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  • Creating transparent gridlines

    - by Rob Penridge
    I'm trying to get the chart's gridlines to be transparent but it doesn't seem to be supported: http://support.sas.com/documentation/cdl/en/grstatug/63302/HTML/default/viewer.htm#n1f71f6e9v037an1jy274v66z4r1.htm I'm doing to try and blend the gridlines with the chart background color (which in my code can change between colors) which would make the gridlines subtle rather than jarring when background colors change. Here is my code: ** ** TAKE THE DEFAULT STYLE BEING USED. MODIFY IT SO THAT ** GRAPH GRIDLINES WILL BE GREEN AND MOSTLY TRANSPARENT *; proc template; define style my_style; parent = styles.default; style GraphGridLines from GraphGridLines / contrastcolor=green transparency=.05; end; run; ** ** LAYOUT TEMPLATE FOR A SIMPLE SERIES CHART *; proc template; define statgraph mychart; begingraph; layout overlay / wallcolor=black xaxisopts=(display=(line) griddisplay=on) yaxisopts=(display=(line)) ; seriesplot x=name y=height / lineattrs=(color=white); endlayout; endgraph; end; run; ** ** PLOT SAMPLE DATA USING CUSTOM STYLE AND CHART LAYOUT WE JUST DEFINED *; ods graphics / width=640 height=640 ; ods html style=my_style; proc sgrender data=sashelp.class template=mychart; run; ods html close; Is there another way to achieve this effect by blending the green color with the background color?

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  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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  • Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

    - by gibberish
    Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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  • "Detecting" and loading of "plugins" in GAE

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    Hi! I have a "plugin like" architecture and I want to create one instance of each class that implements a dedicated interface and put these in a cache. (To have a singleton-ish effect). The plugins will be provided as jars and put into the app engine war file before the app is uploaded. I have tried to use the ClassPathScanningCandidateComponentProvider as I'm using spring anyway, but this didn't work. The provider complained that it was not able to find the HttpServletResponse class file while scanning the classpath. I can't get around this, when I add the servlet jar, then I'll get of course problems, because the same jar is also provided by the GAE. If I don't, I'm getting the error above... So I tried to add a static initialization code, but of course this doesn't work, because the class is initialized when it's instantiated for the first time. (Well I knew that but it was worth a try) The last chance I currently see is that I create a properties file with all plugin classes when the package is created, but this requires writing of a maven plugin etc. and I'd like to avoid that. Is there something that I am missing?

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

    - by Pascal Van Hecke
    Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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  • jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State

    - by Tim
    I do not want to double post a question; I was trying to post an add-on to my first question that I was looking for additional help. How does one go about this? Here is the original question. jQuery Hover Fade Button with an Active State Was hoping to see if there is a solution to the glitch I found. The problem I am now looking for help with is all other buttons still have the hover effect, but a button that was once active no longer does. <ul class="buttons"> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 1</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 2</a></li> <li><a class="button" href="#">button 3</a></li> </ul> Best way to explain this. If button 2 is clicked – it is now active. Buttons 1 and 3 will still hover. If you click on button 1 – it is now active and button 2 will no longer hover while button 3 will. Eventually when you go through the series of all buttons the animation hover is no longer.

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  • Screenscraping and reverse engineering health based web tool

    - by ArbInv
    Hi There is a publicly available free tool which has been built to help people understand the impact of various risk factors on their health / life expectancy. I am interested in understanding the data that sits behind the tool. To get this out it would require putting in a range of different socio-demographic factors and analyzing the resulting outputs. This would need to be done across many thousand different individual profiles. The tool was probably built on some standard BI platorm. I have no interest in how the tool was built but do want to get to the data within it. The site has a Terms of Use Agreement which includes: Not copying, distribute, adapt, create derivative works of, translate, or otherwise modify the said tool Not decompile, disassemble, reverse assemble, or otherwise reverse engineer the tool. The said institution retains all rights, title and interest in and to the Tool, and any and all modifications thereof, including all copyright, copyright registrations, trade secrets, trademarks, goodwill and confidential and proprietary information related thereto. Would i be in effect breaking the law if i were to point a screen scraping tool which downloaded the data that sits behind the tool in question?? Any advice welcomed? THANKS

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  • My fade in goes to all opaque for it goes to transparent

    - by DerNalia
    So, I'm trying to fade in a transparent div, kinda like hulu does when you click dim lights... here is what i have: //show the bg new Effect.Appear('darkBackgroundLayer', {duration: 0.3}); then when my pop up is initialized // create the div for background dimming if($('darkBackgroundLayer')){ Element.remove('darkBackgroundLayer') } var transparentBG = document.createElement('div'); transparentBG.className = 'darkenBackground'; transparentBG.id = "darkBackgroundLayer" transparentBG.style.display = "none"; document.body.appendChild(transparentBG); and the CSS for the new div .darkenBackground { background-color: rgb(0, 0, 0); opacity: 0.7; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.70; /* FireFox */ filter: alpha(opacity=70); /* IE */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:repeat; position:fixed; top: 0px; left: 0px; } but, currently, it fades in... all the way to a solid back, then jumps to the .7 opacity... ideas?

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  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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  • Getting a table cell to become a different color on mouseover

    - by Andrei Korchagin
    Currently, when I create a table, and I mouseover a cell, that entire row is highlighted. I'm trying to make it so that it is only the immediate cell. Here's all the CSS code that pertains to tables in my stylesheet: table{margin:.5em 0 1em;} table td,table th{text-align:center;border-right:1px solid #fff;padding:.4em .8em;} table th{background-color:#5e5e5e;color:#fff;text-transform:uppercase;font-weight:bold;border- bottom:1px solid #e8e1c8;} table td{background-color:#eee;} table th a{color:#d6f325;} table th a:hover{color:#fff;} table tr.even td{background-color:#ddd;} table tr:hover td{background-color:#fff;} table.nostyle td,table.nostyle th,table.nostyle tr.even td,table.nostyle tr:hover td{border:0;background:none;background-color:transparent;} I know it's probably a simple fix but I can't find where to make it work. Everything I try just kills the mouseover effect entirely rather than making it the way I want it. Thanks in advance!

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  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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  • Tying in .addClass() with other functions?

    - by Anders H
    Assuming an accordion dropdown with the standard form of: <ul> <li> <a href="#">Main Element</a> <ul> <li> <a href="#">Dropdown Element</a> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> I'm using jQuery to expand when the parent element link is clicked: var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function initMenus() { $j('ul.menu ul').hide(); $j.each($j('ul.menu'), function(){ $j('#' + this.id + '.expandfirst ul:first').show(); }); $j('ul.menu li a').click( function() { var checkElement = $j(this).next(); var parent = this.parentNode.parentNode.id; if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('noaccordion')) { $j(this).next().slideToggle('normal'); return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (checkElement.is(':visible'))) { if($j('#' + parent).hasClass('collapsible')) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); } return false; } if((checkElement.is('ul')) && (!checkElement.is(':visible'))) { $j('#' + parent + ' ul:visible').slideUp('normal'); checkElement.slideDown('normal'); return false; } } ); } $j(document).ready(function() {initMenus();}); To add a class to the Main Element when clicked (aka the class is enabled anytime the dropdown is expanded) I'm trying to use .toggleClass(className) without luck, most likely to my positioning. Where can I add this element to get the desired effect?

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  • JQuery: using .LIVE problems

    - by TeddTedd
    I have the following JQuery code: $("#myDIV li:eq(0)").live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(1)").live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(2)").live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(3)").live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); And realized it's really inefficient. So I tried the following, which I believe is much more effect; however, the code does not work: var tab_node = $("#myDIV li"); tab_node.eq(0).live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); tab_node.eq(1).live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); tab_node.eq(2).live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); tab_node.eq(3).live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); Any idea how I can make my code more efficient while also work? UPDATE: From the answers below, it sounds like these two statements are not equalavent. New Question: Is there any way to run my original code more efficient?

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  • Custom Image Button and Radio/Toggle Button from Common Base Class

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, I would like to create a set of custom controls that are basically image buttons (it's a little more complex than that, but that's the underlying effect I'm going for) that I've seen a few different examples for. However, I would like to further extend that to also allow radio/toggle buttons. What I'd like to do is have a common abstract class called ImageButtonBase that has default implementations for ImageSource and Text, etc. That makes a regular ImageButton implementation pretty easy. The issue I am having is creating the RadioButton flavor of it. As I see it, there are at least three options: It would be easy to create something that derives from RadioButton, but then I can't use the abstract class I've created. I could change the abstract class to an interface, but then I lose the abstract implementations, and will in fact have duplication of code. I could derive from my abstract class, and re-implement the RadioButton-type properties and events (IsChecked, GroupName, etc.), but that certainly doesn't seem like a great idea. Note: I have seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2362641/how-to-get-a-group-of-toggle-buttons-to-act-like-radio-buttons-in-wpf, but what I want to do is a little more complex. I'm just wondering if anybody has an example of an implementation, or something that might be adapted to this kind of scenario. I can see pros and cons of each of the ideas above, but each comes with potential pitfalls. Thanks, wTs

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  • How do you calculate div and mod of floating point numbers?

    - by boost
    In Perl, the % operator seems to assume integers. For instance: sub foo { my $n1 = shift; my $n2 = shift; print "perl's mod=" . $n1 % $n2, "\n"; my $res = $n1 / $n2; my $t = int($res); print "my div=$t", "\n"; $res = $res - $t; $res = $res * $n2; print "my mod=" . $res . "\n\n"; } foo( 3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( 3044.952963, -7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, 7.1 ); foo( -3044.952963, -7.1 ); gives perl's mod=6 my div=428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-1 my div=-428 my mod=6.15296300000033 perl's mod=1 my div=-428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 perl's mod=-6 my div=428 my mod=-6.15296300000033 Now as you can see, I've come up with a "solution" already for calculating div and mod. However, what I don't understand is what effect the sign of each argument should have on the result. Wouldn't the div always be positive, being the number of times n2 fits into n1? How's the arithmetic supposed to work in this situation?

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  • jquery : ul, li parent multiple child sub-child toggling

    - by user360826
    hello, my main question is as follows: how to show only the first subchild of a ul or li upon clicking the enclosing parent. eg: <ul> Grandparent <li> Child1 <li> Grandchild11</li></li> <li> Child2 <li>GrandChild21</li><li>grandchild22</li></li> </ul> so, for example I would like something to the effect of <script> $('ul').click(function(){ $('ul').children('first li').toggle() }); $('li').click(function(){ $('li').children('first li').toggle() }); </script> meaning: when i click ul, i only see the first child node (child1 and child2 will be shown, but not the grandchildren). when i click child1 or child2 i see the respective grandchild. grandchild is not shown upon clicking grandparent, only upon clicking child1 or child2. i know i am reinventing the wheel of some pre-coded solution, but any help would be largely appreciated!

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  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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  • Populate two column grid with databinding?

    - by Richard
    How do i populate a two column grid with objects from my observable collection? I've tried to achieve this effect by using the tookits wrap panel but the items just stack. <toolkit:WrapPanel Margin="5,0,0,0" Width="400"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Trips}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Height="236" Width="182"> <Button Style="{StaticResource VasttrafikButtonTrip}"> <StackPanel Width="152" Height="140"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding FromName}" /> <TextBlock FontFamily="Segoe WP Semibold" Text="till" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ToName}" /> </StackPanel> </Button> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" FontSize="16" FontWeight="ExtraBlack" Text="{Binding TravelTimeText}" /> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="160" Margin="0,-6,0,0" FontSize="16" Text="{Binding TransferCountText}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </toolkit:WrapPanel>

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  • Flex 4 hideEffect transition bug

    - by xerious87
    I'm trying to create a slide effect. Everything works fine except when the hideEffect animation is shown for the first time. The content does not become invisible when crossing the TabNavigator's border, which looks really ugly in my current project. The following simple example demonstrates the problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600" backgroundColor="0xDDDDDD"> <fx:Declarations> <s:Move id="hideEffect" xTo="700" /> </fx:Declarations> <mx:TabNavigator width="500" height="300" x="100" y="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="ONE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="TWO" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="THREE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="FOUR" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> </s:Application> Screenshot: hideEffectBug Any ideas how to fix this bug?

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  • cannot eliminate space between 2 horizontal divs inside containing div

    - by wantTheBest
    Should be easy, right? Just set the outer containing div's padding to zero, and set the two side-by-side divs inside the outer div to have margin:0 but that's having no effect on the space between the 2 horizontal divs. What I need is the red-outlined left div to touch the green-outlined right-side div. Despite my effort using padding and margin, the space between the 2 divs will not go away. I have looked at many answers on SO but so far no one's broken it down to this simple example -- my fiddle shows this issue, at http://jsfiddle.net/Shomer/tLZrm/7/ And here is the very simple code: <div style="border: 4px solid blue; white-space:nowrap; margin:0; padding:0; width:80%"> <div style="display:inline-block; width:45%; overflow:hidden; margin:0; border: 1px solid red"> Flimmy-flammy </div> <div style="display:inline-block; width:50%; overflow:hidden; margin:0px; border: 1px solid green"> Hambone-Sammy </div> </div>

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  • problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

    - by Sara
    Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

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  • Localisable Resources: how can (should one?!) wrap a UI layer source as a BL layer service?

    - by Ciel
    A service that returns localised strings could be wrapped in a service, so that it could be used both locally (eg in an MVC app) and remotely (eg possibly Silverlight). But...if sticking with the standard practice of creating resources in the UI assembly, that would in effect make a lower layer (BL/Services) have to have a ref on a higher layer (UI)...a definite no-no. And whereas a lot of AppWide resources (eg: AppName, OK, Cancel, etc.) could be defined in a Common cross-cutting assembly, and the BL/ResourceSerouce could ref and wrap those, that doesn't work in a a Modular App, where the Core app should have no binding to/knowledge of any Module. One solution could be to have each module, once mounted in mem, 'register' their Resource files with the service, who would then return it to the service (rather a long round trip, but at least consistent as a service, and potentially resources/images could be shared with other resources). Secondly, that may work in a web app...but not sure how that pattern could be extended to a Silverlight modular app (the round tripping becomes prohibitive). ie...what are best practices for allowing Resources to be to be defined by the UI designer, in a higher level, but served from the lower BL layer, as a Service? Or is there a better way of understanding/solving the problem?

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