Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 219/278 | < Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >

  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

    Read the article

  • jQuery rotator not rotating properly - too much recursion

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I've built a custom jQuery rotator using just basic animation to rotate the 3 Divs (images). I've built the function and then reinitiate the function using it as a call back. Here's the code: function ImageRotate() { var CurrentFeature = "#container" + featureNumber; $(CurrentFeature).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '330px'}, 3000); var featureNumber2 = featureNumber-1; if ( featureNumber == 1) {featureNumber2=3} var CurrentFeature2 = "#container" + featureNumber2; $(CurrentFeature2).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '0px'}, 3000); $('#container2').stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '-330px'}, 25); var featureNumber3 = featureNumber+1; if ( featureNumber == 3){featureNumber3=1} var CurrentFeature3 = "#container" + featureNumber3; $(CurrentFeature3).stop(false, true).delay(7500).animate({'top' : '0px'}, 3000); $(CurrentFeature2).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '330px'}, 3000); $(CurrentFeature).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '-330px'}, 25); if (featureNumber ==1) {featureNumber=3} else{featureNumber--}; $(CurrentFeature).stop(false, true).delay(7500).animate({'top' : '0px'}, 3000); $(CurrentFeature3).stop(false, true).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '330px'}, 3000); $(CurrentFeature2).stop(false, false).delay(4500).animate({'top' : '-330px'}, 25,ImageRotate()); }; It's worth noting that when calling the function again I also tried making another function called ImageRotate2(); and it did the same thing. It loops, but i get all sorts of funkiness. Edit: I've also tried some answers in the replies and they both leave me with recursion errors each second.

    Read the article

  • How to call functions inside a C dll which take pointers as arguments from C#

    - by AndrejaKo
    Hi people, this is my first post here! I'm trying to make a windows forms program using C# which will use a precompiled C library. It will access a smart card and provide output from it. For the library, I have a .dll, .lib and .h and no source. In the .h file there are several structs defined. Most interesting functions of the .dll expect pointers to allocated structs as arguments. I've been calling functions inside the .dll like this: For example function EID_API int WINAPI EidStartup(int nApiVersion); would be called like this [DllImport("CelikApi.dll")]//the name of the .dll public static extern int EidStartup(int nApiVersion); Now my problem is that I can't find equivalent of C's pointers which point to dynamically allocated structures in memory in C#, so I don't know what to pass as argument to functions which take C pointers. I don't have much experience in C#, but to me its use looked as the easiest way of making the program I need. I tried with C++, but Visual Studio 2010 doesn't have IntelliSense for C++/CLR. If you can point me to something better, feel free to do so.

    Read the article

  • Server returns 500 error only when called by Java client using urlConnection/httpUrlConnection

    - by user455889
    Hi - I'm having a very strange problem. I'm trying to call a servlet (JSP) with an HTTP GET and a few parameters (http://mydomain.com/method?param1=test&param2=123). If I call it from the browser or via WGET in a bash session, it works fine. However, when I make the exact same call in a Java client using urlConnection or httpURLConnection, the server returns a 500 error. I've tried everything I have found online including: urlConn.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); Nothing I've tried, however, has worked. Unfortunately, I don't have access to the server I'm calling so I can't see the logs. Here's the latest code: private String testURLConnection() { String ret = ""; String url = "http://localhost:8080/TestService/test"; String query = "param1=value1&param2=value2"; try { URLConnection connection = new URL(url + "?" + query).openConnection(); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Charset", "UTF-8"); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String line; StringBuilder content = new StringBuilder(); while ((line = bufferedReader.readLine()) != null) { content.append(line + "\n"); } bufferedReader.close(); metaRet = content.toString(); log.debug(methodName + " return = " + metaRet); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Exception: " + ex); log.error("stack trace: " + getStackTrace(ex)); } return metaRet; } Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How do I run NUnit in debug mode from Visual Studio?

    - by Jon Cage
    I've recently been building a test framework for a bit of C# I've been working on. I have NUnit set up and a new project within my workspace to test the component. All works well if I load up my unit tests from Nunit (v2.4), but I've got to the point where it would be really useful to run in debug mode and set some break points. I've tried the suggestions from several guides which all suggest changing the 'Debug' properties of the test project: Start external program: C:\Program Files\NUnit 2.4.8\bin\nunit-console.exe Command line arguments: /assembly: <full-path-to-solution>\TestDSP\bin\Debug\TestDSP.dll I'm using the console version there, but have tried the calling the GUI as well. Both give me the same error when I try and start debugging: Cannot start test project 'TestDSP' because the project does not contain any tests. Is this because I normally load \DSP.nunit into the Nunit GUI and that's where the tests are held? I'm beginning to think the problem may be that VS wants to run it's own test framework and that's why it's failing to find the NUnit tests? [Edit] To those asking about test fixtures, one of my .cs files in the TestDSP project looks roughly like this: namespace Some.TestNamespace { // Testing framework includes using NUnit.Framework; [TestFixture] public class FirFilterTest { /// <summary> /// Tests that a FirFilter can be created /// </summary> [Test] public void Test01_ConstructorTest() { ...some tests... } } } ...I'm pretty new to C# and the Nunit test framework so it's entirely possible I've missed some crucial bit of information ;-) [FINAL SOLUTION] The big problem was the project I'd used. If you pick: Other Languages->Visual C#->Test->Test Project ...when you're choosing the project type, Visual Studio will try and use it's own testing framework as far as I can tell. You should pick a normal c# class library project instead and then the instructions in my selected answer will work.

    Read the article

  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

    Read the article

  • Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

    - by Jace
    To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

    - by Preston
    I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

    Read the article

  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

    Read the article

  • Doctrine/symfony: getSqlQuery() output in phpMyAdmin/SQL tab

    - by user248959
    Hi, i have created this query that works OK: $q1 = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('Usuario u') ->leftJoin('u.AmigoUsuario a ON u.id = a.user2_id OR u.id = a.user1_id') ->where("a.user2_id = ? OR a.user1_id = ?", array($id,$id)) ->andWhere("u.id <> ?", $id) ->andWhere("a.estado LIKE ?", 1); echo $q1->getSqlQuery(); The calling to getSqlQuery outputs this clause: SELECT s.id AS s_id, s.username AS s_username, s.algorithm AS s_algorithm, s.salt AS s_salt, s.password AS s__password, s.is_active AS s__is_active, s.is_super_admin AS s__is_super_admin, s.last_login AS s__last_login, s.email_address AS s__email_address, s.nombre_apellidos AS s__nombre_apellidos, s.sexo AS s__sexo, s.fecha_nac AS s__fecha_nac, s.provincia AS s_provincia, s.localidad AS s_localidad, s.fotografia AS s_fotografia, s.avatar AS s_avatar, s.avatar_mensajes AS s__avatar_mensajes, s.created_at AS s__created_at, s.updated_at AS s__updated_at, a.id AS a__id, a.user1_id AS a__user1_id, a.user2_id AS a__user2_id, a.estado AS a__estado FROM sf_guard_user s LEFT JOIN amigo_usuario a ON ((s.id = a.user2_id OR s.id = a.user1_id)) WHERE ((a.user2_id = ? OR a.user1_id = ?) AND s.id < ? AND a.estado LIKE ?) If i take that clause to phpmyadmin SQL tab i get this error 1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '? OR a.user1_id = ?) AND s.id < ? AND a.estado LIKE ?) LIMIT 0, 30' at line 1 Why i'm getting this error? Regards Javi

    Read the article

  • How to debug problems in Linux kernel module `init()`?

    - by Kimvais
    I am using remote (k)gdb to debug a problem in a module that causes a panic when loaded e.g. when init() is called. The stack trace just shows that do_one_initcall(mod->init) causes the crash. In order to get the symbol file loaded in the gdb, I need to get the address of the module text section, and to get that I need to get the module loaded. Because the insmod in busybox (1.16.1) doesn't support -m so I'm stuck to grep modulename /proc/modules + adding the offset from nm to figure out the address. So I'm facing a sort a of a chicken and an egg problem here - to be able to debug the module loading, I need to get the module loaded - but in order to get the module loaded, I need to debug the problem... So I am currently thinking about two options - is there a way to get the address information either: by printk() in the module init code by printk() somewhere in the kernel code all this prior to calling the mod->init() - so I could place a breakpoint there, load the symbol file, hit c and see it crash and burn...

    Read the article

  • .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

    - by DevSolo
    I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

    Read the article

  • iPhone NSTimer OpenGL problem

    - by Toby Wilson
    I've got a problem that only seems to occur on the device, not in the simulator. My app's animation is started and stopped using these methods: NSTimer* animationTimer; -(void)startAnimation { if(animationTimer = nil) animationTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0f/60.0f target:self selector:@selector(drawView) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } -(void)stopAnimation { [animationTimer invalidate]; animationTimer = nil; } In the simulator this works fine and drawView starts being called at 60fps. On the device (testing on iPod Touch), the scheduleTimerWithTimeInterval method doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, [animationTimer invalidate] causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I've spotted an obvious but minor flaw; adding if(animationTimer != nil) to the stopAnimation method will prevent the crash, but doesn't solve the problem of the animation timer not being properly initialised. Edit: The above doesn't prevent a crash. animationTimer != nil yet calling invalidate causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Should also add, this problem doesn't occur all the time on the device. Maybe 40% of the time.

    Read the article

  • extension methods with generics - when does caller need to include type parameters?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Is there a rule for knowing when one has to pass the generic type parameters in the client code when calling an extension method? So for example in the Program class why can I (a) not pass type parameters for top.AddNode(node), but where as later for the (b) top.AddRelationship line I have to pass them? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Create Graph var top = new TopologyImp<string>(); // Add Node var node = new StringNode(); node.Name = "asdf"; var node2 = new StringNode(); node2.Name = "test child"; top.AddNode(node); top.AddNode(node2); top.AddRelationship<string, RelationshipsImp>(node,node2); // *** HERE *** } } public static class TopologyExtns { public static void AddNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> node) { topIf.Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); } public static INode<T> FindNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, T searchKey) { return topIf.Nodes[searchKey]; } public static void AddRelationship<T,R>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> parentNode, INode<T> childNode) where R : IRelationship<T>, new() { var rel = new R(); rel.Child = childNode; rel.Parent = parentNode; } } public class TopologyImp<T> : ITopology<T> { public Dictionary<T, INode<T>> Nodes { get; set; } public TopologyImp() { Nodes = new Dictionary<T, INode<T>>(); } }

    Read the article

  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

    Read the article

  • asp.net C# windows authentication iss config

    - by user1566209
    I'm developing a webpage where a need to know the users windows authentication values, more precisely the name. Others developments have been done with this kind of authentication but sadly for me their creators are long gone and i have no contact or documentation. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and i'm accessing a webservice that is in a remote server. The server is a windows server 2008 r2 standard and is using ISS version 7.5. Since i have the source code of the other developments what i did was copy paste and was working fine when i was calling the webservice that was in my machine (localhost). The code is the following: //1st way WindowsPrincipal wp = new WindowsPrincipal(WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent()); string strUser = wp.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //2nd way WindowsIdentity winId = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal winPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(winId); string user = winPrincipal.Identity.Name;//ALWAYS GET NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE //3rd way IIdentity WinId = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; WindowsIdentity wi = (WindowsIdentity)WinId; string userstr = wi.Name; //ALWAYS GET string empty btn_select.Text = userstr; btn_cancelar.Text = strUser; btn_gravar.Text = user; As you can see i have here 3 ways to get the same and in a sad manner show my user's name. As for my web.config i have: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" /> In the IIS manager i have tried lots of combination of enable and disable between Anonymous Authentication, ASP.NET Impersonation, Basic Authentication, Forms Authentication and Windows Authentication. Can please someone help me?? NOTE: The respective values i get from each try are in the code

    Read the article

  • Android, phone call audio stream via wlan

    - by moppel
    I am planning on developing my specific voip app for android. Here's the scenario: when a phone call occurs I want to hear the person who's calling on my local pc speakers and I want to speak to him via my own pc microphone / headset. So I need to send the audio stream of both me and the person I am talking to via the wlan network. Something like this: ... onCallStateChanged(int state, String phoneNumber){ while(state == PhoneListener.CALL_STATE_OFFHOOK){ //while phone call is happaning //send incoming speech via wlan to pc //receive audiostream from pc microphone and direct it to the phone call } } ... Is this possible with the current Android API? (Actually it should be since voip apps are available in the market) I did some research in the Android API and all I found was the AudioManager which has constant named public static final int STREAM_VOICE_CALL; //The audio stream for phone calls But I don't know how to use it our how it should give me access to the actual audiostreams which I can send via network. How do I manage to do this? The connection would be realised by TCP sockets.

    Read the article

  • Interpreting java.lang.NoSuchMethodError message

    - by Doog
    I get the following runtime error message (along with the first line of the stack trace, which points to line 94). I'm trying to figure out why it says no such method exists. java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.sun.tools.doclets.formats.html.SubWriterHolderWriter.printDocLinkForMenu( ILcom/sun/javadoc/ClassDoc;Lcom/sun/javadoc/MemberDoc; Ljava/lang/String;Z)Ljava/lang/String; at com.sun.tools.doclets.formats.html.AbstractExecutableMemberWriter.writeSummaryLink( AbstractExecutableMemberWriter.java:94) Line 94 of writeSummaryLink is shown below. QUESTIONS What does "ILcom" or "Z" mean? Why there are four types in parentheses (ILcom/sun/javadoc/ClassDoc;Lcom/sun/javadoc/MemberDoc;Ljava/lang/String;Z) and one after the parentheses Ljava/lang/String; when the method printDocLinkForMenu clearly has five parameters? CODE DETAIL The writeSummaryLink method is: protected void writeSummaryLink(int context, ClassDoc cd, ProgramElementDoc member) { ExecutableMemberDoc emd = (ExecutableMemberDoc)member; String name = emd.name(); writer.strong(); writer.printDocLinkForMenu(context, cd, (MemberDoc) emd, name, false); // 94 writer.strongEnd(); writer.displayLength = name.length(); writeParameters(emd, false); } Here's the method line 94 is calling: public void printDocLinkForMenu(int context, ClassDoc classDoc, MemberDoc doc, String label, boolean strong) { String docLink = getDocLink(context, classDoc, doc, label, strong); print(deleteParameterAnchors(docLink)); }

    Read the article

  • Dynamic loading of shared objects using dlopen()

    - by Andy
    Hi, I'm working on a plain X11 app. By default, my app only requires libX11.so and the standard gcc C and math libs. My app has also support for extensions like Xfixes and Xrender and the ALSA sound system. But this feature shall be made optional, i.e. if Xfixes/Xrender/ALSA is installed on the host system, my app will offer extended functionality. If Xfixes or Xrender or ALSA is not there, my app will still run but some functionality will not be available. To achieve this behaviour, I'm not linking dynamically against -lXfixes, -lXrender and -lasound. Instead, I'm opening these libraries manually using dlopen(). By doing it this way, I can be sure that my app won't fail in case one of these optional components is not present. Now to my question: What library names should I use when calling dlopen()? I've seen that these differ from distro to distro. For example, on openSUSE 11, they're named the following: libXfixes.so libXrender.so libasound.so On Ubuntu, however, the names have a version number attached, like this: libXfixes.so.3 libXrender.so.1 libasound.so.2 So trying to open "libXfixes.so" would fail on Ubuntu, although the lib is obviously there. It just has a version number attached. So how should my app handle this? Should I let my app scan /usr/lib/ first manually to see which libs we have and then choose an appropriate one? Or does anyone have a better idea? Thanks guys, Andy

    Read the article

  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • Problem using SQLDataReader with Sybase ASE

    - by John K.
    We're developing a reporting application that uses asp.net-mvc (.net 4). We connect through DDTEK.Sybase middleware to a Sybase ASE 12.5 database. We're having a problem pulling data into a datareader (from a stored procedure). The stored procedure computes values (approximately 50 columns) by doing sums, counts, and calling other stored procedures. The problem we're experiencing is... certain (maybe 5% of the columns) come back with NULL or 0. If we debug and copy the SQL statement being used for the datareader and run it inside another SQL tool we get all valid values for all columns. conn = new SybaseConnection { ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectStringName].ToString() }; conn.Open(); cmd = new SybaseCommand { CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout, Connection = conn, CommandText = mainSql }; reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); // AT THIS POINT IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE EXECUTEREADER COMMAND // THE READER CONTAINS THE BAD (NULL OR 0) DATA FOR THESE COLUMNS. DataTable schemaTable = reader.GetSchemaTable(); // AT THIS POINT WE CAN VIEW THE DATATABLE FOR THE SCHEMA AND IT APPEARS CORRECT // THE COLUMNS THAT DON'T WORK HAVE SPECIFICATIONS IDENTICAL TO THE COLUMNS THAT DO WORK Has anyone had problems like this using Sybase and ADO? Thanks, John K.

    Read the article

  • Getting error when compiling debug mode: C++/CLI - error LNK2022

    - by Yochai Timmer
    I've got a CLI code wrapping a C++ DLL. When i try to compile it in debug mode, i get the following error: Error 22 error LNK2022: metadata operation failed (8013118D) : Inconsistent layout information induplicated types .... MSVCMRTD.lib (locale0_implib.obj) The weird thing is that on Release mode it compiles OK and works OK. The only difference i can see that causes the problem is when i change: Configuration Properties - C/C++ - Code Generation - Runtime Library When it's set to: Multi-threaded Debug DLL (/MDd) it throws the error. When it's set to: Multi-threaded DLL (/MD) it compiles fine. The same settings work for all the other DLLs in the project (CLI and C++) and they inherit the same properties. I'm using VS2010. So, how can i solve this ? And can I get some explanation to WHY this is happening ? Update: I've basically tried changing every option in the project's properties with no luck. I've read somewhere that this might be caused from duplicate declarations of a type of the same name. But in the CLI file i'm calling std::string etc. explicitly from std. Any other ideas ?

    Read the article

  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

    Read the article

  • How to reload a tableView i.e call the viewDidLoad method if a condition is met

    - by Kquane Ingram
    The problem is this i need a way to basically erase all the entry data a user placed into my arrays if a condition is met. Im new to Objective-C and iOS programming, but i believed the solution might be in calling the viewDidLoad method, thus it would virtually refresh the applications with the values of the array reset to default. If there is any other logical way of doing this i would appreciate the help. In short i need to refresh the arrays as they were when the application first launched and the user did not select anything. This is the part where i need it to refresh. if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must begin anew. Edit* I need to recall the - (void)viewDidLoad method here is more of the code. -(IBAction)button:(id)sender{ int i = 0; int sum = 0; int gradeEarned; int creditHours = 3; for ( i=0;i<8 ; i++) { if ([[points objectAtIndex:i] tag]==GradeA.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeB.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeC.intValue){ [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must restart. } } while ( i<[gradeRecieved count]) { if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeA ) { [finArray replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeB ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeC ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; i++; continue; } }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to defer member initialization to the constructor body?

    - by Kjir
    I have a class with an object as a member which doesn't have a default constructor. I'd like to initialize this member in the constructor, but it seems that in C++ I can't do that. Here is the class: #include <boost/asio.hpp> #include <boost/array.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::udp; template<class T> class udp_sock { public: udp_sock(std::string host, unsigned short port); private: boost::asio::io_service _io_service; udp::socket _sock; boost::array<T,256> _buf; }; template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock(_io_service, ep); } The compiler tells me basically that it can't find a default constructor for udp::socket and by my research I understood that C++ implicitly initializes every member before calling the constructor. Is there any way to do it the way I wanted to do it, or is it too "Java-oriented" and not feasible in C++? I worked around the problem by defining my constructor like this: template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) : _sock(_io_service) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock.bind(ep); } So my question is more out of curiosity and to better understand OOP in C++

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >