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  • java applet stops running on exceptions

    - by Marius
    I've developed a simple applet that imports an image from the clipboard. When i run the class file from NetBeans, everything works fine. But when i try to run it as an applet ... it gives me lots of errors in the java console and does not run ... - The applet is signed - There is a static method in one class, called getImageFromClipboard(). When the applet runs, it calls this method. - getImageFromClipboard() method has a try-catch block and suppresses all errors. It simply returns either a BufferedImage or null. - When applet runs, it does some visual adjustments before calling getImageFromClipboard() Now the scenario is as follows: the class from netbeans runs, fails to import the image and adjusts the interface accordingly (displays an error in a label) But when i run it in a browser, java console is filled with errors and nothing after the getImageFromClipboard() line works. Although the applet itself loads and does everything it's supposed do do before importing the image. So why am i getting errors if i accept the certificate and all of the possible errors are in try-catch blocks? None of this code should throw any exceptions. Any ideas why this is happening? Or do you need to see the errors to tell? UPDATE I've managed to find out the problem myself. The class that i'm using is not in the jar file :( How do i add it in? I'm using "add jar folder" in netbeans on the libraries package to import it but it does not seem to get copied to the jar.

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  • Turning off antialiasing in Löve2D

    - by cjanssen
    I'm using Löve2D for writing a small game. Löve2D is an open source game engine for Lua. The problem I'm encountering is that some antialias filter is automatically applied to your sprites when you draw it at non-integer positions. love.graphics.draw( sprite, x, y ) So when x or y is not round (for example, x=100.24), the sprite appears blurred. The same happens when the sprite size is not even, because (x,y) points to the center of the sprite. For example, a sprite which is 31x30 big will appear blurred again, because its pixels are painted in non-integer positions. Since I am using pixel art, I want to avoid this all the way, otherwise the art is destroyed by this effect. The workaround I am using so far is to force the coordinates to be round by littering the code with calls to math.floor(), and forcing all the sprites to have even sizes by adding a row or column of transparent pixels with the paint program, if needed. Is there some command to deactivate the antialiasing I can call at program startup?

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  • .NET Remoting Connecting to Wrong Host

    - by Dark Falcon
    I have an application I wrote which has been running well for 4 years. Yesterday they moved all their servers around and installed about 60 pending Windows updates, and now it is broken. The application makes use of remoting to update some information on another server (10.0.5.230), but when I try to create my remote object, I get the following exception: Note that it is trying to connect to 127.0.0.1, not the proper server. The server (10.0.5.230) is listening on port 9091 as it should. This same error is happening on all three terminal servers where this application is installed. Here is the code which registers the remoted object: public static void RegisterClient() { string lServer; RegistryKey lKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Shoreline Teleworks\\ShoreWare Client"); if (lKey == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Could not find Shoretel Call Manager"); object lVal = lKey.GetValue("Server"); if (lVal == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Shoretel Call Manager did not specify a server name"); lServer = lVal.ToString(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = 0; string s = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); props["name"] = s; ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(new TcpClientChannel(props, null), false); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(UpdateClient), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(Playback), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); } Here is the code which calls the remoted object: UpdateClient lUpdater = new UpdateClient(Settings.CurrentSettings.Extension.ToString()); lUpdater.SetAgentState(false); I have verified that the following URI is passed to RegisterActivatedClientType: "tcp://10.0.5.230:9091/" Why does this application try to connect to the wrong server?

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  • Access violations in strange places when using Windows file dialogs

    - by Robert Oschler
    A long time ago I found out that I was getting access violations in my code due to the use of the Delphi Open File and/or Save File dialogs, which encapsulate the Windows dialogs. I asked some questions on a few forums and I was told that it may have been due to the way some programs add hooks to the shell system that result in DLLs getting injected in every process, some of which can cause havoc with a program. For the record, the programming environment I use is Delphi 6 Professional running on Windows XP 32-bit. At the time I got around it by not using Delphi's Dialog components and instead calling straight into comdlg32.dll. This solved the problem wonderfully. Today I was working with memory mapped files for the first time and sure enough, access violations started cropping up in weird parts of the code. I tried my comdlg32.dll direct calls and this time it didn't help. To isolate the problem as a test I created a list box with the exact same files I was using during testing. These are the exact same test files I was selecting from an Open File dialog and then launching my memory mapped file with. I set things up so that by clicking on a file in the list box, I would use that file in my memory mapped file test instead of calling into a comdlg32.dll dialog function to select a test file. Again, the access violatons vanished. To show you how dramatic a fix it was I went from experiencing an access violation within 1 to 3 trials to none at all. Unfortunately, it's going to bite me later on of course when I do need to use file dialogs. Has anyone else dealt with this issue too and found the real culprit? Did any of you find a solution I could use to fix this problem instead of dancing around it like I am now? Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I modify a scalar reference passed to a subroutine reference

    - by Mark
    I have a function to convert documents into different formats, which then calls another function based on the type document. It's pretty straight forward for everything aside from HTML documents which require a bit of cleaning up, and that cleaning up is different based on where it's come from. So I had the idea that I could pass a reference to a subroutine to the convert function so the caller has the opportunity to modify the HTML, kinda like so (I'm not at work so this isn't copy-and-pasted): package Converter; ... sub convert { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; if ($filename =~ /html?$/i) { $self->_convert_html($filename, $coderef); } } sub _convert_html { my ($self, $filename, $coderef) = @_; my $html = $self->slurp($filename); $coderef->(\$html); #this modifies the html $self->save_to_file($filename, $html); } which is then called by: Converter->new->convert("./whatever.html", sub { s/<html>/<xml>/i }); I've tried a couple of different things along these lines but I keep on getting 'Use of uninitialized value in substitution (s///)'. Is there any way of doing what I'm trying to do? Thanks

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  • Simulated Annealing and Yahtzee!

    - by Jasie
    I've picked up Programming Challenges and found a Yahtzee! problem which I will simplify: There are 13 scoring categories There are 13 rolls by a player (comprising a play) Each roll must fit in a distinct category The goal is to find the maximum score for a play (the optimal placement of rolls in categories); score(play) returns the score for a play Brute-forcing to find the maximum play score requires 13! (= 6,227,020,800) score() calls. I choose simulated annealing to find something close to the highest score, faster. Though not deterministic, it's good enough. I have a list of 13 rolls of 5 die, like: ((1,2,3,4,5) #1 (1,2,6,3,4),#2 ... (1,4,3,2,2) #13 ) And a play (1,5,6,7,2,3,4,8,9,10,13,12,11) passed into score() returns a score for that play's permutation. How do I choose a good "neighboring state"? For random-restart, I can simply choose a random permutation of nos. 1-13, put them in a vector, and score them. In the traveling salesman problem, here's an example of a good neighboring state: "The neighbours of some particular permutation are the permutations that are produced for example by interchanging a pair of adjacent cities." I have a bad feeling about simply swapping two random vector positions, like so: (1,5,6,7, 2 , 3,4,8,9,10, 13, 12,11) # switch 2 and 13 (1,5,6,7, 13, 3,4,8,9,10, 2 , 12,11) # now score this one But I have no evidence and don't know how to select a good neighboring state. Anyone have any ideas on how to pick good neighboring states?

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  • Team Build Reports as "Failed" Even Though All Targets Succeeded

    - by benjy
    Hi, I've written a custom MSBuild script to be used with Team Build, as I am storing PHP in TFS and of course it isn't compiled. My custom script calls the CoreGet target to get the latest version of the files, and the copies them, ZIPs, them, and FTPs the ZIP archive to a testing server. All of that is working fine. The problem I am having is that despite the build succeeding - see the output in BuildLog.txt - Done executing task "BuildStep". Done building target "FTP" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done executing task "CallTarget". Done building target "EndToEndIteration" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done Building Project "C:\Documents and Settings\tfsservice\Local Settings\Temp\Code\PHP\BuildType\TFSBuild.proj" (EndToEndIteration target(s)). Build succeeded. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) the build still reports as having failed. The log from Visual Studio looks like so: Anyone know how I can make it report as having succeeded? Thanks very much in advance, Benjy P.S.: Please let me know if anyone would find having the whole build script helpful. Thanks!

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  • Selectively disabling WebControl elements

    - by NeilD
    I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

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  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

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  • Minimal assembler program for CP/M 3.1 (z80)

    - by Andrew J. Brehm
    I seem to be losing the battle against my stupidity. This site explains the system calls under various versions of CP/M. However, when I try to use call 2 (C_WRITE, console output), nothing much happens. I have the following code. ORG 100h LD E,'a' LD C,2 CALL 5 CALL 0 I recite this here from memory. If there are typos, rest assured they were not in the original since the file did compile and I had a COM file to start. I am thinking the lines mean the following: Make sure this gets loaded at address 100h (0h to FFh being the zero page). Load ASCII 'a' into E register for system call 2. Load integer 2 into C register for system call 2. Make system call (JMP to system call is at address 5 in zero page). End program (Exit command is at address 0 in zero page). The program starts and exits with no problems. If I remove the last command, it hangs the computer (which I guess is also expected and shows that CALL 0 works). However, it does not print the ASCII character. (But it does print an extra new line, but the system might have done that.) How can I get my CP/M program to do what the system call is supposed to do? What am I doing wrong?

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  • How to pass a Dictionary variable to another procedure

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS2008/SQL Server website application. I've never used the Dictionary class before, but I am trying to replace my Hashtable with a Dictionary variable. Here is a portion of my aspx.cs code: ... Dictionary<string, string> openWith = new Dictionary<string, string>(); for (int col = 0; col < headers.Length; col++) { @temp = (col + 1); @tempS = @temp.ToString(); @tempT = "@col" + @temp.ToString(); ... openWith.Add(@tempT, headers[col]); } ... for (int r = 0; r < myInputFile.Rows.Count; r++) { resultLabel.Text = ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(myInputFile, openWith); } But this is giving me a compiler error on this last line: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary' to 'string' How do I pass the entire openWith variable to AppendDataCT? AppendDataCT is the method that calls my SQL stored proc. I want to pass in the whole row where each row has a unique set of values that I want to add to my database table. For example, if each row requires values for cells A, B, and C, then I want to pass these 3 values to AppendDataCT, where all of these values are strings. How do I do this with Dictionary?

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  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

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  • Does pressing Back always cause Activity to finish()?

    - by stormin986
    I've heard that pressing the back button will essentially cause the current Activity to finish(). Is this always the case? Seems like it would be with the way it pops the Activity off the stack. The one situation I'm not so sure about is when the root Activity in a Task has back pressed. I'm currently experiencing a very weird effect, described as follows: On loading my application, the first Activity is for initialization, and once it finishes, it calls my main Activity (a TabActivity). This first init activity has android:noHistory="true" set in the Manifest so pressing Back from my main Activity won't go back to that. It goes to the Launcher. When I click on my App in the Launcher a second time, the initialization activity loads again, and loads the main Activity when done. Almost immediately after, it loads a second instance of my main Activity. But ONLY after the Application has already been run once, and was exited by pressing BACK from the main Activity. It does it every subsequent time until I force quit the app or load a new version from the IDE. Based on this, I am suspecting some kind of Activity instance is lying around and being reused, since it only happens on the second+ time I run the application (and exit with BACK -- using HOME just returns to the last state of the app, no big deal). Anyone have any thoughts??

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  • Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

    - by Scott Silvi
    Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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  • Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

    - by Rabbott
    I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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  • Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

    - by orangepips
    Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • JqGrid updating grid on add

    - by CSharpAtl
    Scenario: I have three columns in my grid but only one is editable, the other two are filled in on the server side. I am using the built in add functionality of jqGrid and NOT refreshing the grid on successfully add. I would like to have the row added to the grid, like it does automatically, but would like to add it myself because it only adds the one column that is marked 'editable'. I cannot seem to find a way to block the row from being automatically added to the grid, or a way to override the built in add functionality in the grid. My idea was to add the row myself because I will have received back the full row of data back on my submit. Questions: Is there a way to stop the grid from automatically adding the row when I do not want a grid refresh, so that I can manually add all the data for the row? Is it possible to use the built in add button and override the onClick, without digging and and directly figuring out what jqGrid calls the button? Any better ideas on how to accomplish getting the row added to the grid from the server side without doing it all manually...ie. create my own add button, and popup a dialog and handle all the submit functionality? EDIT What would help is if I could stop the grid from auto adding the row...I can deal with doing it myself.

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  • pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

    - by janesconference
    Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

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  • Cannot convert object, recieved from ajax call, into a long

    - by Matt
    I'm using Asp.Net-Mvc, I have this method in my controller: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult LinkAccount(string site, object id) { return this.Json(id); } Here's the ajax method that calls it: $.post("/Account/LinkAccount", { site: "Facebook", id: FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid }, function(result) { alert(result); }, "json" ); returning this.Json(id); makes the alert work... it alerts 7128383 (something similar to that). but if I change this.Json(id) to this.Json(Conver.ToInt64(id)); the alert does not fire... Any idea of why I can't convert an object received from an object to a long? I already know changing the LinkAccount method to accept a long instead works just fine. It's just I need it as an object because some other sites I'm linking up have strings for id's rather than longs. UPDATE: I tried running the code on localhost so I could set a breakpoint. First I changed the line return this.Json(Convert.ToInt64(id)); to long idAsLong = Convert.ToInt64(id));. Here's what the debugger is telling me: When I hover over id it says: "id | {string[1]}" and when I press the plus button is shows: "[0] | '7128383'" When I hover over idAsLong, it says: "idAsLong | 0" Why isn't it converting it properly?

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  • Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

    - by aruwen
    I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

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  • Ideas on frameworks in .NET that can be used for job processing and notifications

    - by Rajat Mehta
    Scenario: We have one instance of WCF windows service which exposes contracts like: AddNewJob(Job job), GetJobs(JobQuery query) etc. This service is consumed by 70-100 instances of client which is Windows Form based .NET app. Typically the service has 50-100 inward calls/minute to add or query jobs that are stored in a table on Sql Server. The same service is also responsible for processing these jobs in real time. It queries database every 5 seconds picks up the queued jobs and starts processing them. A job has 6 states. Queued, Pre-processing, Processing, Post-processing, Completed, Failed, Locked. Another responsibility on this service is to update all clients on every state change of every job. This means almost 200+ callbacks to clients per second. Question: This whole implementation is done using WCF Duplex bindings and works perfectly fine on small number of parallel jobs. Problem arises when we scale it up to 1000 jobs at a time. The notifications don't work as expected, it leads to memory overflow etc. Is there any standard framework that can provide a clean infrastructure for handling this scenario?? Apologies for the long explanation!

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