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  • C# Execute Method (with Parameters) with ThreadPool

    - by washtik
    We have the following piece of code (idea for this code was found on this website) which will spawn new threads for the method "Do_SomeWork()". This enables us to run the method multiple times asynchronously. The code is: var numThreads = 20; var toProcess = numThreads; var resetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); for (var i = 0; i < numThreads; i++) { new Thread(delegate() { Do_SomeWork(Parameter1, Parameter2, Parameter3); if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref toProcess) == 0) resetEvent.Set(); }).Start(); } resetEvent.WaitOne(); However we would like to make use of ThreadPool rather than create our own new threads which can be detrimental to performance. The question is how can we modify the above code to make use of ThreadPool keeping in mind that the method "Do_SomeWork" takes multiple parameters and also has a return type (i.e. method is not void). Also, this is C# 2.0.

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  • How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

    - by Adam
    Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

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  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

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  • Storing Arbitrary Contact Information in Ruby on Rails

    - by Anthony Chivetta
    Hi, I am currently working on a Ruby on Rails app which will function in some ways like a site-specific social networking site. As part of this, each user on the site will have a profile where they can fill in their contact information (phone numbers, addresses, email addresses, employer, etc.). A simple solution to modeling this would be to have a database column per piece of information I allow users to enter. However, this seems arbitrary and limited. Further, to support allowing users to enter as many phone numbers as they would like requires the addition of another database table and joins. It seems to me that a better solution would be to serialize all the contact information entered by a user into a single field in their row. Since I will never be conditioning a SQL query on this information, such a solution wouldn't be any less efficient. Ideally, I would like to use a vCard as my serialization format. vCards are the standard solution to storing contact information across the web, and reusing tested solutions is a Good Thing. Alternative serialization formats would include simply marshaling a ruby hash, or YAML. Regardless of serialization format, supporting the reading and updating of this information in a rails-like way seems to be a major implementation challenge. So, here's the question: Has anyone seen this approach used in a rails application? Are there any rails plugins or gems that make such a system easy to implement? Ideally what I would like is an acts_as_vcard to add to my model object that would handle editing the vcard for me and saving it back to the database.

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  • Parsing basic math equations for children's educational software?

    - by Simucal
    Inspired by a recent TED talk, I want to write a small piece of educational software. The researcher created little miniature computers in the shape of blocks called "Siftables". [David Merril, inventor - with Siftables in the background.] There were many applications he used the blocks in but my favorite was when each block was a number or basic operation symbol. You could then re-arrange the blocks of numbers or operation symbols in a line, and it would display an answer on another siftable block. So, I've decided I wanted to implemented a software version of "Math Siftables" on a limited scale as my final project for a CS course I'm taking. What is the generally accepted way for parsing and interpreting a string of math expressions, and if they are valid, perform the operation? Is this a case where I should implement a full parser/lexer? I would imagine interpreting basic math expressions would be a semi-common problem in computer science so I'm looking for the right way to approach this. For example, if my Math Siftable blocks where arranged like: [1] [+] [2] This would be a valid sequence and I would perform the necessary operation to arrive at "3". However, if the child were to drag several operation blocks together such as: [2] [\] [\] [5] It would obviously be invalid. Ultimately, I want to be able to parse and interpret any number of chains of operations with the blocks that the user can drag together. Can anyone explain to me or point me to resources for parsing basic math expressions? I'd prefer as much of a language agnostic answer as possible.

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  • Help converting PHP eregi to preg_match

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am wondering if someone could please help me convert a piece of PHP code that is now deprecated. Here is the single line I am trying to convert: if(eregi(trim ($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0){ It is part of a function that return the configuration settings for a website. Below is the whole function. // GET CORRECT CONFIG FROM DATABASE function get_config($db) { global $tbl_prefix; $db->query("SELECT cid,urls FROM ".$tbl_prefix."sys_config ORDER BY cid"); while($db->next_record()){ $request_url_handler = explode("\n",$db->f("urls")); if(empty($request_url_handler[0])) { $request_url_handler[0] = "@"; $this->id_found = 2; } for($x=0; $x<count($request_url_handler); $x++) { if(empty($request_url_handler[$x])) { $request_url_handler[$x] = "@"; } if(eregi(trim($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0) { $this->set_config($db,$db->f("cid")); $this->id_found = 1; } } if($this->id_found == 1) { return($this->sys_config_vars); } } $this->set_config($db,""); return($this->sys_config_vars); } Any help would be great ly appreciated. I only found the the eregi function was deprecated since I updated XAMPP to 1.7.3.

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • What is the fastest, most efficient way to get up to speed on a new technology?

    - by SLC
    My current job involves working with a huge number of technologies, most of which are very niche and unheard of. In some cases I have to write something about the technology, or with the technology, such as some lessons, examples, or tutorials, on behalf of the developer of that technology or someone that is backing it. When I get told to learn about a new technology, my first port of call is to check our internal library, and then look on amazon for a book on the subject. Failing that, or if the project is too small to warrant a purchase, I hit up google and youtube. However the results of randomly googling what I want to learn are hit and miss. Some days, I can find everything I want to know in a series of lessons or videos, and it's no problem. Other times, I can find almost nothing, and I really have to piece together things from sites. The result is that there are various resources out there, videos, interactive lessons, tutorials, books etc. but when I need to learn something fast, I often don't know the best way to go about it. It's not about fun, because I don't always have the luxury of working my way through a 600 page textbook named "A Complete Guide To Technology X", I have to deliver results quickly. One of the examples I'd like to use is ASP.NET MVC 2 which is something I have been told to learn. I grabbed a book on MVC 1 to refresh my knowledge, but googling it does't produce much useful information. I've seen a ton of ScottGu's tutorials on it, but they are mostly feature presentations, and some date back almost a year. The same applies to channel 9 and there are no books out yet on amazon. My question therefore has two parts, the first asks, "Where are the best places to look to get the information needed to learn a new technology?" and the second asks "What is the most efficient way to use such resources to learn a new technology?"

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  • TeamCity + HG. Only pull (push?) passing builds

    - by ColoradoMatt
    Feels like with the popularity of continuous integration this one should be a piece of cake but I am stumped. I am setting up TeamCity with HG. I want to be able to push changesets up to a repository that TeamCity watches and runs builds on changes. That's easy. Next, if a build passes, I want that changeset to be pulled into a "clean" repository... one that contains only passing changesets. Should be easy but... TeamCity 6 supports multiple build steps and if any step fails, the rest don't run. My thought was to put a build step at the end that does a pull (or optionally a push?) to get the passing changeset into the clean repository. I am trying to use PsExec to run hg on the box with the repositories. If I try to run just a plain 'hg pull' it can't find the hg.exe even though it is set in the path and I have used the -w flag. I have tried putting a .bat file in the clean repository that takes a revision parameter and it works fine... locally. When I try to run the .bat file remotely (using PsExec) it runs everything fine but it tries to run it on the build agent. Even if I set the -w argument it runs the .bat file there but tries to run the contents on the build agent box. Am I just WAY off in my approach? Seems like this is a pretty obvious thing to do so either my Google skills are waning or no one thinks this is worthy of writing about. Either way, I am stuck in SVN land trying to get out so I would appreciate some help!

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  • Translate SQL to OCL ?

    - by Roland Bengtsson
    I have a piece of SQL that I want to translate to OCL. I'm not good at SQL so I want to increase maintainability by this. We are using Interbase 2009, Delphi 2007 with Bold and modeldriven development. Now my hope is that someone here both speaks good SQL and OCL :-) The original SQL: Select Bold_Id, MessageId, ScaniaId, MessageType, MessageTime, Cancellation, ChassieNumber, UserFriendlyFormat, ReceivingOwner, Invalidated, InvalidationReason, (Select Parcel.MCurrentStates From Parcel Where ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ReceivingOwner = Parcel.Bold_Id) as ParcelState From ScaniaEdiSolMessage Where MessageType = 'IFTMBP' and not Exists (Select * From ScaniaEdiSolMessage EdiSolMsg Where EdiSolMsg.ChassieNumber = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ChassieNumber and EdiSolMsg.ShipFromFinland = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ShipFromFinland and EdiSolMsg.MessageType = 'IFTMBF') and invalidated = 0 Order By MessageTime desc After a small simplification: Select Bold_Id, (Select Parcel.MCurrentStates From Parcel where ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ReceivingOwner = Parcel.Bold_Id) From ScaniaEdiSolMessage Where MessageType = 'IFTMBP' and not Exists (Select * From ScaniaEdiSolMessage EdiSolMsg Where EdiSolMsg.ChassieNumber = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ChassieNumber and EdiSolMsg.ShipFromFinland = ScaniaEdiSolMessage.ShipFromFinland and EdiSolMsg.MessageType = 'IFTMBF') and invalidated = 0 NOTE: There are 2 cases for MessageType, 'IFTMBP' and 'IFTMBF'. So the table to be listed is ScaniaEdiSolMessage. It has attributes like: MessageType: String ChassiNumber: String ShipFromFinland: Boolean Invalidated: Boolean It has also a link to table Parcel named ReceivingOwner with BoldId as key. So it seems like it list all rows of ScaniaEdiSolMessage and then have a subquery that also list all rows of ScaniaEdiSolMessage and name it EdiSolMsg. The it exclude almost all rows. In fact the query above give one hit from 28000 records. In OCL it is easy to list all instances: ScaniaEdiSolMessage.allinstances Also easy to filter rows by select for example: ScaniaEdiSolMessage.allinstances->select(shipFromFinland and not invalidated) But I do not understand how I should make a OCL to match the SQL above.

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  • A error about "Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd" in c program under linux

    - by MaiTiano
    There is a piece of my program: height = atoi(argv[3]); width = atoi(argv[2]); sprintf(seqName,"%s", argv[1]); // strcpy(seqName, argv[1]); After compiling it, a exe file test is generated, then I use Valgrind to check it. Then I got the following message, however I cannot understand what it tends to tell me. Can anyone provide some kind help, Thanks. 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) jl@ubuntu:~/work/dsr_analysis$ valgrind --tool=memcheck --leak-check=yes ./test ==28940== Memcheck, a memory error detector ==28940== Copyright (C) 2002-2009, and GNU GPL'd, by Julian Seward et al. ==28940== Using Valgrind-3.6.0.SVN-Debian and LibVEX; rerun with -h for copyright info ==28940== Command: ./test ==28940== ==28940== Invalid read of size 1 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd ==28940== ==28940== ==28940== Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) ==28940== Access not within mapped region at address 0x0 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== If you believe this happened as a result of a stack ==28940== overflow in your program's main thread (unlikely but ==28940== possible), you can try to increase the size of the ==28940== main thread stack using the --main-stacksize= flag. ==28940== The main thread stack size used in this run was 8388608. ==28940== ==28940== HEAP SUMMARY: ==28940== in use at exit: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==28940== total heap usage: 0 allocs, 0 frees, 0 bytes allocated ==28940== ==28940== All heap blocks were freed -- no leaks are possible ==28940== ==28940== For counts of detected and suppressed errors, rerun with: -v ==28940== ERROR SUMMARY: 1 errors from 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)

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  • Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

    - by Yuval
    When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

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  • iPhone: Cell imageViews repeating when loaded from url

    - by araid
    I'm developing a demo RSS reader for iPhone. I obviously have a tableview to display the feeds, and then a detailed view. Some of this feeds have a thumbnail that I want to display on cell.imageview of the table, and some don't. The problem is that when scrolling the table, loaded thumbnails start repeating on other cells, and I end up with a thumbnail on every cell. Here's a piece of my code. I may upload screenshots later - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ UITableViewCell * cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: @"rssItemCell"]; if(nil == cell){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"rssItemCell"]autorelease]; } BlogRss *item = [[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [item title]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [item description]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Thumbnail if exists if(noticia.imagePath != nil){ NSData* imageData; @try { imageData = [[NSData alloc]initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:item.imagePath]]; } @catch (NSException * e) { //Some error while downloading data } @finally { item.image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [imageData release]; } } if(item.image != nil){ [[cell imageView] setImage:item.image]; } return cell; } Any help will be very appreciated.

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  • iPhone Twitter Integration: Validating login.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    The following code posts to twitter: NSString *compoundLoginString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://%@:%@@twitter.com/statuses/update.xml",extractedUsername, extractedPassword]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:compoundLoginString] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:20.0]; // The text to post NSString *msg = tweetText; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"status=%@", msg] dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]]; NSURLResponse *response; NSError *error; if ([NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error] != nil){ [self postSuccessfulAlert]; }else{ [self postNotSuccessfulAlert]; } I am curious as to how I could check if the username and password is correct before proceeding to the above piece of code. I found the following code in a tutorial, but am unsure how I would implement or call this function. - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge { if ([challenge previousFailureCount] == 0) { NSURLCredential *newCredential; newCredential=[NSURLCredential credentialWithUser:[self username] password:[self password] persistence:NSURLCredentialPersistenceNone]; [[challenge sender] useCredential:newCredential forAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; } else { [[challenge sender] cancelAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; // inform the user that the user name and password // in the preferences are incorrect NSLog(@"Invalid Username or Password"); } } Any ideas? Please note, I have taken snippets of code from both of the following tutorials. http://iphonedevelopertips.com/networking/post-to-a-twitter-account-from-the-iphone.html and http://icodeblog.com/2009/07/09/integrating-twitter-into-your-applications/

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  • How to catch HttpRequestValidationException in production

    - by bruno
    Hello all, I have this piece of code to handle the HttpRequestValidationException in my global.asax.cs file. protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var context = HttpContext.Current; var exception = context.Server.GetLastError(); if (exception is HttpRequestValidationException) { Response.Clear(); Response.StatusCode = 200; Response.Write(@"<html><head></head><body>hello</body></html>"); Response.End(); return; } } If I debug my webapplication, it works perfect. But when i put it on our production-server, the server ignores it and generate the "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client" - error page. I don't know what happens exactly... If anybody knows what the problem is, or what i do wrong..? Also I don't want to set the validaterequest on false in the web.config. The server uses IIS7.5, And I'm using asp.net 3.5. Thanks, Bruno

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  • Extension methods conflict

    - by Yochai Timmer
    Lets say I have 2 extension methods to string, in 2 different namespaces: namespace test1 { public static class MyExtensions { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 1; } } } namespace test2 { public static class MyExtensions2 { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 2; } } } These methods are just for example, they don't really do anything. Now lets consider this piece of code: using System; using test1; using test2; namespace blah { public static class Blah { public Blah() { string a = "test"; int i = a.TestMethod(); //Which one is chosen ? } } } I know that only one of the extension methods will be chosen. Which one will it be ? and why ? How can I choose a certain method from a certain namespace ? Edit: Usually I'd use Namespace.ClassNAME.Method() ... But that just beats the whole idea of extension methods. And I don't think you can use Variable.Namespace.Method()

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  • jQuery server ping slowly but surely filling memory?

    - by danspants
    I use the following piece of code to test if our server is running whilst the user is in a page. I've also started adding other functions that grab small amounts of data that are constantly changing and are to be relayed to the user (Files waiting for download, messages, reports etc). I've noticed recently that if I leave any page open (all pages contain the same function), the browser takes up more and more system memory which I can only attribute to this regular task (overnight it reached 1.6 gb). Is there some way of clearing out the data that is being accumulated? Is this normal behaviour? As far as i can tell, every time I call the function it should overwrite the previously retrieved data? function testServer(){ jQuery.ajax({ type:"HEAD", url:"/media/d_arrow_blue.png", error: function(msg) { jQuery.jGrowl("Server Disconnected"); } }); //retrieves count of files awaiting download - move to seperate function jQuery.get("/get_files/",{"type":"count"},function(data) { jQuery("#downloadList").children("div").text(data); }); }; jQuery().doTimeout(6000,function() { testServer(); return true; });

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  • I write barely functional scripts that tend to not be resuable and make the baby jesus cry. Please h

    - by maxxpower
    I received a request to add around 100 users to a linux box the users are already in ldap so I can't just use newusers and point it at a text file. Another admin is taking care of the ldap piece so all I have to do is create all the home directories and chown them to the correct user once he adds the users to the box. creating the directories isn't a problem, but I'd like a more elegant script for chowning them to the correct user. what I have currently basically looks like chown -R testuser1 testgroup1 /home/tetsuser1; chown -R testuser2 testgroup2 /home/testgroup2; chown -R testsuser3 testgroup1 /home/testuser3 bascially I took the request that the user name and group name popped it into excel added a column of "chown -R" to the front, then added a column of "/", copied and pasted the username column after it and then added a column of ";" and dragged it down to the second to last row. Popped it into notepad ran some quick find and replaces and in less than a minute I have a completed request and a sad empty feeling. I know this was a really ghetto method and I'm trying to get away from using excel to avoid learning new scripting techniques so here's my real question. tl;dr I made 100 home directories and chowned them to the correct users, but it was ugly. Actual question below. You have a file named idlist that looks like this (only with say 1000 users and real usernames and groups) testuser1 testgroup1 testuser2 testgroup2 testuser3 testgroup1 write a script that creates home directories for all the users and chowns the created directories to the correct user and group. To make the directories I used the following(feel free to flame/correct me on this as well. ) var= 'cut -f1 -d" " idlist' (I used backticks not apostrophes around the cut command) mkdir $var

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  • Office 2003 interop problems, interface, method not found.

    - by Snake
    This problem is making me crazy. Actually I have multiple problems. First one: Why on earth are is there a _Worksheet and a Worksheetinterface in the Excel interop. They both look the same, except for some attributes on the methods. It's confusing! Second of all: my job today is making a VB.NET file more strict, by settings Option Strict On and Option Explicit On While it works for most files, I'm bumping into a problem. Here's a little code piece: Private _pivotTable As Excel.PivotTable With _pivotTable pvf = .AddDataField(pvc) End With PivotTable.AddDataField is defined on the MSDN page: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/microsoft.office.interop.excel.pivottable.adddatafield(office.11).aspx When I check my local Interop dll w/ Reflector that method is NOT there. When I run the application, and step through it, the method just works. When I try to step INTO the method, I get an LateBound Exception. WTF? So the question is: why are the interfaces defined more than once (twice sometimes?). 2nd question. AddDataField trouble

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  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

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  • Azure SDK causes Node.js service bus call to run slow

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    I am using this piece of code to call the service bus queue from my node.js server running locally using web matrix, I have also upload to windows azure "web sites" and it still performs slowly. var sb1 = azure.createServiceBusService(config.serviceBusNamespace, config.serviceBusAccessKey); sbMessage = { "Entity": { "SerialNumbersToCreate": '0', "SerialNumberSize": config.usageRates[3], "BlobName": 'snvideos' + channel.ChannelTableName, "TableName": 'snvideos' + channel.ChannelTableName } }; sb1.getQueue('serialnumbers', function(error, queue){ if (error === null){ sb1.sendQueueMessage('serialnumbers', JSON.stringify(sbMessage), function(error) { if (!error) res.send(req.query.callback + '({data: ' + JSON.stringify({ success: true, video: newVideo }) + '});'); else res.send(req.query.callback + '({data: ' + JSON.stringify({ success: false }) + '});'); }); } else res.send(req.query.callback + '({data: ' + JSON.stringify({ success: false }) + '});'); }); It can be up to 5 seconds before the server responds back to the client with the return result. When I comment out the sb1.getQueue('serialnumbers', function(error, queue){ and just have it return without sending a queue message it performs in less than 1 second. Why is that? Is my approach to using the azure sdk service bus correct? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Dropdown in PHP

    - by VP
    Hi, I am using PHP 5.2 on SUN OS server. Having problems with the following piece of code that for a drop down: echo '<form action="" method="get">'; echo '<p>Information:<br />'; echo '<select name="acctno" style="width: 100px;">'; foreach ($this->account_names as $acctno => $acctname) { echo '<option value="'.$acctno.'">'.$acctname.'</option>'; } echo '</select> <input type="submit" value="view" />'; echo '</form>'; Worked perfectly fine on Firefox and Chrome; however there is a problem with Internet Explorer. In IE the dropdown width is limited to the size i.e 100px. So only the first 15-16 characters of the account name are displayed all the time. However in chrome or firefox, even if only 15-16 characters are displayed initially, when the drop down arrow is clicked upon, it show the entire name (however long it may be). This does not happen with IE. So if the account name is, lets say, "1223456789abcdefghijkl" then: For IE: shows only "123456789" all the time Ffor chrome or firefox: shows "123456789" and when it is dropped down it show the full name as "123456789abcdefghijkl". Any help here would be much appreciated. Thanks, VP

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  • How do I find, count, and display unique elements of an array using Perl?

    - by Luke
    I am a novice Perl programmer and would like some help. I have an array list that I am trying to split each element based on the pipe into two scalar elements. From there I would like to spike out only the lines that read ‘PJ RER Apts to Share’ as the first element. Then I want to print out the second element only once while counting each time the element appears. I wrote the piece of code below but can’t figure out where I am going wrong. It might be something small that I am just overlooking. Any help would be greatly appreciated. ## CODE ## my @data = ('PJ RER Apts to Share|PROVIDENCE', 'PJ RER Apts to Share|JOHNSTON', 'PJ RER Apts to Share|JOHNSTON', 'PJ RER Apts to Share|JOHNSTON', 'PJ RER Condo|WEST WARWICK', 'PJ RER Condo|WARWICK'); foreach my $line (@data) { $count = @data; chomp($line); @fields = split(/\|/,$line); if (($fields[0] =~ /PJ RER Apts to Share/g)){ @array2 = $fields[1]; my %seen; my @uniq = grep { ! $seen{$_}++ } @array2; my $count2 = scalar(@uniq); print "$array2[0] ($count2)","\n" } } print "$count","\n"; ## OUTPUT ## PROVIDENCE (1) JOHNSTON (1) JOHNSTON (1) JOHNSTON (1) 6

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  • Practices for keeping JavaScript and CSS in sync?

    - by Rene Saarsoo
    I'm working on a large JavaScript-heavy app. Several pieces of JavaScript have some related CSS rules. Our current practice is for each JavaScript file to have an optional related CSS file, like so: MyComponent.js // Adds CSS class "my-comp" to div MyComponent.css // Defines .my-comp { color: green } This way I know that all CSS related to MyComponent.js will be in MyComponent.css. But the thing is, I all too often have very little CSS in those files. And all too often I feel that it's too much effort to create a whole file to just contain few lines of CSS - it would be easier to just hardcode the styles inside JavaScript. But this would be the path to the dark side... Lately I've been thinking of embedding the CSS directly inside JavaScript - so it could still be extracted in the build process and merged into one large CSS file. This way I wouldn't have to create a new file for every little CSS-piece. Additionally when I move/rename/delete the JavaScript file I don't have to additionally move/rename/delete the CSS file. But how to embed CSS inside JavaScript? In most other languages I would just use string, but JavaScript has some issues with multiline strings. The following looks IMHO quite ugly: Page.addCSS("\ .my-comp > p {\ font-weight: bold;\ color: green;\ }\ "); What other practices have you for keeping your JavaScript and CSS in sync?

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  • jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

    - by deostroll
    There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

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