by Shaharyar

  We're currently rewriting our organizations ASP.NET MVC application which has been written twice already. (Once MVC1, once MVC2). (Thank god it wasn't production ready and too mature back then). This time, anyhow, it's going to be the real deal because we'll be implementing more and more features as time passes and the testruns with MVC1 and MVC2 showed that we're ready to upscale. Until now we were using Controller and Action authorization with AuthorizeAttribute's. But that won't do it any longer because our views are supposed to show different results based on the logged in user. Use Case: Let's say you're a major of a city and you login to a federal managed software and you can only access and edit the citizens in your city. Where you are allowed to access those citizens via an entry in a specialized MajorHasRightsForCity table containing a MajorId and a CityId. What I thought of is something like this: Public ViewResult Edit(int cityId) { if(Access.UserCanEditCity(currentUser, cityId) { var currentCity = Db.Cities.Single(c => c.id == cityId); Return View(currentCity); } else { TempData["ErrorMessage"] = "Yo are not awesome enough to edit that shizzle!" Return View(); } The static class Access would do all kinds of checks and return either true or false from it's methods. This implies that I would need to change and edit all of my controllers every time I change something. (Which would be a pain, because all unit tests would need to be adjusted every time something changes..) Is doing something like that even allowed?

  Read the article

• Iframe src set dynamically through JavaScript is being executed twice on Internet Explorer

  - by Pierre

  Hello Everyone, I am encountering a very annoying problem with IE. Basically I need to set the source of an IFrame using JavaScript, however the source document is being executed twice not once during each call. The simplified HTML code is pasted below (I simplified it so that readers can understand it quickly. The source is being set through JavaScript since it will contain dynamic content): <html> <head> <title>Iframe test</title> </head> <body> <iframe id="testIframe" scrolling="no" frameborder="0" src="" width="800" height="600"></iframe> <script language="JavaScript"> document.getElementById("testIframe").src = "http://localhost/test.php"; </script> </body> </html> In this example, test.php inserts a record inside a local database once called. Whenever the page above is called using IE, two rows are being inserted on most occasions (sometimes only 1 row is inserted but this is not the norm). I tested the same script on Chrome and Opera and it works correctly on them so this must be an IE issue. If is set the src directly inside the iframe tag IE starts behaving correctly, however I need to be able to build the URL using javascript. Has anyone encountered this issue? and does anyone know of a solution/workaround? Thanks and Regards Pierre

  Read the article

• expand an collapse button in datagrid

  - by prince23

  hi, <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="dgCounty" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="5,5,5,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgCounty_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn CanUserReorder="False"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="ViewButton" Click="ToggleRowDetailsVisibility" Cursor="Hand" Content="View Details" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="Countryname" Width="100" Binding="{Binding Region Name}" CanUserReorder="False"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="Populution" Width="80" Binding="{Binding Number Of People}" CanUserReorder="False"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgrdRowDetail" Width="400" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" IsReadOnly="True" Grid.Row="1"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="county" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="Number Of People" Binding="{Binding CompanyID}"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid> how to make an button in datagrid expand an collapse where there will be 2 image buttons once user clicks the button the rows under it will expand where there should be an one image button with (- symbol) again user clicks the same row the rows which were expanded should collapse.(+ image button) here i have done the function for doing the expand and collapse is completed. now only i need add an image which will change once the user clicks the row either ( we can do it by javascript or in code behind ?) how can i change the image button like that can any one tell me how i should i ahead or any code that can help me to solve the issue thanks in adance prince

  Read the article

• SSRS 2008 Report Manager Error

  - by Nick

  I have just installed SQL Server 2008 including Reporting Services on Windows Server 2003. I'm having a problem though accessing the Report Manager. When the Reporting Service is first started I can access it fine but after maybe an hour when I try and access it I get an error saying: Unable to connect to the remote server. The reporting service is still running at this point. I can connect to it through Reporting Services Configuration Manager and clicking on the Web Service URL gives a directory listing (I assume that is correct behaviour). If I stop and start the service through Reporting Services Configuration Manager then I can access Report Manager once again (although in maybe an hour I will get the same error once again). I've installed the latest SP1 service pack. I'm using the same domain account to run all the SQL services. The report server is set to use the default ReportServer virtual directory, is set to IP address All Assigned, TCP Port 80 and no SSL certificate. The report manager is set to use the default Reports virtual directory, IP address All Assigned, TCP Port 80 and no SSL certificates. In the log file I get an error: Unable to connect to remote server HTTP status code 500 An attempt was made to access a socket in a way forbidden by its access permissions. Does anyone have any idea why this is happening? I've searched the net but haven't been able to find a solution.

  Read the article

• How to correctly calculate FPS in XNA?

  - by Tomek Tarczynski

  I wrote a component to display current FPS. The most important part of it is: public override void Update(GameTime gameTime) { elapseTime += (float)gameTime.ElapsedRealTime.TotalSeconds; frameCounter++; if (elapseTime > 1) { FPS = frameCounter; frameCounter = 0; elapseTime = 0; } base.Update(gameTime); } In most cases it works ok, but recently I had a problem. When I put following code into Update method of game strange thing starts to happen. if (threadPath == null || threadPath.ThreadState != ThreadState.Running) { ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(current.PathFinder.FindPaths); threadPath = new Thread(ts); threadPath.Priority = ThreadPriority.Highest; threadPath.Start(); } Main idea of this code is to run pathFinding algorithm in different thread all the time. By strange things I mean that sometimes FPS drasticly decreases, this is obvious, but displayed FPS changes more often than once a second. If I understand this code FPS can't change more often than once a second. Can someone explain me what's going on?

  Read the article

• Need Sharepoint like modal pop-up window

  - by Srikanth

  I need to show Sharepoint 2010 like pop-up window when clicked on a link in grid view. Once the modal pop-up displayed and user selected the Save button data base should be updated with given values in pop-up. How can I get this. Any Idea. As of now I am using below code to get it but no idea how to pass the values to Database once clicked on the button in pop-up Note: As of now I am not adding the gridview code here as I wanted to achieve it first with sample html then wanted to do with grid view. Java Script function openDialog() { var options = { html: divModalDialogContent, // ID of the HTML tag // or HTML content to be displayed in modal dialog width: 600, height: 300, title: "My First Modal Dialog", dialogReturnValueCallback: dialogCallbackMethod, // custom callback function allowMaximize: true, showClose: true }; SP.UI.ModalDialog.showModalDialog(options); } //Results displayed if 'OK' or 'Cancel' button is clicked if the html content has 'OK' and 'Cancel' buttons function onDialogClose(dialogResult, returnValue) { if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.OK) { alert('Ok!'); } if (dialogResult == SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel) { alert('Cancel'); } } // Custom callback function after the dialog is closed function dialogCallbackMethod() { alert('Callback method of modal dialog!'); } HTML <div id="divModalDialogContent"> Hello World! <input type="button" value="OK"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.OK, 'Ok clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <input type="button" value="Cancel"onclick="SP.UI.ModalDialog.commonModalDialogClose(SP.UI.DialogResult.cancel, 'Cancel clicked'); return false;" class="ms-ButtonHeightWidth" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnClicked" Text="Clicked" onclick="btnClicked_Click" /> <input type="button" value="Open" onclick="openDialog()" /> How can I call db upon clicking 'clicked' button in pop-up. Also I need to send parameters to pop-up Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• How to edit the XSL for RSS Viewer Webpart

  - by Nagendra

  I am using a blog site as a source for my RSS Feed. As I see the RSS feed, its showing up as the following :: Blog: Posts Test Thursday, March 04, 2010 - Body: With 25 four's and 3 sixers Sachin crosses 200 (147 balls) runs in an single ODI innings. Creates another world record. Watch the final over where he got it double hundred with MSD on the other end. This is what he had to say after getting the MOM (man of the match): I dedicate this knock to all the people of India, who have supported me throughout over the last 20 years. I was timing the ball well, and I felt that anywhere between 340 to 350 was a good target. I thought Karthik, Yusuf and Dhoni supported me well. I thought that a 200 would be possible once I crossed 175 in the 42nd over. I am enjoying my cricket at the moment. There have been a few bad decisions I have made as a batsman, but as long as the passion is there I will carry on. It feels good that I lasted the 50 overs, it was a good test of my fitness and I would like to do this once again. Well!!! Wait for more. Published: 3/4/2010 3:18 PM More... I actually wanted to remove the Body, Published parameters. I just want my XSLT to be able to show only the Description of the blog. No need to have this meta data. Can anyone help me in specifying tthe XSL changes?

  Read the article

• Extending Zend View Helper Placeholder

  - by Sonny

  I was reading the manual about basic placeholder usage, and it has this example: class Bootstrap extends Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap { // ... protected function _initSidebar() { $this->bootstrap('View'); $view = $this->getResource('View'); $view->placeholder('sidebar') // "prefix" -> markup to emit once before all items in collection ->setPrefix("<div class=\"sidebar\">\n <div class=\"block\">\n") // "separator" -> markup to emit between items in a collection ->setSeparator("</div>\n <div class=\"block\">\n") // "postfix" -> markup to emit once after all items in a collection ->setPostfix("</div>\n</div>"); } // ... } I want to acommplish almost exactly that, but I'd like to conditionally add more class values to the repeating divs, at time of rendering if possible, when all the content is in the placeholder. One thing I specifically want to do is add the class of "first" to the first element and "last" to the last element. I assume that I'll have to extend the Zend_View_Helper_Placeholder class to accomplish this.

  Read the article

• About lifecycle of activities

  - by janfsd

  In my application I have several activities, the main screen has 4 buttons that each start a different activity. So one of them is a search activity, once it searches it shows you a result activity. This result activity can be reached from other activities, so in general something like this: Main activity -> Search activity -> Result activity Main acitivty -> someother activity -> Result activity Now, if I have reached this result activity and press back once or twice, and after that press the Home key it will show the Home screen. But if I want to get back to my application by holding the Home button and clicking on my app it will always go back to the Result activity, no matter which activity was the last one I was using. And if I press again back it will take me back to the Home screen. If I try it again it will take me again to the Result activity. The only way to avoid this is to start the application by clicking on the app's icon. And this takes me to the last activity I was using and it remembers the state so if I press back again it doesn't take me to the Home screen, instead to the activity before it. To illustrate this: Main activity -> Search activity -> result activity --back--> Search activity --Home Button--> Home Screen --Hold Home and select the app --> Result activity --back--> Home Screen --Click application icon--> Search activity --back--> Main activity Another thing that happens is that if I press the Home button while on the Result activity, and start the app by clicking the icon, it will take me to the activity prior the the Result one. Why is this happening? Any workarounds?

  Read the article

• SQL query to count and list the different counties per zip code

  - by Chris

  I have a sql server 2005 table called ZipCode, which has all the US ZIPs in it. For each entry, it lists the zip, county, city, state, and several other details. Some zipcodes span multiple cities and some even span multiple counties. As a result, some zipcodes appear many times in the table. I am trying to query the table to see which zipcodes go across multiple counties. This is what I have so far: select zipcode, count(zipcode) as total, county, state from zipcode group by zipcode, county, state order by zipcode Of 19248 records in the result set, here are the first several records returned: zipcode total county state 00501 2 SUFFOLK NY 00544 2 SUFFOLK NY 00801 3 SAINT THOMAS VI 00802 3 SAINT THOMAS VI 00803 3 SAINT THOMAS VI 00804 3 SAINT THOMAS VI 00805 1 SAINT THOMAS VI 00820 2 SAINT CROIX VI 00821 1 SAINT CROIX VI 00822 1 SAINT CROIX VI 00823 2 SAINT CROIX VI 00824 2 SAINT CROIX VI In this particular example, each zip with a total of two or more happens to be in the table more than once, and it's because the "cityaliasname" (not shown) or some other column differs. But I just want to know which zips are in there more than once because the county column differs. I searched before posting this and I found many questions about counting records but I could not figure out how to apply them to my problem. Please forgive me if there is already a question whose answer applies to this question.

  Read the article

• Force a UIView to redraw immediately, instead of during next run loop

  - by Justin Kent

  I've created a UIImagePicker / camera view, with a toolbar and custom button for taking a snapshot. I can't really change to using the default way because of the custom button, and I'm drawing on top of the view. When you hit the button, I want to take a screenshot using UIGetScreenImage(); however, the toolbar is showing up in the image, even if I hide it first: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I'm pretty sure this is because even though the toolbar is hidden, it gets redrawn once the function returns and we enter the next run loop - after UIGetScreenImage is called. I tried making the following addition, but it didn't help: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; [self.toolbar drawRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 52)]; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I also tried using setNeedsDisplay, but that doesn't work either because once again the draw happens after the current function returns. Any suggestions? Thanks!

  Read the article

• jquery validate: focusCleanup: true and focusInvalid: false don't work as expected

  - by laramichaels

  I am using Joern's jquery validation plugin 1.6. My goal is to have the following behavior: remove the error message for an element once the user focuses it. From what I understand setting 'focusCleanup: true' should take care of this. However (at least on my browser (Firefox 3.5.7 on Linux)), I only get the desired behavior (ie, error message for a field disappearing once you focus it) if I click into the field; it doesn't handle tabbing into the field correctly. Sample code: HTML: <form id='abc' name='abc'> <input type="text" id="t1" name="t1"/> <input type="text" id="t2" name="t2"/> <input type="submit" id="submit" value='submit'/> </form> JS: $("#abc").validate({ focusCleanup: true, focusInvalid: false, rules: {t1: {required: true, email:true}, t2: {required: true,email:true}} }); I am setting 'focusInvalid: false' because the docs say one should avoid combining focusCleanup and focusInvalid; in my experience commenting out that line makes no difference. Am I doing something wrong?

  Read the article

• How to extend an 'unloadable' Rails plugin?

  - by Vitaly Kushner

  I'm trying to write a plugin that will extend InheritedResources. Specifically I want to rewrite some default helpers. And I'd like it to "just work" once installed, w/o any changes to application code. The functionality is provided in a module which needs to be included in a right place. The question is where? :) The first attempt was to do it in my plugin's init.rb: InheritedResources::Base.send :include, MyModule It works in production, but fails miserably in development since InheritedResource::Base declared as unloadable and so its code is reloaded on each request. So my module is there for the first request, and then its gone. InheritedResource::Base is 'pulled' in again by any controller that uses it: Class SomeController < InheritedResource::Base But no code is 'pulling in' my extension module since it is not referenced anywhere except init.rb which is not re-loaded on each request So right now I'm just including the module manually in every controller that needs it which sucks. I can't even include it once in ApplicationController because InheritedResources inherites from it and so it will override any changes back. update I'm not looking for advice on how to 'monkey patch'. The extension is working in production just great. my problem is how to catch moment exactly after InheritedResources loaded to stick my extension into it :) update2 another attempt at clarification: the sequence of events is a) rails loads plugins. my plugin loads after inherited_resources and patches it. b) a development mode request is served and works c) rails unloads all the 'unloadable' code which includes all application code and also inherited_resources d) another request comes in e) rails loads controller, which inherites from inherited resources f) rails loads inherited resources which inherit from application_controller g) rails loads application_contrller (or may be its already loaded at this stage, not sure) g) request fails as no-one loaded my plugin to patch inherited_resources. plugin init.rb files are not reloaded I need to catch the point in time between g and h

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >