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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

  - by predhme

  So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

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• Extracting shell script from parameterised Hudson job

  - by Jonik

  I have a parameterised Hudson job, used for some AWS deployment stuff, which in one build step runs certain shell commands. However, that script has become sufficiently complicated that I want to "extract" it from Hudson to a separate script file, so that it can easily be versioned properly. The Hudson job would then simply update from VCS and execute the external script file. My main question is about passing parameters to the script. I have a Hudson parameter named AMI_ID and a few others. The script references those params as if they were environment variables: echo "Using AMI $AMI_ID and type $TYPE" Now, this works fine inside Hudson, but not if Hudson calls an external script. Could I somehow make Hudson set the params as environment variables so that I don't need to change the script? Or is my best option to alter the script to take command line parameters (and possibly assign those to named variables for readability: ami_id=$1; type=$2; ... )? I tried something like this but the script doesn't get correctly replaced values: export AMI_ID=$AMI_ID export TYPE=$TYPE external-script.sh # this tries to use e.g. $AMI_ID Bonus question: when the script is inside Hudson, the "console output" will contain both the executed commands and their output. This is extremely useful for debugging when something goes wrong with a build! For example, here the line starting with "+" is part of the script and the following line its output: + ec2-associate-address -K pk.pem -C cert.pem 77.125.116.139 -i i-aa3487fd ADDRESS 77.125.116.139 i-aa3487fd When calling an external script, Hudson output will only contain the latter line, making debugging harder. I could cat the script file to stdout before running it, but that's not optimal either. In effect, I'd like a kind of DOS-style "echo on" for the script which I'm calling from Hudson - anyone know a trick to achieve this?

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• Safe to pass objects to C functions when working in JNI Invocation API?

  - by bubbadoughball

  I am coding up something using the JNI Invocation API. A C program starts up a JVM and makes calls into it. The JNIenv pointer is global to the C file. I have numerous C functions which need to perform the same operation on a given class of jobject. So I wrote helper functions which take a jobject and process it, returning the needed data (a C data type...for example, an int status value). Is it safe to write C helper functions and pass jobjects to them as arguments? i.e. (a simple example - designed to illustrate the question): int getStatusValue(jobject jStatus) { return (*jenv)->CallIntMethod(jenv,jStatus,statusMethod); } int function1() { int status; jobject aObj = (*jenv)->NewObject (jenv, aDefinedClass, aDefinedCtor); jobject j = (*jenv)->CallObjectMethod (jenv, aObj, aDefinedObjGetMethod) status = getStatusValue(j); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,aObj); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,j); return status; } Thanks.

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• How do I use this indirect relationship?

  - by tyjkenn

  I'm working on incorporating a reputation system into my site, similar to SO. Here is how it is structured: User hasMany Project User hasMany Answer Project hasMany Rating Answer hasMany Rating Rating belongsTo Project where Rating.parent_type = Project Rating belongsTo Answer where Rating.parent_type = Answer Rating's value field will be a number between 1 and 5. The user should gain +10 for every 5-star review, +5 for every 4-star review, and +1 for every 3-star review. The way I currently have it set up is this: a recalcRep($id) action in the UsersController (along with other actions in other controllers, when necessary) calls the calcRep($id) method inside the User model, which is supposed to calculate the reputation of a user with an id of $id. public function calcRep($id) { $rep = 0; $data = $this->Rating->find('all'); //does not work, because it is not directly associated foreach($data as $rating) { if(($rating['Rating']['parent_type'] == 'Project' && $rating['Project']['user_id']==$id) or ($rating['Rating']['parent_type'] == 'Answer' && $rating['Answer']['user_id']==$id)) { if($rating['Rating']['value']==5) { $rep += 10; } else if($rating['Rating']['value']==4) { $rep += 5; } else if($rating['Rating']['value']==3) { $rep += 2; } } } $data['User']['reputation'] = $rep; $this->save($data); } I may be approaching this in completely the wrong way, but I can't figure out how to find all the ratings that belong to any of the children of a specific user.

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• How can I force a ListView with a custom panel to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the

  - by Scott Whitlock

  Sorry for the long winded question (I'm including background here). If you just want the question, go to the end. I have a ListView with a custom Panel implementation that I'm using to implement something similar to a WrapPanel, but not quite. I'm overriding the MeasureOverride and ArrangeOverride methods in the custom panel. If I do the naive implementation of a WrapPanel in the MeasureOverride method it doesn't work when the ListView is resized. Let's say the custom panel does a measure and the constraint is a width of 100 and let's say I have 3 items that are 40 wide each. The naive approach is to return a size of 80,80 but when I resize the window that the ListView is in, down to say 75, it just turns on the horizontal scrollbar and never calls measure or arrange again (it does keep measuring and arranging if the width is greater than 80). To get around this, I hard coded the measurement to only have a width of the widest item. Then in the arrange, it gives me more space than I asked for and I use as much horizontal space as I can before wrapping. If I resize the window smaller than the smallest item in the ListView, then it turns on the scrollbar, which is great. Unfortunately this is causing a big problem when I have one of these ListViews with a custom panel nested inside of another one. The outside one works ok, but I can't get the inside one to "take as much as it needs". It always sizes to the smallest item, and the only way around it is to set the MinWidth to be something greater than zero. Anyway, stepping back for a second, I think the real way to fix this is to go back to the Naive implementation of the WrapPanel but force it to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the Size I previously returned as a measurement. That should solve my problem with the nested one. So, that's my question: I have a ListView with a custom panel If I return a measurement width on the panel and the ListView is resized to less than that width, it stops calling MeasureOverride How can I get it to continue calling MeasureOverride?

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• How to pass a Dictionary variable to another procedure

  - by salvationishere

  I am developing a C# VS2008/SQL Server website application. I've never used the Dictionary class before, but I am trying to replace my Hashtable with a Dictionary variable. Here is a portion of my aspx.cs code: ... Dictionary<string, string> openWith = new Dictionary<string, string>(); for (int col = 0; col < headers.Length; col++) { @temp = (col + 1); @tempS = @temp.ToString(); @tempT = "@col" + @temp.ToString(); ... openWith.Add(@tempT, headers[col]); } ... for (int r = 0; r < myInputFile.Rows.Count; r++) { resultLabel.Text = ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(myInputFile, openWith); } But this is giving me a compiler error on this last line: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary' to 'string' How do I pass the entire openWith variable to AppendDataCT? AppendDataCT is the method that calls my SQL stored proc. I want to pass in the whole row where each row has a unique set of values that I want to add to my database table. For example, if each row requires values for cells A, B, and C, then I want to pass these 3 values to AppendDataCT, where all of these values are strings. How do I do this with Dictionary?

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• What's the boost way to create a functor that binds out an argument

  - by Mordachai

  I have need for a function pointer that takes two arguments and returns a string. I would like to pass an adapter that wraps a function that takes one argument, and returns the string (i.e. discard one of the arguments). I can trivially build my own adapter, that takes the 2 arguments, calls the wrapped function passing just the one argument through. But I'd much rather have a simple way to create an adapter on the fly, if there is an easy way to do so in C++/boost? Here's some details to make this a bit more concrete: typedef boost::function<CString (int,int)> TooltipTextFn; class MyCtrl { public: MyCtrl(TooltipTextFn callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetCellText, this, _1, _2)) : m_callback(callback) { } // QUESTION: how to trivially wrapper GetRowText to conform to TooltipTextFn by just discarding _2 ?! void UseRowText() { m_callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetRowText, this, _1, ??); } private: CString GetCellText(int row, int column); CString GetRowText(int row); TooltipTextFn m_callback; } Obviously, I can supply a member that adapts GetRowText to take two arguments and only passes the first to GetRowText() itself. But is there already a boost binder / adapter that lets me do that?

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• Can threads safely read variables set by VCL events?

  - by Tom1952

  Is it safe for a thread to READ a variable set by a Delphi VCL event? When a user clicks on a VCL TCheckbox, the main thread sets a boolean to the checkbox's Checked state. CheckboxState := CheckBox1.Checked; At any time, a thread reads that variable if CheckBoxState then ... It doesn't matter if the thread "misses" a change to the boolean, because the thread checks the variable in a loop as it does other things. So it will see the state change eventually... Is this safe? Or do I need special code? Is surrounding the read and write of the variable (in the thread and main thread respectively) with critical code calls necessary and sufficient? As I said, it doesn't matter if the thread gets the "wrong" value, but I keep thinking that there might be a low-level problem if one thread tries to read a variable while the main thread is in the middle of writing it, or vice versa. My question is similar to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1353096/cross-thread-reading-of-a-variable. (Also related to my previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2449183/using-entercriticalsection-in-thread-to-update-vcl-label)

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• Algorithm for count-down timer that can add on time

  - by Person

  I'm making a general timer that has functionality to count up from 0 or count down from a certain number. I also want it to allow the user to add and subtract time. Everything is simple to implement except for the case in which the timer is counting down from some number, and the user adds or subtracts time from it. For example: (m_clock is an instance of SFML's Clock) float Timer::GetElapsedTime() { if ( m_forward ) { m_elapsedTime += m_clock.GetElapsedTime() - m_elapsedTime; } else { m_elapsedTime -= m_elapsedTime - m_startingTime + m_clock.GetElapsedTime(); } return m_elapsedTime; } To be a bit more clear, imagine that the timer starts at 100 counting down. After 10 seconds, the above function would look like 100 -= 100 - 100 + 10 which equals 90. If it was called after 20 more seconds it would look like 90 -= 90 - 100 + 30 which equals 70. This works for normal counting, but if the user calls AddTime() ( just m_elapsedTime += arg ) then the algorithm for backwards counting fails miserably. I know that I can do this using more members and keeping track of previous times, etc. but I'm wondering whether I'm missing some implementation that is extremely obvious. I'd prefer to keep it as simple as possible in that single operation.

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• Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

  - by kevinjansz

  In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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• Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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• Reading from a database located in the Program Files folder using ODBC

  - by Dabblernl

  We have an application that stores its database files in a subfolder of the Program Files directory. These files are redirected to the VirtualStore in Vista and Windows 7. We represent data from the database using Microsoft DataReports (VB6). So far so good. But we now want to use Crystal Reports XI to represent data from the database. Our idea is to NOT pass this data to CR from our program, but to have CR retreive it from the database using a a system DSN through ODBC. In this way we hope to present our users with more flexibility in designing their own reports. What we do want to ensure though is that these system DSNs are configured correctly when the user installs our program or when the program calls the Crystal Report. Is there a smart way to do this using System variables for instance, instead of having to write a routine that checks for OS-version, whether UAC is enabled on the OS, whether the write restrictions on the Program Files folder have been lifted, etc and then adapts he System DSN to point to either the C:\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder, or the C:\Users\User\AppData\VirtualStore\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder? Suggestions for an entirely different approach are welcome too!

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• Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

  - by damix911

  I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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• Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

  - by Scott Silvi

  Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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• How to tie a Hudson job to a user who has access to run MSIExec

  - by Andrew

  Hi All, I have a batch file that calls "MSIExec /X {MyGUID} /qn". This runs successfully when run with my admin user. When I run it as a Window Batch command from a Hudson job it fails with "T?h?e? ?i?n?s?t?a?l?l?a?t?i?o?n? ?s?o?u?r?c?e? ?f?o?r? ?t?h?i?s? ?p?r?o?d?u?c?t? ?i?s? ?n?o?t? ?a?v?a?i?l?a?b?l?e?.? ? ?V?e?r?i?f?y? ?t?h?a?t? ?t?h?e? ?s?o?u?r?c?e? ?e?x?i?s?t?s? ?a?n?d? ?t?h?a?t? ?y?o?u? ?c?a?n? ?a?c?c?e?s?s? ?i?t?.? " I am inclined to think that the issue is that the job is started by the "anonymous" user rather than my admin user. How in hudson do I "tie" the job to be run under the admin user? Thanks in advance. Regards, Andrew

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• Dynamcally resizing an open Accordion

  - by alavers

  I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

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• Refreshing WEB-INF/lib in Google App Engine (with Eclipse)

  - by Adrian Petrescu

  Hi, I've created a new Google App Engine project within Eclipse. I copied several JARs that I need for my application into the WEB-INF/lib directory, and add them to the build path. I make some random calls to these JARs from within the handler, deploy, and everything works fine. However, if I then change one of the JARs outside the project, and copy the new version to WEB-INF/lib (with the same name) and re-deploy, it doesn't seem to be sending the new JAR; everything is still linking to the old one even though it's not even in my WEB-INF/lib anymore. I'm guessing it's being cached by the server or Eclipse is not even realizing something has changed in order to upload the new version. If I just create a new project with the new JAR, everything is fine again (until I have to make another change...) but of course I don't want to have to create a new project for every change to a dependency I make. My question is, how can I make GAE re-upload all the JARs I have from within Eclipse? Thanks in advance, guys :) -Adrian

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• Resolve php "deadlock"

  - by Matt

  Hey all, I'm currently running into a situation that I guess would be called deadlock. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php Dispatcher.php <? class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } ?> It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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• How can I get the user object from a service in Symfony2

  - by pogo

  My site is using a third party service for authentication as well as other bits of functionality so I have setup a service that does all the API calls for me and it's this service that I need to be able to access the user object. I've tried injecting the security.context service into my API service but I get a ServiceCircularReferenceException because my user authentication provider references the API service (it has to in order to authenticate the user). So I get a chain of security.context -> authentication provider -> user provider -> API service -> security.context I'm struggling to this of another way of getting the user object and I can't see any obvious way of splitting up this chain. My configs are all defined in config.yml, here are the relevant bits myapp.database: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\DatabaseService arguments: siteid: %siteid% entityManager: "@doctrine.orm.entity_manager" myapp.apiservice: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\TicketingService arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" myapp.user_provider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIUserProvider arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" ticketingAdapter: "@myapp.apiservice" securityContext: "@security.context" myapp.authenticationprovider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIAuthenticationProvider arguments: userChecker: "@security.user_checker" encoderFactory: "@security.encoder_factory" userProvider: "@myapp.user_provider" myapp.user_provider is the service that I've defined as my user provider service in security.yml which I presume is how it's being referenced by security.context

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• Set scaleX property on a Sprite without altering the child inside

  - by grammar

  Is this possible? My site is set up with next and prev buttons on the right and left sides respectively, and as you roll over either of the hit areas around the buttons a Sprite fades in which contains a TextField that describes the next page. Said Sprite calls the StartDrag() method, so it follows the mouse within the bounds, which is all fine and dandy on the left side of the page. Adobe, however, seems to have forgotten to put a way to dynamically alter the registration point of a Sprite, MC, whatever else, so when you roll over the right side of the page, the sprite is displayed from the top left and is mostly off the stage. Trying to hack this problem I have tried numerous things ( classes written by others, other hacks) and the best that I have found is to use the scaleX method on the Sprite, changing the scale to -1. This, of course, makes the Sprite seem like it's reflected from its normal point, which means all its children show up backwards. Is there anyway I can use this hack without it altering the text? OR Does anyone know a different way to go about displaying a Sprite from another corner? Any way to make a Sprite fade in and follow the mouse on the LEFT HAND side of the mouse pointer? Thank you very much in advance. Here is a snippet to give an idea of what's happening: naxtPage.labelBG.scaleX = -1; nextPage.labelBG.startDrag( true, nextHitRect ); nextPage.labelBG.x = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseX; nextPage.labelBG.y = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseY; Cheers

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• Team Build Reports as "Failed" Even Though All Targets Succeeded

  - by benjy

  Hi, I've written a custom MSBuild script to be used with Team Build, as I am storing PHP in TFS and of course it isn't compiled. My custom script calls the CoreGet target to get the latest version of the files, and the copies them, ZIPs, them, and FTPs the ZIP archive to a testing server. All of that is working fine. The problem I am having is that despite the build succeeding - see the output in BuildLog.txt - Done executing task "BuildStep". Done building target "FTP" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done executing task "CallTarget". Done building target "EndToEndIteration" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done Building Project "C:\Documents and Settings\tfsservice\Local Settings\Temp\Code\PHP\BuildType\TFSBuild.proj" (EndToEndIteration target(s)). Build succeeded. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) the build still reports as having failed. The log from Visual Studio looks like so: Anyone know how I can make it report as having succeeded? Thanks very much in advance, Benjy P.S.: Please let me know if anyone would find having the whole build script helpful. Thanks!

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• Why do I get CA1806 when I catch exception in C++/CLI?

  - by brickner

  I've recently upgraded my project from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. By enabling Code Analysis and compiling in Release, I'm getting warning CA1806: Do not ignore method results. I've managed to reduce the code that produces the warning to this code: .h file: public ref class Foo { public: void Bar(); }; .cpp file: void Foo::Bar() { try { } catch (const std::exception&) // here I get the warning { } } the warning: CA1806 : Microsoft.Usage : 'Foo::Bar(void)' calls 'Global::__CxxRegisterExceptionObject(void*, void*)' but does not use the HRESULT or error code that the method returns. This could lead to unexpected behavior in error conditions or low-resource situations. Use the result in a conditional statement, assign the result to a variable, or pass it as an argument to another method. If I try to use the exception value or do catch(...) the warning still appears. If I catch managed exceptions instead or compile in Debug I don't get the warning. Why do I get this warning? UPDATE I've decided to open a bug report on Microsoft Connect.

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• Best way to convert a Unicode URL to ASCII (UTF-8 percent-escaped) in Python?

  - by benhoyt

  I'm wondering what's the best way -- or if there's a simple way with the standard library -- to convert a URL with Unicode chars in the domain name and path to the equivalent ASCII URL, encoded with domain as IDNA and the path %-encoded, as per RFC 3986. I get from the user a URL in UTF-8. So if they've typed in http://?.ws/? I get 'http://\xe2\x9e\xa1.ws/\xe2\x99\xa5' in Python. And what I want out is the ASCII version: 'http://xn--hgi.ws/%E2%99%A5'. What I do at the moment is split the URL up into parts via a regex, and then manually IDNA-encode the domain, and separately encode the path and query string with different urllib.quote() calls. # url is UTF-8 here, eg: url = u'http://?.ws/?'.encode('utf-8') match = re.match(r'([a-z]{3,5})://(.+\.[a-z0-9]{1,6})' r'(:\d{1,5})?(/.*?)(\?.*)?$', url, flags=re.I) if not match: raise BadURLException(url) protocol, domain, port, path, query = match.groups() try: domain = unicode(domain, 'utf-8') except UnicodeDecodeError: return '' # bad UTF-8 chars in domain domain = domain.encode('idna') if port is None: port = '' path = urllib.quote(path) if query is None: query = '' else: query = urllib.quote(query, safe='=&?/') url = protocol + '://' + domain + port + path + query # url is ASCII here, eg: url = 'http://xn--hgi.ws/%E3%89%8C' Is this correct? Any better suggestions? Is there a simple standard-library function to do this?

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• php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

  - by Ronedog

  I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

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