Search Results

Search found 5464 results on 219 pages for 'effect'.

Page 183/219 | < Previous Page | 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190  | Next Page >

  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

    Read the article

  • Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

    - by Mark
    I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • TinyMCE loading lang/plugins/theme from incorrect directory

    - by Anonymous
    I am having trouble with TinyMCE. When it is searching for the lang, theme, and plugins, it is supposed to look in the directory where the base script files are located. however, instead of doing that, it is using the current loaded page as the root for searching. I am looking at the "loadScripts" function in the src file, but changing the path doesn't seem to provide any meaningful effect. Here is the unmodified loadScripts function for your review: // Load scripts function loadScripts() { if (s.language) sl.add(tinymce.baseURL + '/langs/' + s.language + '.js'); if (s.theme && s.theme.charAt(0) != '-' && !ThemeManager.urls[s.theme]) ThemeManager.load(s.theme, 'themes/' + s.theme + '/editor_template' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); each(explode(s.plugins), function(p) { if (p && p.charAt(0) != '-' && !PluginManager.urls[p]) { // Skip safari plugin for other browsers if (!isWebKit && p == 'safari') return; PluginManager.load(p, 'plugins/' + p + '/editor_plugin' + tinymce.suffix + '.js'); } }); // Init when que is loaded sl.loadQueue(function() { if (!t.removed) t.init(); }); }; loadScripts(); }

    Read the article

  • GWT: creating a text widget for highly customized data entry

    - by Caffeine Coma
    I'm trying to implement a kind of "guided typing" widget for data entry, in which the user's text entry is highly controlled and filtered. When the user types a particular character I need to intercept and filter it before displaying it in the widget. Imagine if you will, a Unix shell embedded as a webapp; that's the kind of thing I'm trying to implement. I've tried two approaches. In the first, I extend a TextArea, and add a KeyPressHandler to filter the characters. This works, but the browser-provided spelling correction is totally inappropriate, and I don't see how to turn it off. I've tried: DOM.setElementProperty(textArea.getElement(), "spellcheck", "false"); But that seems to have no effect- I still get the red underlines over "typos". In the second approach I use a FocusWidget to get KeyPress events, and a separate Label or HTML widget to present the filtered characters back to the user. This avoids the spelling correction issue, but since the FocusWidget is not a TextArea, the browser tends to intercept certain typed characters for internal use; e.g. FireFox will use the "/" character to begin a "Quick Find" on the page, and hitting Backspace will load the previous web page. Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to do?

    Read the article

  • Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

    - by gibberish
    Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

    Read the article

  • Dealing With Java Default Level Access Specifiers

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I've seen some code in a project recently where some fields in a couple classes have been using the default access modifier without good reason to. It almost looks like a case of "oops, forgot to make these private". Since the classes are used almost exclusively outside of the package they are defined in, the fields are not visible from the calling code, and are treated as private. So the mistake/oversight would not be very noticeable. However, encapsulation is broken. If I wanted to add a new class to the existing package, I could then mess with internal data in objects using fields with default access. So, my questions: Are there any best practices concerning default access specifiers that I should be aware of? Anything that would help prevent this type of accident from re-occurring? Are are any annotations which might say something to the effect of "I really meant for these to be default access"? Using CheckStyle, or any other Eclipse plugins, is there any way to flag instances of default fields, or disallow any not accompanied by, say, a "//default access" comment trailing them?

    Read the article

  • Jquery drag /drop and clone

    - by Sajeev
    Hi I need to achive this .. I have a set of droppable items ( basically I am droping designs on a apparel ) and I am dropping a clone.. If I don't like the dropped object (designs) - I want to delete that by doing something like hidden . But I am unable to do that. Please help me.. here is the code var clone; $(document).ready(function(){ $(".items").draggable({helper: 'clone',cursor: 'hand'}); $(".droparea").droppable({ accept: ".items", hoverClass: 'dropareahover', tolerance: 'pointer', drop: function(ev, ui) { var dropElemId = ui.draggable.attr("id"); var dropElem = ui.draggable.html(); clone = $(dropElem).clone(); // clone it and hold onto the jquery object clone.id="newId"; clone.css("position", "absolute"); clone.css("top", ui.absolutePosition.top); clone.css("left", ui.absolutePosition.left); clone.draggable({ containment: 'parent' ,cursor: 'crosshair'}); $(this).append(clone); alert("done dragging "); /lets assume I have a delete button when I click that clone should dissapear so that I can drop another design - but the following code has no effect //and the item is still visible , how to make it dissapear ? $('#newId').css("visibility","hidden"); } }); });

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

    Read the article

  • Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

    - by berry120
    Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

    Read the article

  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

    Read the article

  • How do I stop Chrome from yellowing my site's input boxes?

    - by davebug
    Among other text and visual aids on a form submission, post-validation, I'm coloring my input boxes red to signify the interactive area needing attention. On Chrome (and for Google Toolbar users) the auto-fill feature re-colors my input forms yellow. Here's the complex issue: I want auto-complete allowed on my forms, as it speeds users logging in. I am going to check into the ability to turn the autocomplete attribute to off if/when there's an error triggered, but it is a complex bit of coding to programmatically turn off the auto-complete for the single effected input on a page. This, to put it simply, would be a major headache. So to try to avoid that issue, is there any simpler method of stopping Chrome from re-coloring the input boxes? [edit] I tried the !important suggestion below and it had no effect. I have not yet checked Google Toolbar to see if the !important attribute woudl work for that. As far as I can tell, there isn't any means other than using the autocomplete attribute (which does appear to work).

    Read the article

  • Content boundary with rounded corners

    - by Rui Carneiro
    I am using CSS rounded corners for firefox and I have the following problem with content boundaries: Code <html> <head> <style> #outter { width: 200px; margin: auto; text-align: center; border: 1px solid #333; -moz-border-radius: 15px; } #inner { background: red; opacity: 0.5; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="outter"> <div id="inner">text</div> </div> </body> </html> Effect I can avoid this problem by defining -moz-border-radius for each outter's child. There is any other way I am missing?

    Read the article

  • are C functions declared in <c____> headers gauranteed to be in the global namespace as well as std?

    - by Evan Teran
    So this is something that I've always wondered but was never quite sure about. So it is strictly a matter of curiosity, not a real problem. As far as I understand, what you do something like #include <cstdlib> everything (except macros of course) are declared in the std:: namespace. Every implementation that I've ever seen does this by doing something like the following: #include <stdlib.h> namespace std { using ::abort; // etc.... } Which of course has the effect of things being in both the global namespace and std. Is this behavior guaranteed? Or is it possible that an implementation could put these things in std but not in the global namespace? The only way I can think of to do that would be to have your libstdc++ implement every c function itself placing them in std directly instead of just including the existing libc headers (because there is no mechanism to remove something from a namespace). Which is of course a lot of effort with little to no benefit. The essence of my question is, is the following program strictly conforming and guaranteed to work? #include <cstdio> int main() { ::printf("hello world\n"); }

    Read the article

  • How do I controll clipping with non-opaque graphics-item's in Qt?

    - by JJacobsson
    I have a bunch of QGraphicsSvgItem's in a QGraphicsScene that are drawn connected by QGraphicsLineItem's. This show's a graph of a tree-structure. What I want to do is provide a feature where everything but a selected sub-tree becomes transparent. A kind of "highlight this sub-tree" feature. That part was easy, but the results are ugly because now the lines can be seen through the semi-transparent svg's. I am looking for some way to still clip other QGraphicsItem's in the scene to the svg item's, giving the effect that the svg's are semi-transparent windows to the background. I know this code does not use svg's but I figure you can replace that yourself if you are so inclined. int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QGraphicsScene scene; for( int i = 0; i < 10; ++i ) { QGraphicsLineItem* line = new QGraphicsLineItem; line->setLine( i * 25.0 + 1.0, 0, i * 25.0 + 23.0, 0 ); scene.addItem( line ); } for( int i = 0; i < 11; ++i ) { QGraphicsEllipseItem* ellipse = new QGraphicsEllipseItem; ellipse->setRect( (i * 25.0) - 9.0, -9.0, 18.0, 18.0f ); ellipse->setBrush( QBrush( Qt::green, Qt::SolidPattern ) ); ellipse->setOpacity( 0.5 ); scene.addItem( ellipse ); } QGraphicsView view( &scene ); view.show(); return app.exec(); } I would like the line's to not be seen behind the circle's. I have tried fiddling with the depth-buffer and the stencil buffer using opengl rendering to no avail. How do I get the QGraphicsSvgItem's (or QGraphicsEllipseItem's in the example code) to still clip the lines even though they are semi-transparent?

    Read the article

  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

    Read the article

  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

    Read the article

  • How to "reset" subviews of scrollview for new items?

    - by Tom Tallak Solbu
    I have a MasterViewController displaying Items. Selecting an Item (ItemA), displays images of ItemA in a DetailViewController. The DeatilViewController contains a scrollView, displaying all the images. When tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath is called, the images is added to an UIImageView, that is tagged and added as a subview to a scrollview. NSUInteger i; for (i = 1; i <= numberOfImages; i++) { NSString *imageName = [ItemAImages objectAtIndex:i-1]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:imageName]; UIImageView *imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]; imageView.tag = i; [scrollView addSubview:imageView]; } Works fine. But when I go back to the MasterViewController, and selects a ItemB, the ItemA is still displayed, like the iPhone simulator refuses to forget the previous scrollview,containing ItemA images. I have tried [subview removeFromSuperview]; which results in either no scrollview at all, or no effect. Depending on when this method is called. How can I "reset" the scrollview for the next Item?

    Read the article

  • Getting a table cell to become a different color on mouseover

    - by Andrei Korchagin
    Currently, when I create a table, and I mouseover a cell, that entire row is highlighted. I'm trying to make it so that it is only the immediate cell. Here's all the CSS code that pertains to tables in my stylesheet: table{margin:.5em 0 1em;} table td,table th{text-align:center;border-right:1px solid #fff;padding:.4em .8em;} table th{background-color:#5e5e5e;color:#fff;text-transform:uppercase;font-weight:bold;border- bottom:1px solid #e8e1c8;} table td{background-color:#eee;} table th a{color:#d6f325;} table th a:hover{color:#fff;} table tr.even td{background-color:#ddd;} table tr:hover td{background-color:#fff;} table.nostyle td,table.nostyle th,table.nostyle tr.even td,table.nostyle tr:hover td{border:0;background:none;background-color:transparent;} I know it's probably a simple fix but I can't find where to make it work. Everything I try just kills the mouseover effect entirely rather than making it the way I want it. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Developing a 2D Game for Windows Phone 8

    - by Vaccano
    I would like to develop a 2D game for Windows Phone 8. I am a professional Application Developer by day and this seems like a fun hobby. But I have been disapointed trying to get going. It seems that 2D games (far and away the majority of games) do not have any real support. It seems the Windows Phone makers did not include support for Direct2D. So unless you are planning to make a fully 3D app, you are out of luck. So, if you just wanted to make a nice 2D app, these are your choices: Write your game using Xaml and C# (Performance Issues?) Write your game using Direct3D and but only draw on one plane. Use the DirectX Took Kit found on codeplex. It allows you to use the dying XNA framework's API for development. Number 3 seems the best for my game. But I hate to waste my time learning the XNA api when Microsoft has clearly stated that it is not going to be supported going forward. Number 2 would work, but 3D development is really hard. I would rather not have to do all that to get the 2D effect. (Assuming Direct2D is easier. I have yet to look into that.) Number 1 seems the easiest, but I worry that my app will not run well if it is based off of xaml rendering rather than DirectX. What is the suggested method from Microsoft? And who decided that 2D games were going to get shortchanged?

    Read the article

  • Does waitpid yield valid status information for a child process that has already exited?

    - by dtrebbien
    If I fork a child process, and the child process exits before the parent even calls waitpid, then is the exit status information that is set by waitpid still valid? If so, when does it become not valid; i.e., how do I ensure that I can call waitpid on the child pid and continue to get valid exit status information after an arbitrary amount of time, and how do I "clean up" (tell the OS that I am no longer interested in the exit status information for the finished child process)? I was playing around with the following code, and it appears that the exit status information is valid for at least a few seconds after the child finishes, but I do not know for how long or how to inform the OS that I won't be calling waitpid again: #include <assert.h> #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/wait.h> int main() { pid_t pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to fork\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } else if (pid == 0) { // code for child process _exit(17); } else { // code for parent sleep(3); int status; waitpid(pid, &status, 0); waitpid(pid, &status, 0); // call `waitpid` again just to see if the first call had an effect assert(WIFEXITED(status)); assert(WEXITSTATUS(status) == 17); } return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

    Read the article

  • JQuery Delegate and using traveral options in function

    - by Brian
    I am having trouble figuring out how to use the JQuery delegate function to do what I require. Basically, I need to allow users to add Panels (i.e. divs) to a form dynamically by selecting a button. Then when a user clicks a button within a given Panel, I want to be able to to something to that Panel (like change the color in this example). Unfortunately, it seems that references to the JQuery traversing functions don't work in this instance. Can anybody explain how to achieve this effect? Is there anyway to bind a different delegate to the each panel as its added. $('.addPanels').delegate('*', 'click', function() { $(this).parent.css('background-color', 'black'); $('.placeholder').append('Add item'); }); <div class="addPanels"> <div class="panel"> <a href="#" class="addLink">Add item</a> text</div> <div class="placeholder"/> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Common "truisms" needing correction the most

    - by Charles Bretana
    In addition to "I never met a man I didn't like", Will Rogers had another great little ditty I've always remembered. It went: "It's not what you don't know that'll hurt you, it's what you do know that ain't so." We all know or subscribe to many IT "truisms" that mostly have a strong basis in fact, in something in our professional careers, something we learned from others, lessons learned the hard way by ourselves, or by others who came before us. Unfortuntely, as these truisms spread throughout the community, the details—why they came about and the caveats that affect when they apply—tend to not spread along with them. We all have a tendency to look for, and latch on to, small "rules" or principles that we can use to avoid doing a complete exhaustive analysis for every decision. But even though they are correct much of the time, when we sometimes misapply them, we pay a penalty that could be avoided by understooding the details behind them. For example, when user-defined functions were first introduced in SQL Server it became "common knowledge" within a year or so that they had extremely bad performance (because it required a re-compilation for each use) and should be avoided. This "trusim" still increases many database developers' aversion to using UDFs, even though Microsoft's introduction of InLine UDFs, which do not suffer from this issue at all, mitigates this issue substantially. In recent years I have run into numerous DBAs who still believe you should "never" use UDFs, because of this. What other common not-so-"trusims" do you know, which many developers believe, that are not quite as universally true as is commonly understood, and which the developer community would benefit from being better educated about? Please include why it was "true" to start off with, and under what circumstances it's not true. Limit responses to issues that are technical, where the "common" application of a "rule or principle" is in fact correct most of the time, or was correct back when it was first elucidated, but—in the edge cases, or because of not understanding the principle thoroughly, because technology has changed since it first spread, or applying the rule today without understanding the details behind the rule—can easily backfire or cause the opposite of the intended effect.

    Read the article

  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

    Read the article

  • text-transform cannot change/be overwritten? (css)

    - by Radek
    I am studying css and I do not understand why some OTHER text and line 2 has red underline effect on them. I thought I either changed it for class others or reset it to none for class line2 I tried `text-decoration:none' for both .line2 and .others and the text was still red underlined. <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> .line {color:red; text-transform:uppercase; text-decoration:underline;} .line2 {color:blue; text-transform:none;} .others {color:black; text-transform:lowercase; text-decoration:blink; font-weight:bold;} </style> </head> <body> <div class='line'> line 1 <div class='others'><BR>some OTHER text<BR></DIV> <div class='line2'> <BR>line 2 </div> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Populate two column grid with databinding?

    - by Richard
    How do i populate a two column grid with objects from my observable collection? I've tried to achieve this effect by using the tookits wrap panel but the items just stack. <toolkit:WrapPanel Margin="5,0,0,0" Width="400"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Trips}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Height="236" Width="182"> <Button Style="{StaticResource VasttrafikButtonTrip}"> <StackPanel Width="152" Height="140"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding FromName}" /> <TextBlock FontFamily="Segoe WP Semibold" Text="till" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ToName}" /> </StackPanel> </Button> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" FontSize="16" FontWeight="ExtraBlack" Text="{Binding TravelTimeText}" /> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" Margin="0,-6,0,0" FontSize="16" Text="{Binding TransferCountText}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </toolkit:WrapPanel>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190  | Next Page >