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• Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

  - by user1449855

  Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

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• Should DAL always return business objects in MVP

  - by Chathuranga

  In Model View Presenter (MVP) pattern, it is said that our DAL always should returns business models. But let's say if I want to get just a number from database like the last ClientID (the latest clients ID) which is a string, should my DAL method returns a ClientInfo object which has about 10 other fields as well like ClientName, Address etc.? If I want to get a list of business objects from my DAL, is it acceptable to do it as follows or better to get a DataTable from DAL and then in the applications BLL, converts it a List? public List<Employee> GetNewEmployees() { string selectStatement = "SELECT Employee.Emp_ID, Employee.Initials + ' ' + Employee.Surname AS Name,..."; using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(db.GetConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(selectStatement, sqlConnection)) { sqlConnection.Open(); using (SqlDataReader dataReader = sqlCommand.ExecuteReader()) { List<Employee> list = new List<Employee>(); while (dataReader.Read()) { list.Add ( new EpfEtfMaster { EmployeeID = (int) dataReader ["emp_id"], EmployeeName = (string) dataReader ["Name"], AppointmentDate = (DateTime) dataReader["appointment_date"], }); } return list; } } } }

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• Creating a DataTable by filtering another DataTable

  - by Jeff Dege

  I'm working on a system that currently has a fairly complicated function that returns a DataTable, which it then binds to a GUI control on a ASP.NET WebForm. My problem is that I need to filter the data returned - some of the data that is being returned should not be displayed to the user. I'm aware of DataTable.select(), but that's not really what I need. First, it returns an array of DataRows, and I need a DataTable, so I can databind it to the GUI control. But more importantly, the filtering I need to do isn't something that can be easily put into a simple expression. I have an array of the elements which I do not want displayed, and I need to compare each element from the DataTable against that array. What I could do, of course, is to create a new DataTable, reading everything out of the original, adding to the new what is appropriate, then databinding the new to the GUI control. But that just seems wrong, somehow. In this case, the number of elements in the original DataTable aren't likely to be enough that copying them all in memory is going to cause too much trouble, but I'm wondering if there is another way. Does the .NET DataTable have functionality that would allow me to filter via a callback function?

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• Redirection loop problem at facebook iframe application

  - by Sniff

  I do IFrame application for facebook. Problem is: any link inside it causes redirect loop Link is: http://mydomain/mypage?fb_sig=[what I got from $_GET['fb_sig']] (to test I link to the same page as my loaded canvas is loaded from) when I click on it, my server returns: <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthiismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1"; </script> then it goes to corresponding page, and facebook returns Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984 then, my server replies with <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthisismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1%26auth_token%3Dce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984"; </script> and back, facebook replies: Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984&auth_token=77df653b7949ca39c1a226c82cce8add and it goes on and one without end. Should I say that this redirect responce from my server is generated automately (most probaby my facebook php lib) I have no more ideas why this happends. Any ideas?

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• Count all lists of adjacent nodes stored in an array.

  - by Ben Brodie

  There are many naive approaches to this problem, but I'm looking for a good solution. Here is the problem (will be implemented in Java): You have a function foo(int a, int b) that returns true if 'a' is "adjacent" to 'b' and false if 'a' is not adjacent to 'b'. You have an array such as this [1,4,5,9,3,2,6,15,89,11,24], but in reality has a very long length, like 120, and will be repeated over and over (its a genetic algorithm fitness function) which is why efficiency is important. I want a function that returns the length of each possible 'list' of adjacencies in the array, but not including the 'lists' which simply subsets of a larger list. For example, if foo(1,4) - true, foo(4,5) - true, foo(5,9)- false, foo(9,3) & foo(3,2) & foo(2,6), foo(6,15) - true, then there are 'lists' (1,4,5) and (9,3,2,6), so length 3 and 4. I don't want it to return (3,2,6), though, because this is simply a subset of 9,3,2,6. Thanks.

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• How to get SQL Function run a different query and return value from either query?

  - by RoguePlanetoid

  I need a function, but cannot seem to get it quite right, I have looked at examples here and elsewhere and cannot seem to get this just right, I need an optional item to be included in my query, I have this query (which works): SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC This works within a Function, however the Manufacturer is Optional for this search - which is to find the description of a similar item, if none is present, the other query is: SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC Which is missing the Manufacturer, how to I get my function to use either query based on the Manufacturer Value being present or not. The reason is I will have a function which first checks an SKU for a Description, if it is not present - it uses this method to get a Description from a Similar Product, then updates the product being added with the similar product's description. Here is the function so far: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) I've tried adding BEGINs and IF...ELSEs but get errors or syntax problems each way I try it, I want to be able to do something like this pseudo-function (which does not work): ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS BEGIN IF (@Manufacturer = Null) RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) ELSE RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) END

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• Making one table equal to another without a delete *

  - by Joshua Atkins

  Hey, I know this is bit of a strange one but if anyone had any help that would be greatly appreciated. The scenario is that we have a production database at a remote site and a developer database in our local office. Developers make changes directly to the developer db and as part of the deployment process a C# application runs and produces a series of .sql scripts that we can execute on the remote side (essentially delete *, insert) but we are looking for something a bit more elaborate as the downtime from the delete * is unacceptable. This is all reference data that controls menu items, functionality etc of a major website. I have a sproc that essentially returns a diff of two tables. My thinking is that I can insert all the expected data in to a tmp table, execute the diff, and drop anything from the destination table that is not in the source and then upsert everything else. The question is that is there an easy way to do this without using a cursor? To illustrate the sproc returns a recordset structured like this: TableName Col1 Col2 Col3 Dest Src Anything in the recordset with TableName = Dest should be deleted (as it does not exist in src) and anything in Src should be upserted in to dest. I cannot think of a way to do this purely set based but my DB-fu is weak. Any help would be appreciated. Apologies if the explanation is sketchy; let me know if you need anymore details.

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• How does initializing inherited members inside base class constructor reduce the calls to…?

  - by flockofcode

  I’ve read that instead of initializing inherited members ( _c1 in our example ) inside derived constructor: class A { public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) { _c = c; } } we should initialize them inside base class constructor, since that way we reduce the calls to inherited members ( _c ): class A { public A(int c) { _c = c; } public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) : base(c) { } } If _c field is initialized inside base constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of base class A are called (at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s custom constructor 4) _c field gets set to value of a parameter c ( inside A’s custom constructor ) 5) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor executes its code. If _c field is initialized inside B's constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of a derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of a base class A are called(at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s default constructor 4) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor sets _c field to a value of parameter c As far as I can tell, in both cases was _c called two times, so how exactly did we reduce calls to inherited member _c? thanx

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• Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

  - by James

  Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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• How do you get Length of Text in a Mojo TextField?

  - by figus

  How do you get the length of the text inside a Mojo TextField? I'm trying to set a multiLine TextField with a limit of 150 chars, I tried doing it with a counter, but ran into a issue of not being able to decrement the counter when the text was erased, or adding the right number when pasting text, so my new approach was to get the length of the text each time you press a letter. I've already tried this: (gets called in the charsAllow attribute of the textField) if (this.controller.get("mensaje").mojo.getValue().length &lt;= 150) { return true; } this.controller.get("mensaje").mojo.blur(); return false; but it doesn't work.... I debugged and the function exits just after the line in bold... it doesn't even returns true or false. I also tried assigning the length value to a variable or assigning the text to a variable and then get the length, but nothing. It's the same issue. It returns just after the getValue(). Also, maybe because of this issue, the text scrolls instead of wrapping, but when the textField loses focus it wraps the text.

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• Help creating a predicate for use with filteredArrayUsingPredicate

  - by johnbdh

  I am trying to learn how to use predicates and so am trying to replace the following working code with filteredArrayUsingPredicate... [filteredLocations removeAllObjects]; for (NSString *location in locations) { NSRange range = [location rangeOfString:query options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch]; if (range.length > 0) { [filteredLocations addObject:location]; } } Instead I am trying.... [filteredLocations removeAllObjects]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"SELF contains %@", searchText]; [filteredLocations addObjectsFromArray: [locations filteredArrayUsingPredicate:predicate]]; I am not getting the same results with the predicate as I am with for loop rangeOfString. With the range of string for example searchText returns an 8 item array while with the same value returns only 2 with the predicate. Another example, hono will find honolulu in the locations array while it will not find anything using the predicate. As I understand it SELF represents the object object being evaluated ie. the locations array, so I think that is the correct syntax. Any help would be appreciated Thanks, John

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• How I shoud use BIT in MS SQL 2005

  - by adopilot

  Regarding to SQL performance. I have Scalar-Valued function for checking some specific condition in base, It returns BIT value True or False, I now do not know how I should fill @BIT parameter If I write. set @bit = convert(bit,1) or set @bit = 1 or set @bit='true' Function will work anyway but I do not know which method is recommended for daily use. Another Question, I have table in my base with around 4 million records, Daily insert is about 4K records in that table. Now I want to add CONSTRAINT on that table whit scalar valued function that I mentioned already Something like this ALTER TABLE fin_stavke ADD CONSTRAINT fin_stavke_knjizenje CHECK ( dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin(id)=convert(bit,1)) Where is filed "id" primary key of table fin_stavke and dbo.fn_ado_chk_fin looks like create FUNCTION fn_ado_chk_fin ( @stavka_id int ) RETURNS bit AS BEGIN declare @bit bit if exists (select * from fin_stavke where id=@stavka_id and doc_id is null and protocol_id is null) begin set @bit=0 end else begin set @bit=1 end return @bit; END GO Will this type and method of cheeking constraint will affect badly performance on my table and SQL at all ? If there is also better way to add control on this table please let me know.

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• Converting an int64 value to a Number object in JavaScript

  - by Matt

  I have a COM object which has a method that returns an unsigned int64 (VT_UI8) value. We have an HTML page which contains some JavaScript which can load the COM object and make the call to that method, to retrieve the value as such: var foo = MyCOMObject.GetInt64Value(); This value can easily be displayed to the user in a message dialog using: alert(foo); or displayed on the page by: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; However, we cannot use this value as a Number (e.g. if we try to multiply it by 2) without the page throwing "Number expected" errors. If we check "typeof(foo)" it returns "unknown". I've found a workaround for this by doing the following: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; var bar = parseInt(document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML); alert(bar*2); What I need to know is how to make that process more efficient. Specifically, is there a way to cast foo to a String explicitly, rather than having to set some document element's innerHTML to foo and then retrieve it from that. I wouldn't mind calling something like: alert(parseInt((string)foo) * 2); Even better would be if there is a way to directly convert the int64 to a Number, without going through the String conversion, but I hold out less hope for that.

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• How to detect back button or forward button navigation in a silverlight navigation application

  - by parapura rajkumar

  When a Page is navigated to in silverlight you can override this method. protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { base.OnNavigatedTo(e); } The NavigationEventArgs has a NavigationMode enumeration which is defined as public enum NavigationMode { New = 0, Back = 1, Forward = 2, Refresh = 3, } But calling e.NavigationMode always throws a NotImplementedException Is there a way in silverlight to detect a page is being navigated to because the user hit the forward/back browser button. What I am trying to achieve is some kind of state that can be preserved when the user hits the back button. For example assume you have a customer page which is showing a list of customers in a datagrid. The user can select a customer and there is a detail view which shows all the orders for that customer. Now within an order item you can click a hyperlink link that takes you to the shipping history of the order which is a separate page. When the user hits the back button I want to go back to the customers page and automatically select the customer he was viewing. Is this possible at all ? I also tried out the fragment navigation feature NavigationService.Navigate(new Uri("#currentcustomerid=" + customer.Id.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); when the customer selection changes but this adds too many items to the history when the user clicks various customers on the customer page. EDIT There is also an method you can override protected override void OnNavigatingFrom(NavigatingCancelEventArgs e) { } which is the same as handling the NavigationService.Navigating event as indicated by BugFinder's answer. In this method e.NavigationMode always returns New when when you hit the Back or Forward Button. The only time this method returns Back is when you explicitly call NavigationService.GoBack()

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• iPhone - how to track touches and allow button taps at the same time?

  - by Jonathan Cohen

  I'm wondering how to track touches anywhere on the iPhone screen and still have UIButtons respond to taps. I subclassed a UIView, made it full screen and the highest view in the hierarchy, and overrode its pointInside:withEvent method. If I return YES, I'm able to track touches anywhere on the screen but the buttons don't respond (likely because the view is instructed to handle and terminate the touch). If I return NO, the touch passes through the view and the buttons respond, but I'm not able to track touches. Do I need to subclass UIButton or is this possible through the responder chain? What am I doing wrong? - (BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ return NO; } //only works if pointInside:withEvent: returns YES. -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ NSLog(@"began"); [self.nextResponder touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } //only works if pointInside:withEvent: returns YES. -(void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ NSLog(@"end"); [self.nextResponder touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; }

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• PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

  - by sunwukung

  Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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• Neural Network with softmax activation

  - by Cambium

  This is more or less a research project for a course, and my understanding of NN is very/fairly limited, so please be patient :) ============== I am currently in the process of building a neural network that attempts to examine an input dataset and output the probability/likelihood of each classification (there are 5 different classifications). Naturally, the sum of all output nodes should add up to 1. Currently, I have two layers, and I set the hidden layer to contain 10 nodes. I came up with two different types of implementations 1) Logistic sigmoid for hidden layer activation, softmax for output activation 2) Softmax for both hidden layer and output activation I am using gradient descent to find local maximums in order to adjust the hidden nodes' weights and the output nodes' weights. I am certain in that I have this correct for sigmoid. I am less certain with softmax (or whether I can use gradient descent at all), after a bit of researching, I couldn't find the answer and decided to compute the derivative myself and obtained softmax'(x) = softmax(x) - softmax(x)^2 (this returns an column vector of size n). I have also looked into the MATLAB NN toolkit, the derivative of softmax provided by the toolkit returned a square matrix of size nxn, where the diagonal coincides with the softmax'(x) that I calculated by hand; and I am not sure how to interpret the output matrix. I ran each implementation with a learning rate of 0.001 and 1000 iterations of back propagation. However, my NN returns 0.2 (an even distribution) for all five output nodes, for any subset of the input dataset. My conclusions: o I am fairly certain that my gradient of descent is incorrectly done, but I have no idea how to fix this. o Perhaps I am not using enough hidden nodes o Perhaps I should increase the number of layers Any help would be greatly appreciated! The dataset I am working with can be found here (processed Cleveland): http://archive.ics.uci.edu/ml/datasets/Heart+Disease

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• How to get entire input string in Lex and Yacc?

  - by DevDevDev

  OK, so here is the deal. In my language I have some commands, say XYZ 3 5 GGB 8 9 HDH 8783 33 And in my Lex file XYZ { return XYZ; } GGB { return GGB; } HDH { return HDH; } [0-9]+ { yylval.ival = atoi(yytext); return NUMBER; } \n { return EOL; } In my yacc file start : commands ; commands : command | command EOL commands ; command : xyz | ggb | hdh ; xyz : XYZ NUMBER NUMBER { /* Do something with the numbers */ } ; etc. etc. etc. etc. My question is, how can I get the entire text XYZ 3 5 GGB 8 9 HDH 8783 33 Into commands while still returning the NUMBERs? Also when my Lex returns a STRING [0-9a-zA-Z]+, and I want to do verification on it's length, should I do it like rule: STRING STRING { if (strlen($1) < 5 ) /* Do some shit else error */ } or actually have a token in my Lex that returns different tokens depending on length?

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• sending a selected value from a dropdownlist to a servlet with xhr

  - by kawtousse

  I am trying to send the clicked value of a dropdown list to my servlet to run a SQL query using the value received. To do it I am using Ajax like that: function showProject(prj) { xmlhttp = GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp == null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url = "ServletxmlGenerator.java"; idprj = prj.options[prj.selectedIndex].value; url = url + "?idprj=" + idprj; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } The servlet when String projectcode=(String) request.getParameter("idprj"); returns null. When I select a value from the JSP that construct the dropdown list and from which the function showProject is handled the same thing is happned. It returns always null. So the parameter(idprj) is not passed anyway. How can I handle with this. I need to send the selected value to the servlet to run my SQL query.

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• retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

  - by Anup Parekh

  I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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• Moq, a translator and an expression

  - by jeriley

  I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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• How can I work around SQL Server - Inline Table Value Function execution plan variation based on par

  - by Ovidiu Pacurar

  Here is the situation: I have a table value function with a datetime parameter ,lest's say tdf(p_date) , that filters about two million rows selecting those with column date smaller than p_date and computes some aggregate values on other columns. It works great but if p_date is a custom scalar value function (returning the end of day in my case) the execution plan is altered an the query goes from 1 sec to 1 minute execution time. A proof of concept table - 1K products, 2M rows: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[POC]( [Date] [datetime] NOT NULL, [idProduct] [int] NOT NULL, [Quantity] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The inline table value function: CREATE FUNCTION tdf (@p_date datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT idProduct, SUM(Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, max(Date) as LastDate FROM POC WHERE (Date < @p_date) GROUP BY idProduct ) The scalar value function: CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[EndOfDay] (@date datetime) RETURNS datetime AS BEGIN DECLARE @res datetime SET @res=dateadd(second, -1, dateadd(day, 1, dateadd(ms, -datepart(ms, @date), dateadd(ss, -datepart(ss, @date), dateadd(mi,- datepart(mi,@date), dateadd(hh, -datepart(hh, @date), @date)))))) RETURN @res END Query 1 - Working great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (getdate()) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 13% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86% Query 2 - Not so great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (dbo.EndOfDay(getdate())) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 4% <--- Filter Cost 12% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86%

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• HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

  - by stormin986

  My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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• Python print statement prints nothing with a carriage return

  - by Jonathan Sternberg

  I'm trying to write a simple tool that reads files from disc, does some image processing, and returns the result of the algorithm. Since the program can sometimes take awhile, I like to have a progress bar so I know where it is in the program. And since I don't like to clutter up my command line and I'm on a Unix platform, I wanted to use the '\r' character to print the progress bar on only one line. But when I have this code here, it prints nothing. # Files is a list with the filenames for i, f in enumerate(files): print '\r%d / %d' % (i, len(files)), # Code that takes a long time I have also tried: print '\r', i, '/', len(files), Now just to make sure this worked in python, I tried this: heartbeat = 1 while True: print '\rHello, world', heartbeat, heartbeat += 1 This code works perfectly. What's going on? My understanding of carriage returns on Linux was that it would just move the line feed character to the beginning and then I could overwrite old text that was written previously, as long as I don't print a newline anywhere. This doesn't seem to be happening though. Also, is there a better way to display a progress bar in a command line than what I'm current trying to do?

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• The algorithm used to generate recommendations in Google News?

  - by Siddhant

  Hi everyone. I'm study recommendation engines, and I went through the paper that defines how Google News generates recommendations to users for news items which might be of their interest, based on collaborative filtering. One interesting technique that they mention is Minhashing. I went through what it does, but I'm pretty sure that what I have is a fuzzy idea and there is a strong chance that I'm wrong. The following is what I could make out of it :- Collect a set of all news items. Define a hash function for a user. This hash function returns the index of the first item from the news items which this user viewed, in the list of all news items. Collect, say "n" number of such values, and represent a user with this list of values. Based on the similarity count between these lists, we can calculate the similarity between users as the number of common items. This reduces the number of comparisons a lot. Based on these similarity measures, group users into different clusters. This is just what I think it might be. In Step 2, instead of defining a constant hash function, it might be possible that we vary the hash function in a way that it returns the index of a different element. So one hash function could return the index of the first element from the user's list, another hash function could return the index of the second element from the user's list, and so on. So the nature of the hash function satisfying the minwise independent permutations condition, this does sound like a possible approach. Could anyone please confirm if what I think is correct? Or the minhashing portion of Google News Recommendations, functions in some other way? I'm new to internal implementations of recommendations. Any help is appreciated a lot. Thanks!

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