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  • How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

    - by FMR
    I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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  • is it possible to display video information from an rtsp stream in an android app UI

    - by Joseph Cheung
    I have managed to get a working video player that can stream rtsp links, however im not sure how to display the videos current time position in the UI, i have used the getDuration and getCurrentPosition calls, stored this information in a string and tried to display it in the UI but it doesnt seem to work in main.xml: TextView android:id="@+id/player" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_margin="1px" android:text="@string/cpos" / in strings.xml: string name="cpos""" /string in Player.java private void playVideo(String url) { try { media.setEnabled(false); if (player == null) { player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setScreenOnWhilePlaying(true); } else { player.stop(); player.reset(); } player.setDataSource(url); player.getCurrentPosition(); player.setDisplay(holder); player.setAudioStreamType(AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC); player.setOnPreparedListener(this); player.prepareAsync(); player.setOnBufferingUpdateListener(this); player.setOnCompletionListener(this); } catch (Throwable t) { Log.e(TAG, "Exception in media prep", t); goBlooey(t); try { try { player.prepare(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Log.v(TAG, "Duration: === " + player.getDuration()); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } private Runnable onEverySecond = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (lastActionTime 0 && SystemClock.elapsedRealtime() - lastActionTime 3000) { clearPanels(false); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getCurrentPosition()); //stores getCurrentPosition as a string cpos = String.valueOf(player.getCurrentPosition()); System.out.print(cpos); } if (player != null) { timeline.setProgress(player.getDuration()); //stores getDuration as a string cdur = String.valueOf(player.getDuration()); System.out.print(cdur); } if (!isPaused) { surface.postDelayed(onEverySecond, 1000); } } };

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  • Passing Binary Data to a Stored Procedure in SQL Server 2008

    - by Joe Majewski
    I'm trying to figure out a way to store files in a database. I know it's recommended to store files on the file system rather than the database, but the job I'm working on would highly prefer using the database to store these images (files). There are also some constraints. I'm not an admin user, and I have to make stored procedures to execute all the commands. This hasn't been of much difficulty so far, but I cannot for the life of me establish a way to store a file (image) in the database. When I try to use the BULK command, I get an error saying "You do not have permission to use the bulk load statement." The bulk utility seemed like the easy way to upload files to the database, but without permissions I have to figure a work-a-round. I decided to use an HTML form with a file upload input type and handle it with PHP. The PHP calls the stored procedure and passes in the contents of the file. The problem is that now it's saying that the max length of a parameter can only be 128 characters. Now I'm completely stuck. I don't have permissions to use the bulk command and it appears that the max length of a parameter that I can pass to the SP is 128 characters. I expected to run into problems because binary characters and ascii characters don't mix well together, but I'm at a dead end... Thanks

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • Need guidelines for optimizing WebGL performance by minimizing shader changes

    - by brainjam
    I'm trying to get an idea of the practicality of WebGL for rendering large architectural interior scenes, consisting of 100K's of triangles. These triangles are distributed over many objects, and there are many materials in the scene. On the other hand, there are no moving parts. And the materials tend to be fairly simple, mostly based on texture maps. There is a lot of texture map sharing .. for example all the chairs in scene will share a common map. There is also some multitexturing - up to three textures overlaid in a material. I've been doing a little experimentation and reading, and gather that frequently switching materials during a rendering pass will slow things down. For example, a scene with 200K triangles will have significant performance differences, depending on whether there are 10 or 1000 objects, assuming that each time an object is displayed a new material is set up. So it seems that if performance is important the scene should be sorted by materials so as to minimize material switching. What I'm looking for is guidelines on how to think of the overhead of various state changes, and where do I get the biggest bang for the buck. For example, what are the relative performance costs of, say, gl.useProgram(), gl.uniformMatrix4fv(), gl.drawElements() should I try to write ubershaders to minimize shader switching? should I try to aggregate geometry to minimize the number of gl.drawElements() calls I realize that mileage may vary depending on browser, OS, and graphics hardware. And I'm also not looking for heroic measures. Just some guidelines from people who have already had some experience in making scenes fast. I'll add that while I've had some experience with fixed-pipeline OpenGL programming in the past, I'm rather new to the WebGL/OpenGL ES 2.0 way of doing things.

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  • Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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  • Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

    - by Jim
    Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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  • UIImagePickerControllerDelegate Returns Blank "editingInfo" Dictionary Object

    - by Leachy Peachy
    Hi there, I have an iPhone app that calls upon the UIImagePickerController to offer folks a choice between selecting images via the camera or via their photo library on the phone. The problem is that sometimes, (Can't always get it to replicate.), the editingInfo dictionary object that is supposed to be returned by didFinishPickingImage delegate message, comes back blank or (null). Has anyone else seen this before? I am implementing the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in my .h file and I am correctly implementing the two delegate methods: didFinishPickingImage and imagePickerControllerDidCancel. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance! Here is my code... my .h file: @interface AddPhotoController : UIViewController <UIImagePickerControllerDelegate, UINavigationControllerDelegate> { IBOutlet UIImageView *imageView; IBOutlet UIButton *snapNewPictureButton; IBOutlet UIButton *selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *imageView; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIButton *snapNewPictureButton; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIButton * selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; my .m file: @implementation AddPhotoController @synthesize imageView, snapNewPictureButton, selectFromPhotoLibraryButton; - (IBAction)getCameraPicture:(id)sender { UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; picker.allowsImageEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; } - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingImage:(UIImage *)image editingInfo:(NSDictionary *)editingInfo { NSLog(@"Image Meta Info.: %@",editingInfo); UIImage *selectedImage = image; imageView.image = selectedImage; self._havePictureData = YES; [self.useThisPhotoButton setEnabled:YES]; [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (void)imagePickerControllerDidCancel:(UIImagePickerController *)picker { [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

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  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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  • Returning true or error message in Ruby

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • IE 8 issue where window.close() is not occuring after winword.exe is fired to print a document

    - by Dave
    In my web application, a popup page is called using window.open javascript. There is a Print button on the page that has an onclick event that calls a printchecks() function. The code in the printchecks() function is function printchecks(){ window.print(); window.close(); } Issue is that the window.print brings up the printer dialog fine and then you select a printer. The page is actually then printed and is a reference to an rtf document that opens in winword.exe behind the scenes. For some reason in IE 8, the window.close() does not occur. This worked in IE 7. In both cases, WINWORD.EXE process appears to run in the background after the page is printed but in the case of IE 8, control is not give back to that popup page until the WINWORD.EXE process dies which takes a minute or so. I am thinking that becasue control is not being sent back to the page in IE 8, the page is not closed automatically. You can close the page after control is given back after the minute or so. This does happen in IE on both Windows XP and Windows 7. Any ideas if there is a setting in IE 8 or some other reason this may be occuring?

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  • Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

    - by orangepips
    Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

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  • ExternalInterface issue on loadup with FireFox

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my ExternalInterface. The way it is currently set up is, on the page load up, a boolean is set to true in JavaScript and then checked by ActionScript constructors (using a timer) until it is true. This marks that JavaScript is ready to get calls from AS3. At this point, AS3 will add the callback and do some internal stuff, and at the end of the constructor I call JavaScript. So far so good. JavaScript will at this point call a function in AS3 (that was defined in the callback described above), and this is where it all messes up. On IE this works perfectly fine. On FireFox though, it does not. When I debug it, I see that the javascript function is called but when it tries to call AS3, nothing happens. I also tried to add a timer, but for some reason the function STILL executes straight away (in IE). What is very weird is that a second or two later, that function will work, so it seems that the Flash is not completely loaded in FireFox? But it runs to the last line of my constructor, so I would believe it's loaded. Any idea please, I am really stuck. Thanks a lot, Rudy

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  • Method for defining simultaneous has-many and has-one associations between two models in CakePHP?

    - by Hobonium
    One thing with which I have long had problems, within the CakePHP framework, is defining simultaneous hasOne and hasMany relationships between two models. For example: BlogEntry hasMany Comment BlogEntry hasOne MostRecentComment (where MostRecentComment is the Comment with the most recent created field) Defining these relationships in the BlogEntry model properties is problematic. CakePHP's ORM implements a has-one relationship as an INNER JOIN, so as soon as there is more than one Comment, BlogEntry::find('all') calls return multiple results per BlogEntry. I've worked around these situations in the past in a few ways: Using a model callback (or, sometimes, even in the controller or view!), I've simulated a MostRecentComment with: $this->data['MostRecentComment'] = $this->data['Comment'][0]; This gets ugly fast if, say, I need to order the Comments any way other than by Comment.created. It also doesn't Cake's in-built pagination features to sort by MostRecentComment fields (e.g. sort BlogEntry results reverse-chronologically by MostRecentComment.created. Maintaining an additional foreign key, BlogEntry.most_recent_comment_id. This is annoying to maintain, and breaks Cake's ORM: the implication is BlogEntry belongsTo MostRecentComment. It works, but just looks...wrong. These solutions left much to be desired, so I sat down with this problem the other day, and worked on a better solution. I've posted my eventual solution below, but I'd be thrilled (and maybe just a little mortified) to discover there is some mind-blowingly simple solution that has escaped me this whole time. Or any other solution that meets my criteria: it must be able to sort by MostRecentComment fields at the Model::find level (ie. not just a massage of the results); it shouldn't require additional fields in the comments or blog_entries tables; it should respect the 'spirit' of the CakePHP ORM. (I'm also not sure the title of this question is as concise/informative as it could be.)

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  • How do I setup Linq to SQL and WCF

    - by Jisaak
    So I'm venturing out into the world of Linq and WCF web services and I can't seem to make the magic happen. I have a VERY basic WCF web service going and I can get my old SqlConnection calls to work and return a DataSet. But I can't/don't know how to get the Linq to SQL queries to work. I'm guessing it might be a permissions problem since I need to connect to the SQL Database with a specific set of credentials but I don't know how I can test if that is the issue. I've tried using both of these connection strings and neither seem to give me a different result. <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;User ID=domain\userName; Password=blahblah; Trusted_Connection=true" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> Here is the function in my service that does the query and I have the interface add the [OperationContract] public string GetCity(int cityId) { GeoDataContext db = new GeoDataContext(); var city = from c in db.Cities where c.CITY_ID == 30429 select c.DESCRIPTION; return city.ToString(); } The GeoData.dbml only has one simple table in it with a list of city id's and city names. I have also changed the "Serialization Mode" on the DataContext to "Unidirectional" which from what I've read needs to be done for WCF. When I run the service I get this as the return: SELECT [t0].[DESCRIPTION] FROM [dbo].[Cities] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CITY_ID] = @p0 Dang, so as I'm writing this I realize that maybe my query is all messed up?

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  • TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

    - by larryq
    (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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  • How do JVM's implicit memory barriers behave when chaining constructors

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Referring to my earlier question on incompletely constructed objects, I have a second question. As Jon Skeet pointed out, there's an implicit memory barrier in the end of a constructor that makes sure that final fields are visible to all threads. But what if a constructor calls another constructor; is there such a memory barrier in the end of each of them, or only in one being called from outside? That is, when the "wrong" solution is: public class ThisEscape { public ThisEscape(EventSource source) { source.registerListener( new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } }); } } And the correct one would be a factory method version: public class SafeListener { private final EventListener listener; private SafeListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public static SafeListener newInstance(EventSource source) { SafeListener safe = new SafeListener(); source.registerListener(safe.listener); return safe; } } Would the following work too, or not? public class MyListener { private final EventListener Listener; private MyListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public MyListener(EventSource source) { this(); source.register(listener); } }

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  • DataGrid Column names don't seem to be binding

    - by Jason
    Sort of a Flex newbie here so bear with me. I've got a DataGrid defined as follows: <mx:Script> ... private function getColumns(names:ArrayCollection):Array { var ret:Array = new Array(); for each (var name:String in names) { var column:DataGridColumn = new DataGridColumn(name); ret.push(column); } return ret; } </mx:Script> <mx:DataGrid id="grid" width="100%" height="100%" paddingTop="0" columns="{getColumns(_dataSetLoader.columnNames)}" horizontalScrollPolicy="auto" labelFunction="labelFunction" dataProvider="{_dataSetLoader.data}" /> ...where _dataSetLoader is an instance of an object that looks like: [Bindable] public class DataSetLoader extends EventDispatcher { ... private var _data:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); private var _columnNames:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); ... public function reset():void { _status = NOTLOADED; _data.removeAll(); _columnNames.removeAll(); } ... When reset() is called on the dataSetLoader instance, the DataGrid empties the data in the cells, as expected, but leaves the column names, even though reset() calls _columnNames.removeAll(). Shouldn't the change in the collection trigger a change in the DataGrid?

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  • IE browser script to determine which (if any) ActiveX control will handle specific mime type

    - by Jay13
    I'm trying to figure out in an IE script (javascript or vbscript) which ActiveX control will handle a specific mime type, "image/tiff" in this case. This is easy to do in other browsers that use plugins with; navigator.mimeTypes["image/tiff"].enabledPlugin.name which would return something like QuickTime Plug-in X.X.X I've found plenty of examples to tell if a specific plugin is loaded but since there are several plugins available that can handle tiff images I need to know which, if any, is registered to handle this mime type. The problem I'm trying to deal with is that QuickTime always wants to register itself as the default tiff viewer but it does a terrible job of it resulting in lots of support calls. Unfortunately, simply detecting that QuickTime is installed isn't good enough since the user may also have another tiff viewer installed (like Alternatiff) as the default tiff viewer or the user may have configured QuickTime to not be the default viewer for tiff images so the browser could be using a helper app to display the image instead. Not meaning to be difficult but before anyone suggests reengineering workarounds; yes I know I could force the user to use a specific ActiveX viewer in IE or to use a Java tiff viewer but I'd rather let them use a viewer of their choice rather than forcing them to install a viewer of my choosing, especially since their viewer may be a helper app that loads the tiff image into a business workflow within their office yes I know there are other image formats that I could use but tiff is the defacto standard for document imaging and that's what the vast majority of these users prefer to use. The problem isn't the image format, it's that QuickTime just doesn't cut it as a tiff viewer Thanks in advance for any suggestions or solutions...

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  • How to communicate between frames?

    - by bangoker
    I'm maintaining an application that goes sort of like this: There is a Page A with a Frame that shows Page B. Now page B is part of a completely different product, so there's a frame in a that just calls B. Now, they want that when B an option in B is clicked, the WHOLE page is redirected to another page in A. The problem is that the url of A is something like "www.client.MyCompany/Order/Details/123" But B doesnt know nothing about A, or which order # it is or anything, but Page A who has the frame B does know it. For know my solution is to just redirect to all the order so something like client.MyCompany/Orders but since B doesn't know which client it is, I'll add it in the webconfig. (so each client has its own webconfig with a different value). I dont find this solution optimal but I can't think of anything else! I already tried putting the needed url in page A in a hidden Div (since A does know all the info) and then trying to read the whole DOM of the page from B to find it.... unfortunately I can only get access to Frame B's DOM... (I tried with jquery). I know frames are evil, but this is how it is written... any ideas? Thanks!

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  • What can cause Bonjour to not call me back during browsing?

    - by millenomi
    I have a rather popular Bonjour-based application in App Store. It works perfectly, but around 0.2% of my users report a bizarre bug: "no arrows appear on the edges of the screen, so I can't share stuff with other people!". Needless to say, displaying these arrows is tied to the browsing of a particular Bonjour service on the local domain. The problem is, the Apple review team seems to intermittently happen to be in this 0.2%. This isn't good for review results, as you might imagine. No matter how much I try, I cannot reproduce this bug. From the few logs I have, it looks like my app is running correctly, just not receiving NSNetServiceBrowser delegate calls. What can cause this? Things I've tried: Having a shorter service name < 14 chars in length to be in spec. Publishing on @"local." rather than @"" (aka Go Look For The Default Registration Domain). My app is rather useless on a wide-area network anyway. Things I haven't tried: restarting the browsing machinery periodically. (I have two browsers, though, one looking for the legacy longer name, one for the new shorter one.) What to do?

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  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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