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  • How to mult-thread this?

    - by WilliamKF
    I wish to have two threads. The first thread1 occasionally calls the following pseudo function: void waitForThread2() { if (thread2 is not idle) { return; } notifyThread2IamReady(); while (thread2IsExclusive) { } } The second thread2 is forever in the following pseudo loop: for (;;) { Notify thread1 I am idle. while (!thread1IsReady()) { } Notify thread1 I am exclusive. Do some work while thread1 is blocked. Notify thread1 I am busy. Do some work in parallel with thread1. } What is the best way to write this such that both thread1 and thread2 are kept as busy as possible on a machine with multiple cores. I would like to avoid long delays between notification in one thread and detection by the other. I tried using pthread condition variables but found the delay between thread2 doing 'notify thread1 I am busy' and the loop in waitForThread2() on thear2IsExclusive() can be up to almost one second delay. I then tried using a volatile sig_atomic_t shared variable to control the same, but something is going wrong, so I must not be doing it correctly.

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  • jquery animation headache

    - by OneNerd
    Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

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  • asyncronous call doesn't return json

    - by Rebecca
    I am running wamp on an xp box. I am fairly new to web programming, this is for a student project, and have run out of avenues to try to solve this problem. Problem We have client side JavaScript code that uses GDownloadUrl- from the Google api- to wrap xmlHttpRequest calls to a php server side program that is accessing our database. In my callback program, the result of this call is always " ". However, if I use an alert to display the http:// call, with the arguments, and cut and paste that into my browser, the json I expected is displayed. I zipped my dir containing all the files, and tried it out on another team member's computer, and they were able to get the json in the callback function. Note this is exactly the same code and structure I was using, he just unzipped and ran. So now I'm thinking this is something about Firefox or Wamp? Would this be a config problem? I'm running wamp server 2.0, and Firefox 3.5.8. I have no problems with syncronous php, or reading in files asyncronously. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Rebecca

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  • Javascript force GC collection? / Forcefully free object?

    - by plash
    I have a js function for playing any given sound using the Audio interface (creating a new instance for every call). This works quite well, until about the 32nd call (sometimes less). This issue is directly related to the release of the Audio instance. I know this because I've allowed time for the GC in Chromium to run and it will allow me to play another 32 or so sounds again. Here's an example of what I'm doing: <html><head> <script language="javascript"> function playSound(url) { snd = new Audio(url); snd.play(); delete snd; snd = null; } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="playSound('blah.mp3');">Play sound</a> </body></html> I also have this, which works well for pages that have less than 32 playSound calls: var AudioPlayer = { cache: {}, play: function(url) { if (!AudioPlayer.cache[url]) AudioPlayer.cache[url] = new Audio(url); AudioPlayer.cache[url].play(); } }; But this will not work for what I want to do (dynamically replace a div with other content (from separate files), which have even more sounds on them - 1. memory usage would easily skyrocket, 2. many sounds will never play). I need a way to release the sound immediately. Is it possible to do this? I have found no free/close/unload method for the Audio interface. The pages will be viewed locally, so the constant loading of sounds is not a big factor at all (and most sounds are rather short).

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  • Detecting whether user stayed after prompting onBeforeUnload

    - by Daniel Magliola
    In a web app I'm working on, I'm capturing onBeforeUnload to ask the user whether he really wants to exit. Now, if he decides to stay, there are a number of things I'd like to do. What I'm trying to figure out is that he actually chose to stay. I can of course declare a SetTimeout for "x" seconds, and if that fires, then it would mean the user is still there (because we didn't get unloaded). The problem is that the user can take any time to decide whether to stay or not... I was first hoping that while the dialog was showing, SetTimeout calls would not fire, so I could set a timeout for a short time and it'd only fire if the user chose to stay. However, timeouts do fire while the dialog is shown, so that doesn't work. Another idea I tried is capturing mouseMoves on the window/document. While the dialog is shown, mouseMoves indeed don't fire, except for one weird exception that really applies to my case, so that won't work either. Can anyone think of other way to do this? Thanks! (In case you're curious, the reason capturing mouseMove doesn't work is that I have an IFrame in my page, containing a site from another domain. If at the time of unloading the page, the focus is within the IFrame, while the dialog shows, then I get the MouseMove event firing ONCE when the mouse moves from inside the IFrame to the outside (at least in Firefox). That's probably a bug, but still, it's very likely that'll happen in our case, so I can't use this method).

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  • COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

    - by Florian Berzsenyi
    I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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  • how can exec change the behavior of exec'ed program

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I am trying to track down a very odd crash. What is so odd about it is a workaround that someone discovered and which I cannot explain. The workaround is this small program which I'll refer to as 'runner': #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { if (argc == 1) { fprintf(stderr, "Usage: %s prog [args ...]\n", argv[0]); return 1; } execvp(argv[1], argv + 1); fprintf(stderr, "execv failed: %s\n", strerror(errno)); // If exec returns because the program is not found or we // don't have the appropriate permission return 255; } As you can see, all this program does is use execvp to replace itself with a different program. The program crashes when it is directly invoked from the command line: /path/to/prog args # this crashes but works fine when it is indirectly invoked via my runner shim: /path/to/runner /path/to/prog args # works successfully For the life of me, I can figure out how having an extra exec can change the behavior of the program being run (as you can see the program does not change the environment). Some background on the crash. The crash itself is happening in the C++ runtime. Specifically, when the program does a throw, the crashing version incorrectly thinks there is no matching catch (although there is) and calls terminate. When I invoke the program via runner, the exception is properly caught. My question is any idea why the extra exec changes the behavior of the exec'ed program?

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • How to Change an MFC Modeless Dialog to be the child of a CView in an MDI application?

    - by Kieveli
    I have an MFC application that is a Doc/View/Frame implementation. One dialog is running as a modeless dialog which pops up on demand (from a menu option). I'm looking to add the modeless dialog to an MDI child view. Basically, I want to load the template from the resource file, and create it as a child of the CView in my new trio (doc/view/frame) that I am adding to the template lists for the MDI. I've tried a few things in my derived CMyView class: void CMyView::OnInitialUpdate() { m_ListDialog = new Dialogs::CListDialog( m_config, this ); m_ListDialog->Create( Dialogs::CListDialog::IDD, this ); m_ListDialog->ShowWindow( SW_SHOW ); } I've tried calling SetWindowPos, ModifyStyle (WS_CHILD, WS_VISIBLE, DS_CONTROL). I've tried modifying the resource file to set the child and control manually. Everytime it calls Create, the ListDialog's m_hWnd is left as 0. This tells me it's not getting created properly. Any call to SetWindowPos() or ShowWindow() fails because the m_hWnd is 0 (debug assertion fails). What do I need to do to get a modeless dialog to be constructed, created, and appear as a child to CMyView in my MDI application?

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  • java applet stops running on exceptions

    - by Marius
    I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

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  • Using java.util.regex in Android apps - are there issues with this?

    - by johnrock
    In an Android app I have a utility class that I use to parse strings for 2 regEx's. I compile the 2 patterns in a static initializer so they only get compiled once, then activities can use the parsing methods statically. This works fine except that the first time the class is accessed and loaded, and the static initializer compiles the pattern, the UI hangs for close to a MINUTE while it compiles the pattern! After the first time, it flies on all subsequent calls to parseString(). My regEx that I am using is rather large - 847 characters, but in a normal java webapp this is lightning fast. I am testing this so far only in the emulator with a 1.5 AVD. Could this just be an emulator issue or is there some other reason that this pattern is taking so long to compile? private static final String exp1 = "(insertratherlong---847character--regexhere)"; private static Pattern regex1 = null; private static final String newLineAndTagsExp = "[<>\\s]"; private static Pattern regexNewLineAndTags = null; static { regex1 = Pattern.compile(exp1, Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE); regexNewLineAndTags = Pattern.compile(newLineAndTagsExp); } public static String parseString(CharSequence inputStr) { String replacementStr = "replaceMentText"; String resultString = "none"; try { Matcher regexMatcher = regex1.matcher(inputStr); try { resultString = regexMatcher.replaceAll(replacementStr); } catch (IllegalArgumentException ex) { } catch (IndexOutOfBoundsException ex) { } } catch (PatternSyntaxException ex) { } return resultString; }

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  • PHP: Retrieving JSON via jQuery ajax help

    - by iamjonesy
    Hey I have a script that is creating and echoing a JSON encoded array of magento products. I have a script that calls this script using jQuery's ajax function but I'm not getting a proper response. This is the script that creates the array: $collection = Mage::getModel('catalog/product')->getCollection(); $collection->addAttributeToSelect('name'); $collection->addAttributeToSelect('price'); $products = array(); foreach ($collection as $product){ $products[$product->getPrice()] = $product->getName(); } header('Content-Type: application/x-json; charset=utf-8'); echo(json_encode($products)); Here is my jQuery: <select id="products"> <option value="#">Select</option> </select> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://localhost.com/magento/modules/products/get.php", dataType: "json", success: function(products) { jQuery.each(products,function(price,name) { var opt = jQuery('<option />'); opt.val(name); opt.text(price); jQuery('#products').append(opt); }); } }); }); </script> I'm getting a response from this but I'm not seeing a any JSON. I'm using firebug. I can see there has been a JSON encoded response but the response tab is emtyp and my select boxes have no options. Can anyone see and problems with my code? Here is the response I should get: {"82.9230":"Dummy","177.0098":"Dummy 2","76.0208":"Dummy 3","470.6054":"Dummy 4","357.0083":"Dummy Product 5"} Thanks, Billy

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  • ajax to php to curl and back..

    - by pfunc
    I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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  • How can I modify a scalar reference passed to a subroutine reference

    - by Mark
    I have a function to convert documents into different formats, which then calls another function based on the type document. It's pretty straight forward for everything aside from HTML documents which require a bit of cleaning up, and that cleaning up is different based on where it's come from. So I had the idea that I could pass a reference to a subroutine to the convert function so the caller has the opportunity to modify the HTML, kinda like so (I'm not at work so this isn't copy-and-pasted): package Converter; ... sub convert { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; if ($filename =~ /html?$/i) { $self->_convert_html($filename, $coderef); } } sub _convert_html { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; my $html = $self->slurp($filename); $coderef->(\$html); #this modifies the html $self->save_to_file($filename, $html); } which is then called by: Converter->new->convert("./whatever.html", sub { s/<html>/<xml>/i }); I've tried a couple of different things along these lines but I keep on getting 'Use of uninitialized value in substitution (s///)'. Is there any way of doing what I'm trying to do? Thanks

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  • is it possible to display video information from an rtsp stream in an android app UI

    - by Joseph Cheung
    I have managed to get a working video player that can stream rtsp links, however im not sure how to display the videos current time position in the UI, i have used the getDuration and getCurrentPosition calls, stored this information in a string and tried to display it in the UI but it doesnt seem to work in main.xml: TextView android:id="@+id/player" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_margin="1px" android:text="@string/cpos" / in strings.xml: string name="cpos""" /string in Player.java private void playVideo(String url) { try { media.setEnabled(false); if (player == null) { player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setScreenOnWhilePlaying(true); } else { player.stop(); player.reset(); } player.setDataSource(url); player.getCurrentPosition(); player.setDisplay(holder); player.setAudioStreamType(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); player.setOnPreparedListener(this); player.prepareAsync(); player.setOnBufferingUpdateListener(this); player.setOnCompletionListener(this); } catch (Throwable t) { Log.e(TAG, "Exception in media prep", t); goBlooey(t); try { try { player.prepare(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Log.v(TAG, "Duration: === " + player.getDuration()); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } private Runnable onEverySecond = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (lastActionTime 0 && SystemClock.elapsedRealtime() - lastActionTime 3000) { clearPanels(false); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getCurrentPosition()); //stores getCurrentPosition as a string cpos = String.valueOf(player.getCurrentPosition()); System.out.print(cpos); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getDuration()); //stores getDuration as a string cdur = String.valueOf(player.getDuration()); System.out.print(cdur); } if (!isPaused) { surface.postDelayed(onEverySecond, 1000); } } };

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  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

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  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

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  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

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  • How can get dtrace to run the traced command with non-root priviledges ?

    - by Gyom
    OS X lacks linux's strace, but it has dtrace which is supposed to be so much better. However, I miss the ability to do simple tracing on individual commands. For example, on linux I can write strace -f gcc hello.c to caputre all system calls, which gives me the list of all the filenames needed by the compiler to compile my program (the excellent memoize script is built upon this trick) I want to port memoize on the mac, so I need some kind of strace. What I actually need is the list of files gcc reads and writes into, so what I need is more of a truss. Sure enough can I say dtruss -f gcc hello.c and get somewhat the same functionality, but then the compiler is run with root priviledges, which is obviously undesirable (apart from the massive security risk, one issue is that the a.out file is now owned by root :-) I then tried dtruss -f sudo -u myusername gcc hello.c, but this feels a bit wrong, and does not work anyway (I get no a.out file at all this time, not sure why) All that long story tries to motivate my original question: how do I get dtrace to run my command with normal user priviledges, just like strace does in linux ? Edit: is seems that I'm not the only one wondering how to do this: question #1204256 is pretty much the same as mine (and has the same suboptimal sudo answer :-)

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  • Cannot convert object, recieved from ajax call, into a long

    - by Matt
    I'm using Asp.Net-Mvc, I have this method in my controller: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult LinkAccount(string site, object id) { return this.Json(id); } Here's the ajax method that calls it: $.post("/Account/LinkAccount", { site: "Facebook", id: FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid }, function(result) { alert(result); }, "json" ); returning this.Json(id); makes the alert work... it alerts 7128383 (something similar to that). but if I change this.Json(id) to this.Json(Conver.ToInt64(id)); the alert does not fire... Any idea of why I can't convert an object received from an object to a long? I already know changing the LinkAccount method to accept a long instead works just fine. It's just I need it as an object because some other sites I'm linking up have strings for id's rather than longs. UPDATE: I tried running the code on localhost so I could set a breakpoint. First I changed the line return this.Json(Convert.ToInt64(id)); to long idAsLong = Convert.ToInt64(id));. Here's what the debugger is telling me: When I hover over id it says: "id | {string[1]}" and when I press the plus button is shows: "[0] | '7128383'" When I hover over idAsLong, it says: "idAsLong | 0" Why isn't it converting it properly?

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  • Easiest RPC client method in PHP

    - by T.K.
    I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

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  • .NET Remoting Connecting to Wrong Host

    - by Dark Falcon
    I have an application I wrote which has been running well for 4 years. Yesterday they moved all their servers around and installed about 60 pending Windows updates, and now it is broken. The application makes use of remoting to update some information on another server (10.0.5.230), but when I try to create my remote object, I get the following exception: Note that it is trying to connect to 127.0.0.1, not the proper server. The server (10.0.5.230) is listening on port 9091 as it should. This same error is happening on all three terminal servers where this application is installed. Here is the code which registers the remoted object: public static void RegisterClient() { string lServer; RegistryKey lKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Shoreline Teleworks\\ShoreWare Client"); if (lKey == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Could not find Shoretel Call Manager"); object lVal = lKey.GetValue("Server"); if (lVal == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Shoretel Call Manager did not specify a server name"); lServer = lVal.ToString(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = 0; string s = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); props["name"] = s; ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(new TcpClientChannel(props, null), false); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(UpdateClient), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(Playback), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); } Here is the code which calls the remoted object: UpdateClient lUpdater = new UpdateClient(Settings.CurrentSettings.Extension.ToString()); lUpdater.SetAgentState(false); I have verified that the following URI is passed to RegisterActivatedClientType: "tcp://10.0.5.230:9091/" Why does this application try to connect to the wrong server?

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  • How do I track down sporadic ASP.NET performance problems in a production environment?

    - by Steve Wortham
    I've had sporadic performance problems with my website for awhile now. 90% of the time the site is very fast. But occasionally it is just really, really slow. I mean like 5-10 seconds load time kind of slow. I thought I had narrowed it down to the server I was on so I migrated everything to a new dedicated server from a completely different web hosting company. But the problems continue. I guess what I'm looking for is a good tool that'll help me track down the problem, because it's clearly not the hardware. I'd like to be able to log certain events in my ASP.NET code and have that same logger also track server performance/resources at the time. If I can then look back at the logs then I can see what exactly my website was doing at the time of extreme slowness. Is there a .NET logging system that'll allow me to make calls into it with code while simultaneously tracking performance? What would you recommend?

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