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• Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

  - by Chris R

  I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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• Team Build Reports as "Failed" Even Though All Targets Succeeded

  - by benjy

  Hi, I've written a custom MSBuild script to be used with Team Build, as I am storing PHP in TFS and of course it isn't compiled. My custom script calls the CoreGet target to get the latest version of the files, and the copies them, ZIPs, them, and FTPs the ZIP archive to a testing server. All of that is working fine. The problem I am having is that despite the build succeeding - see the output in BuildLog.txt - Done executing task "BuildStep". Done building target "FTP" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done executing task "CallTarget". Done building target "EndToEndIteration" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done Building Project "C:\Documents and Settings\tfsservice\Local Settings\Temp\Code\PHP\BuildType\TFSBuild.proj" (EndToEndIteration target(s)). Build succeeded. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) the build still reports as having failed. The log from Visual Studio looks like so: Anyone know how I can make it report as having succeeded? Thanks very much in advance, Benjy P.S.: Please let me know if anyone would find having the whole build script helpful. Thanks!

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• Does SetFileBandwidthReservation affect memory-mapped file performance?

  - by Ghostrider

  Does this function affect Memory-mapped file performance? Here's the problem I need to solve: I have two applications competing for disk access: "reader" and "updater". Whole system runs on Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 "Updater" constantly accesses disk in a linear manner, updating data. They system is set up in such a way that updater always has infinite data to update. Consider that it is constantly approximating a solution of a huge set of equations that takes up entire 2TB disk drive. Updater uses ReadFile and WriteFile to process data in a linear fashion. "Reader" is occasionally invoked by user to get some pieces of data. Usually user would read several 4kb blocks from the drive and stop. Occasionally user needs to read up to 100mb sequentially. In exceptional cases up to several gigabytes. Reader maps files to memory to get data it needs. What I would like to achieve is for "reader" to have absolute priority so that "updater" would completely stop if needed so that "reader" could get the data user needs ASAP. Is this problem solvable by using SetPriorityClass and SetFileBandwidthReservation calls? I would really hate to put synchronization login in "reader" and "updater" and rather have the OS take care of priorities.

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• PPR in tr:selectOneChoice does not work

  - by Nhut Le

  Hi, I have a simple testing page that test my PPR on a selectOneChoice component. when select a value from selectOnechoice 1, the selected value will display on a output label and also reset the selected value and the other selectOneChoice. However, it prints the selected values to the label correctly but it can't set the selected value for the other selectOneChoice. and Here are my page and my value change event method. <tr:form id="nhutForm"> <tr:selectOneChoice id="one" value="#{nhutTestBean.one}" autoSubmit="true" immediate="true" valueChangeListener="#{nhutTestBean.onMyValueChanged}"> <tr:selectItem label="0" value="0"/> <tr:selectItem label="1" value="1"/> <tr:selectItem label="2" value="2"/> <tr:selectItem label="3" value="3"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:selectOneChoice id="two" value="#{nhutTestBean.two}" partialTriggers="one"> <f:selectItems value="#{nhutTestBean.myList}"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:outputText id="nhutTextBox" value="hello: #{nhutTestBean.output}" partialTriggers="one"/></tr:form> and my valueChangeEvent method: public void onMyValueChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { this.setOutput((String)event.getNewValue()); this.setTwo((String)event.getNewValue()); } One thing I realize is that it calls my setTwo twice, the first the set the correct values, but the second time set it to null so that nothing would be selected for the two drop down box. please help. thank you so much.

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• Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

  - by Sam

  I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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• Returning true or error message in Ruby

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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• What is the the relation between programming and mathematics?

  - by Math Grad

  Programmers seem to think that their work is quite mathematical. I understand this when you try to optimize something in performance, find the most efficient alogithm, etc.. But it patently seems false when you look at a billing application for a shop, or a systems software riddled with I/O calls. So what is it exactly? Is computation and associated programming really mathematical? Here I have in mind particularly the words of the philosopher Schopenhauer in mind: That arithmetic is the basest of all mental activities is proved by the fact that it is the only one that can be accomplished by means of a machine. Take, for instance, the reckoning machines that are so commonly used in England at the present time, and solely for the sake of convenience. But all analysis finitorum et infinitorum is fundamentally based on calculation. Therefore we may gauge the “profound sense of the mathematician,” of whom Lichtenberg has made fun, in that he says: “These so-called professors of mathematics have taken advantage of the ingenuousness of other people, have attained the credit of possessing profound sense, which strongly resembles the theologians’ profound sense of their own holiness.” I lifted the above quote from here. It seems that programmers are doing precisely the sort of mechanized base mental activity the grand old man is contemptuous about. So what exactly is the deal? Is programming really the "good" kind of mathematics, or just the baser type, or altogether something else just meant for business not to be confused with a pure discipline?

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• problems with Console.SetOut in Release Mode?

  - by Matt Jacobsen

  i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Update: hamishmcn below started talking about debug/release builds. I removed the native call in the above button1_click method and just replaced it with a standard Console.WriteLine .net call. When I compiled and ran this in debug mode the messages were redirected to the output file. When I switched to release mode however the calls weren't redirected. Console redirection only seems to work in debug mode. How do I get around this?

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• Extracting shell script from parameterised Hudson job

  - by Jonik

  I have a parameterised Hudson job, used for some AWS deployment stuff, which in one build step runs certain shell commands. However, that script has become sufficiently complicated that I want to "extract" it from Hudson to a separate script file, so that it can easily be versioned properly. The Hudson job would then simply update from VCS and execute the external script file. My main question is about passing parameters to the script. I have a Hudson parameter named AMI_ID and a few others. The script references those params as if they were environment variables: echo "Using AMI $AMI_ID and type $TYPE" Now, this works fine inside Hudson, but not if Hudson calls an external script. Could I somehow make Hudson set the params as environment variables so that I don't need to change the script? Or is my best option to alter the script to take command line parameters (and possibly assign those to named variables for readability: ami_id=$1; type=$2; ... )? I tried something like this but the script doesn't get correctly replaced values: export AMI_ID=$AMI_ID export TYPE=$TYPE external-script.sh # this tries to use e.g. $AMI_ID Bonus question: when the script is inside Hudson, the "console output" will contain both the executed commands and their output. This is extremely useful for debugging when something goes wrong with a build! For example, here the line starting with "+" is part of the script and the following line its output: + ec2-associate-address -K pk.pem -C cert.pem 77.125.116.139 -i i-aa3487fd ADDRESS 77.125.116.139 i-aa3487fd When calling an external script, Hudson output will only contain the latter line, making debugging harder. I could cat the script file to stdout before running it, but that's not optimal either. In effect, I'd like a kind of DOS-style "echo on" for the script which I'm calling from Hudson - anyone know a trick to achieve this?

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• Can I load a UIImage from a URL?

  - by progrmr

  I have a URL for an image (got it from UIImagePickerController) but I no longer have the image in memory (the URL was saved from a previous run of the app). Can I reload the UIImage from the URL again? I see that UIImage has a imageWithContentsOfFile: but I have a URL. Can I use NSData's dataWithContentsOfURL: to read the URL? EDIT based on @Daniel's answer I tried the following code but it doesn't work... NSLog(@"%s %@", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__, photoURL); if (photoURL) { NSURL* aURL = [NSURL URLWithString:photoURL]; NSData* data = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:aURL]; self.photoImage = [UIImage imageWithData:data]; [data release]; } When I ran it the console shows: -[PhotoBox willMoveToWindow:] file://localhost/Users/gary/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/3.2/Media/DCIM/100APPLE/IMG_0004.JPG *** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0 *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSURL length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x536fbe0' Looking at the call stack, I'm calling URLWithString, which calls URLWithString:relativeToURL:, then initWithString:relativeToURL:, then _CFStringIsLegalURLString, then CFStringGetLength, then forwarding_prep_0, then forwarding, then -[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector]. Any ideas why my NSString (photoURL's address is 0x536fbe0) doesn't respond to length? Why does it say it doesn't respond to -[NSURL length]? Doesn't it know that param is an NSString, not a NSURL?

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• Show progress during a long Ajax call

  - by kousen

  I have a simple web site (http://www.kousenit.com/twitterfollowervalue) that computes a quantity based on a person's Twitter followers. Since the Twitter API only returns followers 100 at a time, a complete process may involve lots of calls. At the moment, I have an Ajax call to a method that runs the Twitter loop. The method looks like (Groovy): def updateFollowers() { def slurper = new XmlSlurper() followers = [] def next = -1 while (next) { def url = "http://api.twitter.com/1/statuses/followers.xml?id=$id&cursor=$next" def response = slurper.parse(url) response.users.user.each { u -> followers << new TwitterUser(... process data ...) } next = response.next_cursor.toBigInteger() } return followers } This is invoked from a controller called renderTTFV.groovy. I call the controller via an Ajax call using the prototype library: On my web page, in the header section (JavaScript): function displayTTFV() { new Ajax.Updater('ttfv','renderTTFV.groovy', {}); } and there's a div in the body of the page that updates when the call is complete. Everything is working, but the updateFollowers method can take a fair amount of time. Is there some way I could return a progress value? For example, I'd like to update the web page on every iteration. I know ahead of time how many iterations there will be. I just can't figure out a way to update the page in the middle of that loop. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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• Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

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• How to communicate between frames?

  - by bangoker

  I'm maintaining an application that goes sort of like this: There is a Page A with a Frame that shows Page B. Now page B is part of a completely different product, so there's a frame in a that just calls B. Now, they want that when B an option in B is clicked, the WHOLE page is redirected to another page in A. The problem is that the url of A is something like "www.client.MyCompany/Order/Details/123" But B doesnt know nothing about A, or which order # it is or anything, but Page A who has the frame B does know it. For know my solution is to just redirect to all the order so something like client.MyCompany/Orders but since B doesn't know which client it is, I'll add it in the webconfig. (so each client has its own webconfig with a different value). I dont find this solution optimal but I can't think of anything else! I already tried putting the needed url in page A in a hidden Div (since A does know all the info) and then trying to read the whole DOM of the page from B to find it.... unfortunately I can only get access to Frame B's DOM... (I tried with jquery). I know frames are evil, but this is how it is written... any ideas? Thanks!

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• Reading from a database located in the Program Files folder using ODBC

  - by Dabblernl

  We have an application that stores its database files in a subfolder of the Program Files directory. These files are redirected to the VirtualStore in Vista and Windows 7. We represent data from the database using Microsoft DataReports (VB6). So far so good. But we now want to use Crystal Reports XI to represent data from the database. Our idea is to NOT pass this data to CR from our program, but to have CR retreive it from the database using a a system DSN through ODBC. In this way we hope to present our users with more flexibility in designing their own reports. What we do want to ensure though is that these system DSNs are configured correctly when the user installs our program or when the program calls the Crystal Report. Is there a smart way to do this using System variables for instance, instead of having to write a routine that checks for OS-version, whether UAC is enabled on the OS, whether the write restrictions on the Program Files folder have been lifted, etc and then adapts he System DSN to point to either the C:\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder, or the C:\Users\User\AppData\VirtualStore\Program Files\OurApp\Data folder? Suggestions for an entirely different approach are welcome too!

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• How to pass a Dictionary variable to another procedure

  - by salvationishere

  I am developing a C# VS2008/SQL Server website application. I've never used the Dictionary class before, but I am trying to replace my Hashtable with a Dictionary variable. Here is a portion of my aspx.cs code: ... Dictionary<string, string> openWith = new Dictionary<string, string>(); for (int col = 0; col < headers.Length; col++) { @temp = (col + 1); @tempS = @temp.ToString(); @tempT = "@col" + @temp.ToString(); ... openWith.Add(@tempT, headers[col]); } ... for (int r = 0; r < myInputFile.Rows.Count; r++) { resultLabel.Text = ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(myInputFile, openWith); } But this is giving me a compiler error on this last line: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary' to 'string' How do I pass the entire openWith variable to AppendDataCT? AppendDataCT is the method that calls my SQL stored proc. I want to pass in the whole row where each row has a unique set of values that I want to add to my database table. For example, if each row requires values for cells A, B, and C, then I want to pass these 3 values to AppendDataCT, where all of these values are strings. How do I do this with Dictionary?

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• ExternalInterface issue on loadup with FireFox

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my ExternalInterface. The way it is currently set up is, on the page load up, a boolean is set to true in JavaScript and then checked by ActionScript constructors (using a timer) until it is true. This marks that JavaScript is ready to get calls from AS3. At this point, AS3 will add the callback and do some internal stuff, and at the end of the constructor I call JavaScript. So far so good. JavaScript will at this point call a function in AS3 (that was defined in the callback described above), and this is where it all messes up. On IE this works perfectly fine. On FireFox though, it does not. When I debug it, I see that the javascript function is called but when it tries to call AS3, nothing happens. I also tried to add a timer, but for some reason the function STILL executes straight away (in IE). What is very weird is that a second or two later, that function will work, so it seems that the Flash is not completely loaded in FireFox? But it runs to the last line of my constructor, so I would believe it's loaded. Any idea please, I am really stuck. Thanks a lot, Rudy

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• Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

  - by Jim

  Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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• Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

  - by Greg

  Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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• Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

  - by damix911

  I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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• Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

  - by George

  I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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• How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

  - by FMR

  I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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• Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

  - by Rabbott

  I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

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• Dynamcally resizing an open Accordion

  - by alavers

  I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

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