Search Results

Search found 3286 results on 132 pages for 'piece'.

Page 98/132 | < Previous Page | 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105  | Next Page >

• Image File In Text Editor - What Are The Characters? What's the Process?

  - by TheDarkIn1978

  i'm currently in the process of conceptualizing an art piece for a gallery show next year, so this bizarre question of mine is more than just simple curiosity. if i open up an image file (a .PNG) with Text Edit or Note Pad, the file is presented in textual characters. something like this except: æº"í=™?0Ù:Ã,ÏI8^?K¯pmDHƒÃ?;wÔlD DDF›ä™èÜE[E˜ƒê?¯ƒºäeèçã?'ów+æ1ï‡ê0òHõñ?ò$úîù¥{WÎn}2*Ÿ!y(Ö!%2e9U2µ i4Õ(?=ù(›7}:É?##„G¶VfcVñ[÷D6gvrˆvéZN›=Ù=ó{púp…p?Ók‹oÃvŒÛ»{ùœóüôøW†W–VH\P?P$VTPt^lQ‹_B_S=Q™\Z[Ü)s/{]Œ_û]~¯¿¯Awu˜ùä’JÖ Í*tï[’ÎáÔ=<Æ6?~ZCWSÛpVµ?±ØŒ?nÆ^¨æ??™¡?a¥ë£1µÒÁ#?Gè)G<^mRl™m?jˆj~€"“R–Úª’?u?çO-•m˜â?ìéväˆàˆOä5ùXùûù”]¬]?]›V›œ{X{Óˆ|Ô’Èm{J?4‰Èáæõ}??~Á?óºYáœåüuRFÆ>W|^3Ñ5‰94=,<ú?|1b=2< >ö:?sÃ`¨{úf<f|ÛÖ?ãÊ íâ–âè/_÷O¬}Â?Í›§Ãd’kÃkØ?sSíS? ??øy;-6]ˆ?÷ÌÌÙåËLÈ,l÷uvzNtÆt6Ô6?O ?P?_t_|°N¸]Ÿ{ƒ{è˜3KK> ?x~ò[ñ\ÆXA?x?Ãî?X? ?…°”¸™‘jÂzÕkm~]jObµ·p1°Y‚s?&b”}s?ãËóí-»ñ”÷‰?‡v?ˆ˜WõØ£??æe~;¸n?Ooáa'aÁÎÌ-ª$ª!ª~ ?¨‹CÏpÏO/Á›œ/?80<Ë<§8 can anyone explain what is happening here? are the characters some form translation of pixel data by the text editor? maybe it is completely meaningless / an error? if not, is there a name for this type of data conversion or process?

  Read the article

• [C#] How can we differentiate between SDK class objects and custom class objects?

  - by Nayan

  To give an idea of my requirement, consider these classes - class A { } class B { string m_sName; public string Name { get { return m_sName; } set { m_sName = value; } } int m_iVal; public int Val { get { return m_iVal; } set { m_iVal = value; } } A m_objA; public A AObject { get { return m_objA; } set { m_objA = value; } } } Now, I need to identify the classes of the objects passed to a function void MyFunc(object obj) { Type type = obj.GetType(); foreach (PropertyInfo pi in type.GetProperties()) { if (pi.PropertyType.IsClass) { //I need objects only if (!type.IsGenericType && type.FullName.ToLower() == "system.string") { object _obj = pi.GetValue(obj, null); //do something } } } } I don't like this piece of code - if (!type.IsGenericType && type.FullName.ToLower() == "system.string") { because then i have to filter out classes like, System.Int16, System.Int32, System.Boolean and so on. Is there an elegant way through which I can find out if the object is of a class defined by me and not of system provided basic classes?

  Read the article

• WPF: Invert OpacityMask

  - by Meleak

  Consider the following piece of Xaml <Grid Background="Blue"> <Border Width="100" Height="60" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <Border Background="Red"> <Border.OpacityMask> <VisualBrush> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#FF000000" Background="#00000000"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> </Border> </Border> </Grid> It will look like this because of the OpacityMask whos only non-transparent part is the Foreground of the TextBlock. Now if I switch the Colors for Foreground and Background in the TextBlock like this <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#00000000" Background="#FF000000"/> I get this because the even though the Foreground is transparent the Background behind it is not, resulting in a useless OpacityMask :) Is there anyway I can get this? Basically an inverted OpacityMask The reason I'm asking this is because of the answer I made in this question, using the approach from this link. Even though it works, it feels very "hacky". Am I missing some other way to do this here? Update To clarify, even though my example is about a TextBlock, it could be anything. Ellipse/Image/Path etc. The feature I'm after is "Invert OpacityMask"

  Read the article

• Navigation Controller Views in Landscape

  - by Mahadevan S

  Hi, I have set up a navigation controller ( navController ) in Portrait mode to which I push all the viewcontrollers I have. Now when a user switches to Landscape mode, I need to display all the views as a coverflow. For this I use [navController viewControllers] to get all the view controllers in the stack. In the Landscape view controller NSArray * arr = [navController viewControllers]; self.view = [arr objectAtIndex:0]; [arr objectAtIndex:0]; returns the correct view ( the bottombost viewcontroller's view in the nav stack ). My problem is these views never get displayed ie the views extracted from the navController never gets displayed. If i try to create a new view and insert all the subviews of a view, it gets displayed. eg : UIView * newView = [[UIView alloc] init]; for (UIView *subView in [arr objectAtIndex:0]) [newView addSubView:subView]; self.view = newView; The above piece of code works. But simply adding the view doesnt seem to work.. Can anyone explain the solution? Many thanks

  Read the article

• remove text in parentheses and the parentheses using .filter() or .slice()

  - by liz

  i have a table with code like this: <tr> <th scope="row">5-17</th> <td>23.6 (22.0-24.0)</td> <td>18.0 (17-20.0)</td> </tr> <tr> <th scope="row">Total 0-17</th> <td>20.6 (8-15.6)</td> <td>16.1 (22.2-24.0)</td> </tr> i am using the following function to find the contents of the table cells and bring it into an array: var l1 = $('#datatable td:nth-child(2)').map(function() { return $(this).text(); }).get(); the table fragment's id is "datatable". this returns properly, however i am putting this array into jqPlot and it cant read the stuff between the parentheses or the parentheses themselves. i need the data to remain in the table however because we are displaying both the table and the chart. i cant reformat (add spans around the content i want to remove etc) because these tables are being generated by another piece of software. i think what i need to do is either slice off after the space or use a regex to find and remove. not sure how to proceed with either of these. thanks!

  Read the article

• Extension methods conflict

  - by Yochai Timmer

  Lets say I have 2 extension methods to string, in 2 different namespaces: namespace test1 { public static class MyExtensions { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 1; } } } namespace test2 { public static class MyExtensions2 { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 2; } } } These methods are just for example, they don't really do anything. Now lets consider this piece of code: using System; using test1; using test2; namespace blah { public static class Blah { public Blah() { string a = "test"; int i = a.TestMethod(); //Which one is chosen ? } } } I know that only one of the extension methods will be chosen. Which one will it be ? and why ? How can I choose a certain method from a certain namespace ? Edit: Usually I'd use Namespace.ClassNAME.Method() ... But that just beats the whole idea of extension methods. And I don't think you can use Variable.Namespace.Method()

  Read the article

• How to solve concurrency problems in ASP.NET Windows-Workflow and ActiveRecord/NHibernate?

  - by Famous Nerd

  I have found that ActiveRecord uses the Session-Scope object within the ASP.NET application and that if the web-site is read-write we can have a tug-o-war between the Workflow's own Data-Access SessionScope and that of the ASP.NET site. I would really like to have the WindowsWorkflow Runtime use the same object session as the web-site however, they have different lifetimes. Sometimes, a web-request may save a very simple piece of data which would execute quickly however, if the web-site kicks off a workflow process.. how can that workflow make data-modifications while still allowing the Appliaction_EndRequest to dispose the ASP.NET SessionScope ... it's like ownership of the SessionScope should be shared between the workflow runtime and the ASP.NET website. Manual Workflow Scheduler may be the Savior... if a workflow is synchronous and merely uses CallExternalMethod to interact with the Host then we could constrain all the data-access to the host.. then the sessionScope can exist once. This however, won't solve the problem of a delay activity... if this delay fires, we could need to update data... in this case we'd need an isolated Session Scope and concurrency may arise. This however, differs from SharePoint workflows where it seems that the SharePoint workflow can save data from the web and the workflow and that concurrency is handled through other means. Can anyone offer any suggestions on how to allow the workflow to manage data and play nice with ASP.NET web sites?

  Read the article

• can a OOM be caused by not finding enough contiguous memory?

  - by raticulin

  I start some java code with -Xmx1024m, and at some point I get an hprof due to OOM. The hprof shows just 320mb, and give me a stack trace: at java.util.Arrays.copyOfRange([CII)[C (Arrays.java:3209) at java.lang.String.<init>([CII)V (String.java:215) at java.lang.StringBuilder.toString()Ljava/lang/String; (StringBuilder.java:430) ... This comes from a large string I am copying. I remember reading somewhere (cannot find where) what happened is these cases is: process still has not consumed 1gb of memory, is way below even if heap still below 1gb, it needs some amount of memory, and for copyOfRange() it has to be continuous memory, so even if it is not over the limit yet, it cannot find a large enough piece of memory on the host, it fails with an OOM. I have tried to look for doc on this (copyOfRange() needs a block of continuous memory), but could not find any. The other possible culprit would be not enough permgen memory. Can someone confirm or refute the continuous memory hypothesis? Any pointer to some doc would help too.

  Read the article

• "error creating files compilation failed" when publishing for iOS on Flash CS5.5

  - by user1662660

  I'm currently developing an app using Flash CS5.5 for iOS. All of my .ipa files have been created and tested with no problems so far. Until now. I'm using Windows. It only started today and happens to every file I try to publish. I get the error "error creating files. compilation failed..." That is the only piece of information I am given about the error. All of my certificates and provisioning profiles are legit and still valid. Has anyone had any experience with this before? Since posting the question I have found a resolution that I will post for anyone who encounters the same problem. In this case I was unable to publish my .ipa file as I was opening the document (and Flash) from the start menu in Windows 7. To fix this instance of the issue I simply opened Flash first and then opened my document and I was able to publish.

  Read the article

• Using perl to split a line that may contain whitespace

  - by Tommy Fisk

  Okay, so I'm using perl to read in a file that contains some general configuration data. This data is organized into headers based on what they mean. An example follows: [vars] # This is how we define a variable! $var = 10; $str = "Hello thar!"; # This section contains flags which can be used to modify module behavior # All modules read this file and if they understand any of the flags, use them [flags] Verbose = true; # Notice the errant whitespace! [path] WinPath = default; # Keyword which loads the standard PATH as defined by the operating system. Append with additonal values. LinuxPath = default; Goal: Using the first line as an example "$var = 10;", I'd like to use the split function in perl to create an array that contains the characters "$var" and "10" as elements. Using another line as an example: Verbose = true; # Should become [Verbose, true] aka no whitespace is present This is needed because I will be outputting these values to a new file (which a different piece of C++ code will read) to instantiate dictionary objects. Just to give you a little taste of what it might look like (just making it up as I go along): define new dictionary name: [flags] # Start defining keys => values new key name: Verbose new value val: 10 # End dictionary Oh, and here is the code I currently have along with what it is doing (incorrectly): sub makeref($) { my @line = (split (/=/)); # Produces ["Verbose", " true"]; }

  Read the article

• Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

  - by Leeks and Leaks

  I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• get lattitude and longitude of a place against its zipcode

  - by yunas

  Hello i have used the following code to get the location of the particular place on map using the following piece of code NSString * urlString = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?key=%@&output=xml&q=%@",GoogleMapsAPIKey,[placeName stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <kml xmlns="http://earth.google.com/kml/2.0"><Response> <name>postdam</name> <Status> <code>200</code> <request>geocode</request> </Status> <Placemark id="p1"> <address>Potsdam, Germany</address> <AddressDetails Accuracy="4" xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:ciq:xsdschema:xAL:2.0"><Country><CountryNameCode>DE</CountryNameCode><CountryName>Deutschland</CountryName><AdministrativeArea><AdministrativeAreaName>Brandenburg</AdministrativeAreaName><SubAdministrativeArea><SubAdministrativeAreaName>Potsdam</SubAdministrativeAreaName><Locality><LocalityName>Potsdam</LocalityName></Locality></SubAdministrativeArea></AdministrativeArea></Country></AddressDetails> <ExtendedData> <LatLonBox north="52.4513968" south="52.3424614" east="13.1866602" west="12.9305414" /> </ExtendedData> <Point><coordinates>13.0586008,52.3969627,0</coordinates></Point> </Placemark> </Response></kml> but now i want to get the information agianst the zipcode how to do that using the maps.google.com ???

  Read the article

• EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

  - by Lorenzo

  In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

  Read the article

• handling java exception

  - by Noona

  This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

  Read the article

• Cannot hide a UIButton - Please help!

  - by Neurofluxation

  Hey again, I have the following code: visitSite.hidden = YES; For some reason, when I click a UIButton and call this piece of code, the visitSite button does not hide. The code is within this block: -(IBAction)welcomeButtonPressed:(id)sender { [UIButton beginAnimations:@"welcomeAnimation" context:NULL]; [UIButton setAnimationDuration:1.5]; [UIButton SetAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(nowHideThisSiteButton:finished:context:)]; [UIButton setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionCurlUp forView:self.view cache:YES]; ((UIView *)sender).hidden = YES; [UIButton commitAnimations]; } and the stop selector below: -(void)nowHideThisSiteButton:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL *)finished context:(void *)context { visitSite.hidden = YES; } I've also tried [visitSite setHidden:YES]; and that fails as well. ALSO I've noticed that the setAnimationDidStopSelector does not get called at all. Also, visitSite (when NSLogged) equals: <UIButton: 0x1290f0; frame = (0 0; 320 460); opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; layer = <CALayer: 0x1290f0>> visitSite.hidden (when NSLogged) equals: NULL Any more ideas? :(

  Read the article

• jquery/javascript - image resize to fit screen

  - by alberto

  not an expert programmer. i created this code to resize photos/images to fit the screen, considering the space available for the nav bar. the script happens on load of image, and on click of the navigation. is it a good piece of code, or could it be done better? any browser issues? in the html: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#photo").load(function(){ resize(); }); $(".navigation img").click(function(){ var imgPath = $(this).attr("src"); $("#photo").attr({ src: imgPath }); resize(); return false; }); }); while this is my function resize: resize = function() { var borderVt=150; //value based on css style. bottom bar + padding of photoContain var borderHz=40; //value based on css style photoContain padding $("#photo").css("width", "auto").css("height", "auto"); // Remove existing CSS $("#photo").removeAttr("width").removeAttr("height"); // Remove HTML attributes var origSizeW = $("#photo").width(); var origSizeH = $("#photo").height(); var ratioVt=(origSizeW/origSizeH); var ratioHz=(origSizeH/origSizeW); var winW = $(window).width(); var winH = $(window).height(); var screenSizeW=Math.round(winW-borderHz); var screenSizeH=Math.round(winH-borderVt); if (origSizeW>=origSizeH){ var newHeight = Math.round(screenSizeW*ratioHz); if (newHeight <= screenSizeH){ $("#photo").css("width", screenSizeW); // Set new width $("#photo").css("height", newHeight); } else{ $("#photo").css("height", screenSizeH); } } else{ $("#photo").css("height", screenSizeH); // Set new height } };

  Read the article

• Practices for keeping JavaScript and CSS in sync?

  - by Rene Saarsoo

  I'm working on a large JavaScript-heavy app. Several pieces of JavaScript have some related CSS rules. Our current practice is for each JavaScript file to have an optional related CSS file, like so: MyComponent.js // Adds CSS class "my-comp" to div MyComponent.css // Defines .my-comp { color: green } This way I know that all CSS related to MyComponent.js will be in MyComponent.css. But the thing is, I all too often have very little CSS in those files. And all too often I feel that it's too much effort to create a whole file to just contain few lines of CSS - it would be easier to just hardcode the styles inside JavaScript. But this would be the path to the dark side... Lately I've been thinking of embedding the CSS directly inside JavaScript - so it could still be extracted in the build process and merged into one large CSS file. This way I wouldn't have to create a new file for every little CSS-piece. Additionally when I move/rename/delete the JavaScript file I don't have to additionally move/rename/delete the CSS file. But how to embed CSS inside JavaScript? In most other languages I would just use string, but JavaScript has some issues with multiline strings. The following looks IMHO quite ugly: Page.addCSS("\ .my-comp > p {\ font-weight: bold;\ color: green;\ }\ "); What other practices have you for keeping your JavaScript and CSS in sync?

  Read the article

• How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

  - by Lorraine Bernard

  I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

  Read the article

• Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

  - by Yuval

  When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

  Read the article

• iPhone: Cell imageViews repeating when loaded from url

  - by araid

  I'm developing a demo RSS reader for iPhone. I obviously have a tableview to display the feeds, and then a detailed view. Some of this feeds have a thumbnail that I want to display on cell.imageview of the table, and some don't. The problem is that when scrolling the table, loaded thumbnails start repeating on other cells, and I end up with a thumbnail on every cell. Here's a piece of my code. I may upload screenshots later - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ UITableViewCell * cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: @"rssItemCell"]; if(nil == cell){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"rssItemCell"]autorelease]; } BlogRss *item = [[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [item title]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [item description]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Thumbnail if exists if(noticia.imagePath != nil){ NSData* imageData; @try { imageData = [[NSData alloc]initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:item.imagePath]]; } @catch (NSException * e) { //Some error while downloading data } @finally { item.image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [imageData release]; } } if(item.image != nil){ [[cell imageView] setImage:item.image]; } return cell; } Any help will be very appreciated.

  Read the article

• jquery ready function: script not detecting a function

  - by deostroll

  There is a web page with place holder (a normal div). Via ajax calls I am loading a <form> and a <script> into the place holder. The script contains necessary javascript to initialize the form (i.e. for e.g. disable the controls so as to make form read-only, etc). Here is a piece of code I have; it works, but the commented part doesn't work. Because the script engine cannot find the object tristate_DisableControl which is a function in one of those scripts I call via ajax. $(document).ready(function() { // $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { // if (typeof (window.tristate_DisableControl) == 'undefined') { // if (typeof (window.console) != 'undefnied') // console.log((new Date()).toTimeString() + ' not logable'); // pausecomp(1000); // } // else // tristate_DisableControl(this); // }); //end $('#site_prefrences_content div').each() setTimeout(function() { $('#site_preferences_content div').each(function() { tristate_DisableControl(this); }) }, 1000); }); I thought by the time $(document).ready() executes the DOM will be properly loaded...

  Read the article

• Which is a good way to maintain resources for Internationalization in .Net

  - by ashtee

  I have thought of three approaches to create and maintain resources in .Net projects for WinForms using Visual Studio 2008. (I am sure there should be more than three ways.) I need to decide on one before starting to implement internationalization for our product. Have individual sets of resource files (resx) for each windows form or piece of UI (a custom control) in each .net project. These are auto generated by Visual Studio when Localizable property is set to true in the form or control properties. Have one resource file per .net project. This is added manually and updated manually with the resource strings and messages. Have one resource manager project that has resources for all the components for a set of .net projects. Personally, I do not like the first approach as it creates numerous resources files. The only advantage we get in this approach is that we do not need to set text in UI elements manually. I like second and third approach as they are easy to maintain and there is only one set of resources that you need to handle. So no duplication of strings and messages. Easy for the translators also. What are your thoughts? Please share.

  Read the article

• Selectively replacing words outside of tags using regular expressions in PHP?

  - by Gary Willoughby

  I have a paragraph of text and i want to replace some words using PHP (preg_replace). Here's a sample piece of text: This lesson addresses rhyming [one]words and ways[/one] that students may learn to identify these words. Topics include learning that rhyming words sound alike and these sounds all come from the [two]ending of the words[/two]. This can be accomplished by having students repeat sets of rhyming words so that they can say them and hear them. The students will also participate in a variety of rhyming word activities. In order to demonstrate mastery the students will listen to [three]sets of words[/three] and tell the teacher if the words rhyme or not. If you notice there are many occurances of the word 'words'. I want to replace all the occurances that don't occur inside any of the tags with the word 'birds'. So it looks like this: This lesson addresses rhyming [one]words and ways[/one] that students may learn to identify these birds. Topics include learning that rhyming birds sound alike and these sounds all come from the [two]ending of the words[/two]. This can be accomplished by having students repeat sets of rhyming birds so that they can say them and hear them. The students will also participate in a variety of rhyming word activities. In order to demonstrate mastery the students will listen to [three]sets of words[/three] and tell the teacher if the birds rhyme or not. Would you use regular expressions to accomplish this? Can a regular expression accomplish this?

  Read the article

• jquery form wizard validation

  - by SoulieBaby

  Hi all, I'm trying to implement a validation script (bassistance) with a jquery form wizard (http://www.jankoatwarpspeed.com/post/2009/09/28/webform-wizard-jquery.aspx) but I'm having some problems. On the page for the jquery wizard, a guy named "Tommy" came up with a piece of code to implement bassistance with the code. But for some reason I can't get it to work. It comes up saying if the field needs to be filled in etc and the next button doesn't work - which is fine, BUT, if I fill in all the fields, the next button still doesn't work.. function createNextButton(i) { var stepName = "step" + i; $("#" + stepName + "commands").append("<a href='#' id='" + stepName + "Next' class='next'>Next ></a>"); /* VALIDATION */ if (options.validationEnabled) { var stepIsValid = true; $("#" + stepName + " :input").each(function(index) { stepIsValid = !element.validate().element($(this)) && stepIsValid; }); if (!stepIsValid) { return false; } } /* END VALIDATION */ $("#" + stepName + "Next").bind("click", function(e) { $("#" + stepName).hide(); $("#step" + (i + 1)).show(); if (i + 2 == count) $(submmitButtonName).show(); selectStep(i + 1); }); } Could someone help me figure this one out? :)

  Read the article

• how to join tables sql server

  - by Rick

  Im having some trouble with joining two tables. This is what my two tables look like: Table 1 Customer_ID CustomerName Add. 1000 John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1002 Sam Carter Table 2 Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 1002 NY 70 1000 ... ... 1001 1001 1002 Desired: Sensor_ID Location Temp CustIDFK 1000 NY 70 John Smith 1002 NY 70 Sam Carter 1000 ... ... John Smith 1001 Mike Coles 1001 1002 I have made Customer_ID from table 1 my primary key, created custIDFK in table 2 and set that as my foreign key. I am really new to sql server so I am still having trouble with the whole relationship piece of it. My goal is to match one customer_ID with one Sensor_ID. The problem is that the table 2 does not have "unique IDs" since they repeat so I cant set that to my foreign key. I know I will have to do either an inner join or outer join, I just dont know how to link the sensor id with customer one. I was thinking of giving my sensor_ID a unique ID but the data that is being inserted into table 2 is coming from another program. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105  | Next Page >