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  • Hot to get rid of memory allocations/deallocations in swig wrappers?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    I want to use swig for generation of read-only wrappers for a complex object. The object which I want to wrap will always be existent while I will read it. And also I will only use my wrappers at the time that object is existent, thus I don't need any memory management from SWIG. For following swig interface: %module test %immutable; %inline %{ struct Foo { int a; }; struct Bar { int b; Foo f; }; %} I will have a wrappers which will have a lot of garbage in generated interfaces and do useless work which will reduce performance in my case. Generated java wrapper for Bar class will be like this: public class Bar { private long swigCPtr; protected boolean swigCMemOwn; protected Bar(long cPtr, boolean cMemoryOwn) { swigCMemOwn = cMemoryOwn; swigCPtr = cPtr; } protected static long getCPtr(Bar obj) { return (obj == null) ? 0 : obj.swigCPtr; } protected void finalize() { delete(); } public synchronized void delete() { if (swigCPtr != 0) { if (swigCMemOwn) { swigCMemOwn = false; testJNI.delete_Bar(swigCPtr); } swigCPtr = 0; } } public int getB() { return testJNI.Bar_b_get(swigCPtr, this); } public Foo getF() { return new Foo(testJNI.Bar_f_get(swigCPtr, this), true); } public Bar() { this(testJNI.new_Bar(), true); } } I don't need 'swigCMemOwn' field in my wrapper since it always will be false. All code related to this field will also be useless. There are also unnecessary logic in native code: SWIGEXPORT jlong JNICALL Java_some_testJNI_Bar_1f_1get(JNIEnv *jenv, jclass jcls, jlong jarg1, jobject jarg1_) { jlong jresult = 0 ; struct Bar *arg1 = (struct Bar *) 0 ; Foo result; (void)jenv; (void)jcls; (void)jarg1_; arg1 = *(struct Bar **)&jarg1; result = ((arg1)->f); { Foo * resultptr = (Foo *) malloc(sizeof(Foo)); memmove(resultptr, &result, sizeof(Foo)); *(Foo **)&jresult = resultptr; } return jresult; } I don't need these calls to malloc and memmove. I want to force swig to resolve both of these problems, but don't know how. Is it possible?

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Haskell Add Function Return to List Until Certain Length

    - by kienjakenobi
    I want to write a function which takes a list and constructs a subset of that list of a certain length based on the output of a function. If I were simply interested in the first 50 elements of the sorted list xs, then I would use fst (splitAt 50 (sort xs)). However, the problem is that elements in my list rely on other elements in the same list. If I choose element p, then I MUST also choose elements q and r, even if they are not in the first 50 elements of my list. I am using a function finderFunc which takes an element a from the list xs and returns a list with the element a and all of its required elements. finderFunc works fine. Now, the challenge is to write a function which builds a list whose total length is 50 based on multiple outputs of finderFunc. Here is my attempt at this: finish :: [a] -> [a] -> [a] --This is the base case, which adds nothing to the final list finish [] fs = [] --The function is recursive, so the fs variable is necessary so that finish -- can forward the incomplete list to itself. finish ps fs -- If the final list fs is too small, add elements to it | length fs < 50 && length (fs ++ newrs) <= 50 = fs ++ finish newps newrs -- If the length is met, then add nothing to the list and quit | length fs >= 50 = finish [] fs -- These guard statements are currently lacking, not the main problem | otherwise = finish [] fs where --Sort the candidate list sortedps = sort ps --(finderFunc a) returns a list of type [a] containing a and all the -- elements which are required to go with it. This is the interesting -- bit. rs is also a subset of the candidate list ps. rs = finderFunc (head sortedps) --Remove those elements which are already in the final list, because -- there can be overlap newrs = filter (`notElem` fs) rs --Remove the elements we will add to the list from the new list -- of candidates newps = filter (`notElem` rs) ps I realize that the above if statements will, in some cases, not give me a list of exactly 50 elements. This is not the main problem, right now. The problem is that my function finish does not work at all as I would expect it to. Not only does it produce duplicate elements in the output list, but it sometimes goes far above the total number of elements I want to have in the list. The way this is written, I usually call it with an empty list, such as: finish xs [], so that the list it builds on starts as an empty list.

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  • Passing arguments between classes - use public properties or pass a properties class as argument?

    - by devoured elysium
    So let's assume I have a class named ABC that will have a list of Point objects. I need to make some drawing logic with them. Each one of those Point objects will have a Draw() method that will be called by the ABC class. The Draw() method code will need info from ABC class. I can only see two ways to make them have this info: Having Abc class make public some properties that would allow draw() to make its decisions. Having Abc class pass to draw() a class full of properties. The properties in both cases would be the same, my question is what is preferred in this case. Maybe the second approach is more flexible? Maybe not? I don't see here a clear winner, but that sure has more to do with my inexperience than any other thing. If there are other good approaches, feel free to share them. Here are both cases: class Abc1 { public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } and here is approach 2: class Abc2 { //here we make take down all properties public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } class Abc2MethodArgs { //and we put them here. this class will be passed as argument to //Point's draw() method! public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; } Also, if there are any "formal" names for these two approaches, I'd like to know them so I can better choose the tags/thread name, so it's more useful for searching purposes. That or feel free to edit them.

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  • remote_form_for in index.html.erb file not working w/ AJAX...Ruby on Rails...

    - by bgadoci
    Just curious if I am overlooking something simple here. I have deployed the remote_form_for in the show.html.erb code before to render comments on a post (project in this case) without a problem. I have moved this code to the index view and seems to degrade to the normal form_for action (page refresh). I am not getting any javascript errors so not sure what is wrong here. Here is my code: index.html.erb <% remote_form_for [project, Comment.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :body, "New Comment" %><br/> <%= f.text_area (:body, :class => "textarea") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :name, "Name" %> (Required)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:name, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :email, "Email" %> (Required but will not be displayed)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:email, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> CommentsController#create def create @project = Project.find(params[:project_id]) @comment = @project.comments.create!(params[:comment]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to projects_path } format.js end end /views/comments/create.js.rjs page.insert_html :bottom, :commentwrapper, :partial => @comment page[@comment].visual_effect :highlight page[:new_comment].reset page.replace_html :notice, flash[:notice] flash.discard /views/comments/_comment.html.erb <% div_for comment do %> <div id="commentwrapper"> <% if admin? %> <%=link_to_remote "X", :url => [@project, comment], :method => :delete %> <% end %> <%= h(comment.body) %><br/><br/> Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(comment.created_at) %> ago by <%= h(comment.name) %> <% if admin? %> | <%= h(comment.email) %> <% end %></div> <% end %>

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  • C++ Filling an 1D array to represent a n-dimensional object based on a straight line segment

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to find a good way to put this question but here goes. I'm making a system that uses a 1D array implemented as double * parts_ = new double[some_variable];. I want to use this to hold co-ordinates for a particle system that can run in various dimensions. What I want to be able to do is write a generic fill algorithm for filling this in n-dimensions with a common increment in all direction to a variable size. Examples will serve best I think. Consider the case where the number of particles stored by the array is 4 In 1D this produces 4 elements in the array because each particle only has one co-ordinate. 1D: {0, 25, 50, 75}; In 2D this produces 8 elements in the array because each particle has two co-ordinates.. 2D: {0, 0, 0, 25, 25, 0, 25, 25} In 3D this produces 12 elements in the array because each particle now has three co-ordinates {0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 25, 0, 0, 50, ... } These examples are still not quite accurate, but they hopefully will suffice. The way I would do this normally for two dimensions: int i = 0; for(int x = 0; x < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; x += 25) { for(int y = 0; y < parts_size_ / dims_ / dims_ * 25; y += 25) { parts_[i] = x; parts_[i+1] = y; i+=2; // Indentation hates me today .< How can I implement this for n-dimensions where 25 can be any number? The straight line part is because it seems to me logical that a line is a somewhat regular shape in 1D, as is a square in 2D, and a cube in 3D. It seems to me that it would follow that there would be similar shapes in this family that could be implemented for 4D and higher dimensions via a similar fill pattern. This is the shape I wish to set my array to represent.

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  • Controlling the USB from Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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  • Defined variables and arrays vs functions in php

    - by Frank Presencia Fandos
    Introduction I have some sort of values that I might want to access several times each page is loaded. I can take two different approaches for accessing them but I'm not sure which one is 'better'. Three already implemented examples are several options for the Language, URI and displaying text that I describe here: Language Right now it is configured in this way: lang() is a function that returns different values depending on the argument. Example: lang("full") returns the current language, "English", while lang() returns the abbreviation of the current language, "en". There are many more options, like lang("select"), lang("selectact"), etc that return different things. The code is too long and irrelevant for the case so if anyone wants it just ask for it. Url The $Url array also returns different values depending on the request. The whole array is fully defined in the beginning of the page and used to get shorter but accurate links of the current page. Example: $Url['full'] would return "http://mypage.org/path/to/file.php?page=1" and $Url['file'] would return "file.php". It's useful for action="" within the forms and many other things. There are more values for $Url['folder'], $Url['file'], etc. Same thing about the code, if wanted, just request it. Text [You can skip this section] There's another array called $Text that is defined in the same way than $Url. The whole array is defined at the beginning, making a mysql call and defining all $Text[$i] for current page with a while loop. I'm not sure if this is more efficient than multiple calls for a single mysql cell. Example: $Text['54'] returns "This is just a test array!" which this could perfectly be implemented with a function like text(54). Question With the 3 examples you can see that I use different methods to do almost the same function (no pun intended), but I'm not sure which one should become the standard one for my code. I could create a function called url() and other called text() to output what I want. I think that working with functions in those cases is better, but I'm not sure why. So I'd really appreciate your opinions and advice. Should I mix arrays and functions in the way I described or should I just use funcions? Please, base your answer in this: The source needs to be readable and reusable by other developers Resource consumption (processing, time and memory). The shorter the code the better. The more you explain the reasons the better. Thank you PS, now I know the differences between $Url and $Uri.

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  • C# 'could not found' existing method

    - by shybovycha
    Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

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  • Div not filling width of floated container (css expert needed

    - by Rayden
    I know there are many variations of this question posted, but none I've found quite provide an answer that works for this case. I basically have two left floated divs. Inside those two divs are div headers and tabled content. I want the Div headers (Hour/Minute) to stretch to the width of the tabled content, but they only do this in FF and Chrome, not IE7. IE7 is my works official browser so the one I need it to work with the most. Here is the CSS: #ui-timepicker-div { padding:0.2em; } #ui-timepicker-hours { float:left; } #ui-timepicker-minutes { margin:0 0 0 0.2em; float:left; } .ui-timepicker .ui-timepicker-header { padding:0.2em 0; } .ui-timepicker .ui-timepicker-title { line-height:1.8em; text-align:center; } .ui-timepicker table { margin:0.15em 0 0 0; font-size:.9em; border-collapse:collapse; } .ui-timepicker td { padding:1px; width:2.2em; } .ui-timepicker th, .ui-timepicker td { border:0; } .ui-timepicker td a { display:block; padding:0.2em 0.3em 0.2em 0.5em; text-align:right; text-decoration:none; } Here is the HTML (did not include tabled content): <div style="position: absolute; top: 252.667px; left: 648px; z-index: 1; display: none;" class="ui-timepicker ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all" id="ui-timepicker-div"> <div id="ui-timepicker-hours"> <div class="ui-timepicker-header ui-widget-header ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all"> <div class="ui-timepicker-title">Hour</div> </div> <table class="ui-timepicker"> </table> </div> <div id="ui-timepicker-minutes"> <div class="ui-timepicker-header ui-widget-header ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all"> <div class="ui-timepicker-title">Minutes</div> </div> <table class="ui-timepicker"> </table> </div> </div>

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  • SQL Query takes about 10 - 20 minutes

    - by masfenix
    I have a select from (nothing to complex) Select * from VIEW This view has about 6000 records and about 40 columns. It comes from a Lotus Notes SQL database. So my ODBC drive is the LotusNotesSQL driver. The query takes about 30 seconds to execute. The company I worked for used EXCEL to run the query and write everything to the worksheet. Since I am assuming it writes everything cell by cell, it used to take up to 30 - 40 minutes to complete. I then used MS access. I made a replica local table on Access to store the data. My first try was INSERT INTO COLUMNS OF LOCAL TABLE FROM (SELECT * FROM VIEW) note that this is pseudocode. This ran successfully, but again took up to 20 - 30 minutes. Then I used VBA to loop through the data and insert it in manually (using an INSERT statement) for each seperate record. This took about 10 - 15 minutes. This has been my best case yet. What i need to do after: After i have the data, I need to filter through it by department. The thing is if I put a where clause in the SQL query (the time jumps from 30 seconds to execute the query, to about 10 minutes + the time to write to local table/excel). I dont know why. MAYBE because the columns are all text columns? If we change some of the columns to integer, would that make it faster in terms of the where clause? I am looking for suggestions on how to approach this. My boss has said we could employ some Java based solution. Will this help? I am not a java person but a c#, and maybe I'll convince them to use c# as well, but i am mainly looking for suggestions on how to cut down the time. I've already cut it down from 40 minutes to 10 minutes, but the want it under 2 minutes. Just to recap: Query takes about 30 seconds to exceute Query takes about 15 - 40 minutes to be used locally in excel/acess Need it under 2 minutes Could use java based solution You may suggest other solutions instead of java.

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  • Self referencing a table

    - by mue
    Hello, so I'm new to NHibernate and have a problem. Perhaps somebody can help me here. Given a User-class with many, many properties: public class User { public virtual Int64 Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Firstname { get; set; } public virtual string Lastname { get; set; } public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } ... public virtual string Comment { get; set; } public virtual UserInfo LastModifiedBy { get; set; } } Here some DDL for the table: CREATE TABLE USERS ( "ID" BIGINT NOT NULL , "FIRSTNAME" VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL , "LASTNAME" VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL , "USERNAME" VARCHAR(128) NOT NULL , "EMAIL" VARCHAR(128) NOT NULL , ... "LASTMODIFIEDBY" BIGINT NOT NULL , ) IN "USERSPACE1" ; Database-table-field 'LASTMODIFIEDBY' holds for auditing purposes the Id from the User who is acting in case of inserts or updates. This would normally be an admin. Because the UI shall display not this Int64 but admins name (pattern like 'Lastname, Firstname') I need to retrieve these values by self referencing table USERS to itself. Next is, that a whole object of type User would be overkill by the amount of unwanted fields. So there is a class UserInfo with much smaller footprint. public class UserInfo { public Int64 Id { get; set; } public string Firstname { get; set; } public string Lastname { get; set; } public string FullnameReverse { get { return string.Format("{0}, {1}", Lastname ?? string.Empty, Firstname ?? string.Empty); } } } So here starts the problem. Actually I have no clue how to accomplish this task. Im not sure if I also must provide a mapping for class UserInfo and not only for class User. I'd like to integrate class UserInfo as Composite-element within the mapping for User-class. But I dont no how to define the mapping between USERS.ID and USERS.LASTMODIFIEDBY table-fields. Hopefully I decribes my problem clear enough to get some hints. Thanks alot!

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  • Attribute vector emptying itself

    - by ravloony
    Hello, I have two classes, derived from a common class. The common class has a pure virtual function called execute(), which is implemented in both derived classes. In the inherited class I have an attribute which is a vector. In both execute() methods I overwrite this vector with a result. I access both classes from a vector of pointers to their objects. The problem is when I try to access the result vector form outside the objects. In one case I can get the elements (which are simply pointers), in the other I cannot, the vector is empty. Code: class E; class A{ protected: vector<E*> _result; public: virtual void execute()=0; vector<E*> get_result(); }; vector<E*> A::get_result() { return _result; } class B : public A { public: virtual void execute(); }; B::execute() { //... _result = tempVec; return; } class C : public A { public: virtual void execute(); }; C::execute() { //different stuff to B _result = tempvec; return; } main() { B* b = new B(); C* c = new C(); b->execute(); c->execute(); b->get_result();//returns full vector c->get_result(); //returns empty vector!! } I have no idea what is going on here... I have tried filling _result by hand from a temp vector in the offending class, doing the same with vector::assign(), nothing works. And the other object works perfectly. I must be missing something.... Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Simple jquery Fade Slideshow fails on certain browsers

    - by cmay
    So I have a simple slideshow on my website which just shows one image then shows another until it reaches the end or the user hits skip in which case it shows index.html. The site is served on apache2 with Django. The slideshow works perfectly on most machines, but certain machines it shows some images twice and other images not at all and the timing is off. I am using jquery 1.4.3. Below is the section of html where I push the image urls from the database to the javascript {% for image in latest_images %} {% thumbnail image.image_file "800x600" crop="center" as im %} <script>FadeImageList.push("{{im.url}}");</script> {% endthumbnail %} {% endfor %} Below is the full javascript file var FadeImageList = []; var fadeDuration = 2000; var fadeImgID = '#slideShow'; var homePageID = '#homePage'; var menuID = '#menu'; var skipFlag = 0; $(document).ready(function(){ $(homePageID).fadeOut(50); PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); var PlaySlideshow = function(FadeImageList){ var newImgSrc = FadeImageList.shift(); $('#skip').click(function(){$('#loader').show();skipFlag = 1;}); if(((typeof(newImgSrc) !== "string") || (skipFlag === 1))){ EndSlideShow(); return; } else{ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(fadeDuration,function(){ $(fadeImgID).attr('src', newImgSrc); $(fadeImgID).fadeIn(fadeDuration,function(){ PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); }); } }; var EndSlideShow = function(fadeSettings){ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(400,function(){ $(homePageID).fadeIn(400); $("#skip").fadeOut(400); $('#loader').hide(); }); }; The strange thing is I've had it work and fail on identically version numbered browsers on the same os but on different machines. It consistently either works or fails on a machine. I've had it fail in ie 7,8 firefox 3.6.3 and chrome. I've also had it succeed in ie6,7,8 firefox 3.6.3,3.4.2,3.1 and chrome.

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  • Searching a Better Solution with Delegates

    - by spagetticode
    Hey All, I am a newbie in C# and curious about the better solution of my case. I have a method which gets the DataTable as a parameter and creates a List with MyClass's variables and returns it. public static List<Campaigns> GetCampaignsList(DataTable DataTable) { List<Campaigns> ListCampaigns = new List<Campaigns>(); foreach (DataRow row in DataTable.Rows) { Campaigns Campaign = new Campaigns(); Campaign.CampaignID = Convert.ToInt32(row["CampaignID"]); Campaign.CustomerID = Convert.ToInt32(row["CustomerID"]); Campaign.ClientID = Convert.ToInt32(row["ClientID"]); Campaign.Title = row["Title"].ToString(); Campaign.Subject = row["Subject"].ToString(); Campaign.FromName = row["FromName"].ToString(); Campaign.FromEmail = row["FromEmail"].ToString(); Campaign.ReplyEmail = row["ReplyEmail"].ToString(); Campaign.AddDate = Convert.ToDateTime(row["AddDate"]); Campaign.UniqueRecipients = Convert.ToInt32(row["UniqueRecipients"]); Campaign.ClientReportVisible = Convert.ToBoolean(row["ClientReportVisible"]); Campaign.Status = Convert.ToInt16(row["Status"]); ListCampaigns.Add(Campaign); } return ListCampaigns; } And one of my another DataTable method gets the DataTable from the database with given parameters. Here is the method. public static DataTable GetNewCampaigns() { DataTable dtCampaigns = new DataTable(); Campaigns Campaigns = new Campaigns(); dtCampaigns = Campaigns.SelectStatus(0); return dtCampaigns; } But the problem is that, this GetNewCampaigns method doesnt take parameters but other methods can take parameters. For example when I try to select a campaign with a CampaignID, I have to send CampaignID as parameter. These all Database methods do take return type as DataTable but different number of parameters. public static DataTable GetCampaignDetails(int CampaignID) { DataTable dtCampaigns = new DataTable(); Campaigns Campaigns = new Campaigns(); dtCampaigns = Campaigns.Select(CampaignID); return dtCampaigns; } At the end, I want to pass a Delegate to my first GetCampaignList Method as parameter which will decide which Database method to invoke. I dont want to pass DataTable as parameter as it is newbie programming. Could you pls help me learn some more advance features. I searched over it and got to Func< delegate but could not come up with a solution.

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  • What is the best way to connect to an Oracle database to build my own IDE? [closed]

    - by rima
    before answer me plz thinking about the futures of these kind of program and answer me plz. I wanna get some data from oracle server like: 1-get all the function,package,procedure and etc for showing them or drop them & etc... 2-compile my *.sql files,get the result if they have problem & etc... becuz I was beginner in oracle first of all I for solve the second problem I try to connect to sqlPlus by RUN sqlplus and trace the output(I mean,I change the output stream of shell and trace what happend and handle the assigned message to customer. NOW THIS PART SUCCEED. just a little bit I have problem with get all result because the output is asynchronous.any way... [in this case I log in to oracle Server by send argument to the sqlplus by make a process in c#] after that I try to get all function,package or procedure name,but I have problem in speed!so I try to use oracle.DataAccess.dll to connect the database. now I m so confusing about: which way is correct way to build a program that work like Oracle Developer! I do not have any experience for like these program how work. If Your answer is I must use the second way follow this part plz: I search a little bit the Golden,PLedit (Benthic software),I have little bit problem how I must create the connection string?because I thinking about how I can find the host name or port number that oracle work on them?? am I need read the TNSNames.Ora file? IF your answer is I must use the first way follow this part plz: do u have any Idea for how I parse the output?because for example the result of a table is so confusing...[i can handle & program it but I really need someone experience,because the important things to me learn how such software work so nice and with quick response?] All of the has different style in output... If you are not sure Can u help me which book can help me in this way i become expert? becuz for example all the C# write just about how u can connect to DB and the DB books write how u can use this DB program,I looking for a book that give me some Idea how develop an interface for do transaction between these two.not simple send and receive data,for example how write a compiler for them. the language of book is not different for me i know C#,java,VB,sql,Oracle Thanks.

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  • Ajax gets nothing back from the php.

    - by ShaMun
    Jquery i dont have alert and firefox i dont have anything in return. The code was working before, database query have successfull records also. What i am missing??? Jquery ajax. $.ajax({ type : "POST", url : "include/add_edit_del.php?model=teksten_display", data : "oper=search&ids=" + _id , dataType: "json", success : function(msg){ alert(msg); } }); PHP case 'teksten_display': $id = $_REQUEST['ids']; $res = $_dclass-_query_sql( "select a,b,id,wat,c,d from tb1 where id='" . $id . "'" ); $_rows = array(); while ( $rows = mysql_fetch_array ($res) ) { $_rows = $rows; } //header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); //header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); header('Content-type: application/json'); echo utf8_encode( json_encode($_rows) ) ; //echo json_encode($_rows); //var_dump($_rows); //print_r ($res); break; Firefox response/request header Date Sat, 24 Apr 2010 22:34:55 GMT Server Apache/2.2.3 (CentOS) X-Powered-By PHP/5.1.6 Expires Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma no-cache Content-Length 0 Connection close Content-Type application/json Host www.xxxx.be User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-US; rv:1.9.1.9) Gecko/20100330 Fedora/3.5.9-2.fc12 Firefox/3.5.9 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://www.xxxx.be/xxxxx Content-Length 17 Cookie csdb=2; codb=5; csdbb=1; codca=1.4; csdca=3; PHPSESSID=benunvkpecqh3pmd8oep5b55t7; CAKEPHP=3t7hrlc89emvg1hfsc45gs2bl2

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  • Inlining an array of non-default constructible objects in a C++ class

    - by porgarmingduod
    C++ doesn't allow a class containing an array of items that are not default constructible: class Gordian { public: int member; Gordian(int must_have_variable) : member(must_have_variable) {} }; class Knot { Gordian* pointer_array[8]; // Sure, this works. Gordian inlined_array[8]; // Won't compile. Can't be initialized. }; As even beginner C++ users know, the language guarantees that all members are initialized when constructing a class. And it doesn't trust the user to initialize everything in the constructor - one has to provide valid arguments to the constructors of all members before the body of the constructor even starts. Generally, that's a great idea as far as I'm concerned, but I've come across a situation where it would be a lot easier if I could actually have an array of non-default constructible objects. The obvious solution: Have an array of pointers to the objects. This is not optimal in my case, as I am using shared memory. It would force me to do extra allocation from an already contended resource (that is, the shared memory). The entire reason I want to have the array inlined in the object is to reduce the number of allocations. This is a situation where I would be willing to use a hack, even an ugly one, provided it works. One possible hack I am thinking about would be: class Knot { public: struct dummy { char padding[sizeof(Gordian)]; }; dummy inlined_array[8]; Gordian* get(int index) { return reinterpret_cast<Gordian*>(&inlined_array[index]); } Knot() { for (int x = 0; x != 8; x++) { new (get(x)) Gordian(x*x); } } }; Sure, it compiles, but I'm not exactly an experienced C++ programmer. That is, I couldn't possibly trust my hacks less. So, the questions: 1) Does the hack I came up with seem workable? What are the issues? (I'm mainly concerned with C++0x on newer versions of GCC). 2) Is there a better way to inline an array of non-default constructible objects in a class?

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  • When an active_record is saved, is it saved before or after its associated object(s)?

    - by SeeBees
    In rails, when saving an active_record object, its associated objects will be saved as well. But has_one and has_many association have different order in saving objects. I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid I figured out that when team.save! is called, it first calls player.save!. player needs to validate the presence of the id of the associated team. But at the time player.save! is called, team hasn't been saved yet, and therefore, team_id doesn't yet exist for player. This fails the player's validation, so the error occurs. But on the other hand, team is saved before coach.save!, otherwise the first example will get the same error as the second one. So I've concluded that when a has_many bs, a.save! will save bs prior to a. When a has_one b, a.save! will save a prior to b. If I am right, why is this the case? It doesn't seem logical to me. Why do has_one and has_many association have different order in saving? Any ideas? And is there any way I can change the order? Say I want to have the same saving order for both has_one and has_many. Thanks.

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  • How can I enable a debugging mode via a command-line switch for my Perl program?

    - by Michael Mao
    I am learning Perl in a "head-first" manner. I am absolutely a newbie in this language: I am trying to have a debug_mode switch from CLI which can be used to control how my script works, by switching certain subroutines "on and off". And below is what I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -s -w # purpose : make subroutine execution optional, # which is depending on a CLI switch flag use strict; use warnings; use constant DEBUG_VERBOSE => "v"; use constant DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS => "s"; use constant DEBUG_IGNORE_VALIDATION => "i"; use constant DEBUG_SETPPING_COMPUTATION => "c"; our ($debug_mode); mainMethod(); sub mainMethod # () { if(!$debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is OFF\n"; } elsif($debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is ON\n"; } else { print "OMG!\n"; exit -1; } checkArgv(); printErrorMsg("Error_Code_123", "Parsing Error at..."); verbose(); } sub checkArgv #() { print ("Number of ARGV : ".(1 + $#ARGV)."\n"); } sub printErrorMsg # ($error_code, $error_msg, ..) { if(defined($debug_mode) && !($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS)) { print "You can only see me if -debug_mode is NOT set". " to DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS\n"; die("terminated prematurely...\n") and exit -1; } } sub verbose # () { if(defined($debug_mode) && ($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_VERBOSE)) { print "Blah blah blah...\n"; } } So far as I can tell, at least it works...: the -debug_mode switch doesn't interfere with normal ARGV the following commandlines work: ./optional.pl ./optional.pl -debug_mode ./optional.pl -debug_mode=v ./optional.pl -debug_mode=s However, I am puzzled when multiple debug_modes are "mixed", such as: ./optional.pl -debug_mode=sv ./optional.pl -debug_mode=vs I don't understand why the above lines of code "magically works". I see both of the "DEBUG_VERBOS" and "DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS" apply to the script, which is fine in this case. However, if there are some "conflicting" debug modes, I am not sure how to set the "precedence of debug_modes"? Also, I am not certain if my approach is good enough to Perlists and I hope I am getting my feet in the right direction. One biggest problem is that I now put if statements inside most of my subroutines for controlling their behavior under different modes. Is this okay? Is there a more elegant way? I know there must be a debug module from CPAN or elsewhere, but I want a real minimal solution that doesn't depend on any other module than the "default". And I cannot have any control on the environment where this script will be executed...

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  • Android: How to properly exit application when inconsistent condition is unavoidable?

    - by Bevor
    First of all I already read about all this discussion that it isn't a good idea to manually exit an Android application. But in my case it seems to be needed. I have an AsyncTask which does a lof of operations in background. That means downloading data, saving it to local storage and preparing it for usage in application. It could happen that there is no internet connection or something different happens. For all that cases I have an Exception handling which returns the result. And if there is an exception, the application is unusable so I need to exit it. My question is, do I have to do some unregistration unloading or unbinding tasks or something when I exit the application by code or is System.exit(0) ok? I do all this in an AsyncTask, see my example: public class InitializationTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, InitializationResult> { private ProcessController processController = new ProcessController(); private ProgressDialog progressDialog; private Activity mainActivity; public InitializationTask(Activity mainActivity) { this.mainActivity = mainActivity; } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { super.onPreExecute(); progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(mainActivity); progressDialog.setMessage("Die Daten werden aufbereitet.\nBitte warten..."); progressDialog.setIndeterminate(true); //means that the "loading amount" is not measured. progressDialog.setCancelable(false); progressDialog.show(); }; @Override protected InitializationResult doInBackground(Void... params) { return processController.initializeData(); } @Override protected void onPostExecute(InitializationResult result) { super.onPostExecute(result); progressDialog.dismiss(); if (!result.isValid()) { AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(mainActivity); dialog.setTitle("Initialisierungsfehler"); dialog.setMessage(result.getReason()); dialog.setPositiveButton("Ok", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.cancel(); //TODO cancel application System.exit(0); } }); dialog.show(); } } }

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  • pdo connection scope

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a connection class I found for pdo. I am calling the connection method on the page that the file is included on. The problem is that within functions the $conn variable is not defined even though I stated the method was public (bare with me I am very new to OOP), and I was wondering if anyone had an elegant solution other then using global in every function. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. CONNECTION class PDOConnectionFactory{ // receives the connection public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters // when it will not be necessary leaves blank only with the double quotations marks "" public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; // arrow the persistence of the connection public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ // it carries through the connection $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } } PAGE USED ON include("includes/connection.php"); $db = new PDOConnectionFactory(); $conn = $db->getConnection(); function test(){ try{ $sql = 'SELECT * FROM topic'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(); } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } } test();

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  • How to Automatically Refresh Data on Page Using Ajax on an Interval?

    - by Karnak
    I would like to load an XML file every 30 seconds and display its contents inside an HTML page. So far I know how to load the file, but I don't know how to automatically refresh it and display its updated contents. It would also be great if it did some error checking and if it displayed error.png image when it's not able to load data.xml file. Here is my code: <head> <script> window.XMLHttpRequest { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } xmlhttp.open("GET", "data.xml", false); xmlhttp.send(); loadXMLDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; f = loadXMLDoc.getElementsByTagName("foo") function buildBar(i) { qux = (f[i].getElementsByTagName("qux")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.getElementById("displayBar").innerHTML = qux; } </script> </head> <body> <script> document.write("<ul>"); for (var i = 0; i < f.length; i++) { document.write("<li onclick='buildBar(" + i + ")'>"); document.write(f[i].getElementsByTagName("bar")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</li>"); } document.write("</ul>"); </script> <div id="displayBar"> </div> </body> After searching the internet for a few hours I found many examples on how to do this, but I didn't know how to implement it in my particular case. I am not a programmer, so please be kind. I would really appriciate any help. It would mean a lot.

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  • Optimizing GDI+ drawing?

    - by user146780
    I'm using C++ and GDI+ I'm going to be making a vector drawing application and want to use GDI+ for the drawing. I'v created a simple test to get familiar with it: case WM_PAINT: GetCursorPos(&mouse); GetClientRect(hWnd,&rct); hdc = BeginPaint(hWnd, &ps); MemDC = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); bmp = CreateCompatibleBitmap(hdc, 600, 600); SelectObject(MemDC,bmp); g = new Graphics(MemDC); for(int i = 0; i < 1; ++i) { SolidBrush sb(Color(255,255,255)); g->FillRectangle(&sb,rct.top,rct.left,rct.right,rct.bottom); } for(int i = 0; i < 250; ++i) { pts[0].X = 0; pts[0].Y = 0; pts[1].X = 10 + mouse.x * i; pts[1].Y = 0 + mouse.y * i; pts[2].X = 10 * i + mouse.x; pts[2].Y = 10 + mouse.y * i; pts[3].X = 0 + mouse.x; pts[3].Y = (rand() % 600) + mouse.y; Point p1, p2; p1.X = 0; p1.Y = 0; p2.X = 300; p2.Y = 300; g->FillPolygon(&b,pts,4); } BitBlt(hdc,0,0,900,900,MemDC,0,0,SRCCOPY); EndPaint(hWnd, &ps); DeleteObject(bmp); g->ReleaseHDC(MemDC); DeleteDC(MemDC); delete g; break; I'm wondering if I'm doing it right, or if I have areas killing the cpu. Because right now it takes ~ 1sec to render this and I want to be able to have it redraw itself very quickly. Thanks In a real situation would it be better just to figure out the portion of the screen to redraw and only redraw the elements withing bounds of this?

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  • new operator overwriting an existing object

    - by dvpdiner2
    I have a custom FastStack class, implemented as a fixed size array and an index into that array. In my copy constructor, I allocate the array and then assign each object from the copy's array into the new array. There's some refcounting in the objects on the stack, hence assignment is used rather than a simple copy. The problem is that when allocating the array, it sometimes overwrites part of the other stack's array. As can be expected, this leads to eventual segmentation faults when that data is dereferenced. class FastStack { private: int m_size, m_ptr; ObjectRef* m_stack; public: FastStack(int size) : m_size(size), m_ptr(-1) { m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; } FastStack(const FastStack& copy) : m_size(copy.m_size), m_ptr(copy.m_ptr) { long a = (long)copy.m_stack[0]; m_stack = new ObjectRef[m_size]; if ((long)copy.m_stack[0] != a) fprintf(stderr, "\nWe have a serious problem!\n\n"); for (int i = 0; i <= m_ptr; i++) m_stack[i] = copy.m_stack[i]; } ~FastStack() { delete[] m_stack; } }; class ObjectRef { private: DataObj* m_obj; public: ObjectRef() : m_obj(0) { } ObjectRef(DataObj* obj) : m_obj(obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ObjectRef(const ObjectRef& obj) : m_obj(obj.m_obj) { if (m_obj) m_obj->addRef(); } ~ObjectRef() { if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); } ObjectRef& operator=(DataObj* obj) { if (obj) obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj; return *this; } ObjectRef& operator=(const ObjectRef& obj) { if (obj.m_obj) obj.m_obj->addRef(); if (m_obj) m_obj->delRef(); m_obj = obj.m_obj; return *this; } }; I see that "We have a serious problem!" line shortly before a segfault, and stepping through it with gdb I can see that one of the ObjectRefs created by new has the same address as the other stack's array. My first instinct is to say that new should never be allocating memory that is already in use, but that clearly seems to be the case here and I am at a complete loss as to what can be done. Added: At the time that I see this happen, m_size = 2 and m_ptr = 0.

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