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• Usage of Assert.Inconclusive

  - by Johannes Rudolph

  Hi, Im wondering how someone should use Assert.Inconclusive(). I'm using it if my Unit test would be about to fail for a reason other than what it is for. E.g. i have a method on a class that calculates the sum of an array of ints. On the same class there is also a method to calculate the average of the element. It is implemented by calling sum and dividing it by the length of the array. Writing a Unit test for Sum() is simple. However, when i write a test for Average() and Sum() fails, Average() is likely to fail also. The failure of Average is not explicit about the reason it failed, it failed for a reason other than what it should test for. That's why i would check if Sum() returns the correct result, otherwise i Assert.Inconclusive(). Is this to be considered good practice? What is Assert.Inconclusive intended for? Or should i rather solve the previous example by means of an Isolation Framework?

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• iPhone NSTimer OpenGL problem

  - by Toby Wilson

  I've got a problem that only seems to occur on the device, not in the simulator. My app's animation is started and stopped using these methods: NSTimer* animationTimer; -(void)startAnimation { if(animationTimer = nil) animationTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0f/60.0f target:self selector:@selector(drawView) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } -(void)stopAnimation { [animationTimer invalidate]; animationTimer = nil; } In the simulator this works fine and drawView starts being called at 60fps. On the device (testing on iPod Touch), the scheduleTimerWithTimeInterval method doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, [animationTimer invalidate] causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I've spotted an obvious but minor flaw; adding if(animationTimer != nil) to the stopAnimation method will prevent the crash, but doesn't solve the problem of the animation timer not being properly initialised. Edit: The above doesn't prevent a crash. animationTimer != nil yet calling invalidate causes EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Should also add, this problem doesn't occur all the time on the device. Maybe 40% of the time.

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• Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

  - by Qua

  The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

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• Can I get rid of this read lock?

  - by Pieter

  I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

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• UIAlertView choice causing resignFirstResponder to fail

  - by Chazbot

  Hi everyone. I'm having a similar issue to Anthony Chan's question, and after trying every suggested solution, I'm still stuck. Somehow, only after interacting with my UIAlertView, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard in another view of my app. It's as though the Alert is breaking my UITextField's ability to resignFirstResponder. Below I instantiate my UIAlertView, which then calls its didDismissWIthButtonIndex method. Then, I call the showInfo method, which loads another UIViewController. UIAlertView *emailFailAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"error message text." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not now" otherButtonTitles:@"Settings", nil]; [emailFailAlert setTag:2]; [emailFailAlert show]; [emailFailAlert release]; Once the 'Settings' option is pressed, I'm calling this method: - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([alertView tag] == 2) { if (buttonIndex == 1){ [self showInfo:nil]; } } } My showInfo method loads the other ViewController, via the code below: - (IBAction)showInfo:(id)sender { FlipsideViewController *fscontroller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; fscontroller.delegate = self; fscontroller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:fscontroller animated:YES]; [fscontroller release]; } Upon clicking any textField in this Flipside VC, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard as I normally can with - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)textField, and [textField resignFirstResponder]. I've omitted this code bc this question is getting long, but I'm happy to post if necessary. The interesting part is that if I comment out the [self showInfo:nil] call made when the button is clicked and call it by clicking a test button (outside the alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex: method), everything works fine. Any idea what's happening here? Thanks in advance!

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• How to execute PHPUnit?

  - by user1280667

  PHPUnit can execute script like this: phpunit --log-junit classname filename.php (i need the XML report , for my continus integreation platform) but my problem is that i work with a MVC framework and all pages are called through pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className ect with 3 arguments in total(when i use the shell commande and path/index.php argum=... with url) so i cant call phpunit pathofproject/indexCLI.php module=moduleName class=className . So i think to a lot of solution , i hope you can help me to use one of them. first how can i use phpunit commande with this type of calling, because i cant do it because he is waiting a classname and a filename (default comportement) if it possible !! when i call the same link in shell like this : php path/indexCLI.php module="blabla" ect ... i have the result of assertion in my consol , but cant use XML Junit option , can i do it ? my last solution is to call the link in a navigator like mozzila , but i dont know how to say to phpunit runner to chose XML report and not HTML report. the aim for me , is to have a XML report .

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• Values are not returning from MY SQL database to my java class

  - by sam

  Hi, This is my Query DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTSdiscoverdb.getuser_info$$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). `CREATE PROCEDURE discoverdb.getuser_info ( IN name VARCHAR(100), IN pass VARCHAR(100) ) BEGIN SELECT * FROM ad_user WHERE sLogin = name AND sPassHash=password(pass); END $$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). DELIMITER ; This is my calling method public Authentication getAuthentication (String username,String password) { //TODO write your implementation code here: Authentication ack = new Authentication(); try{ String simpleProc = "{ call getuser_infosam(?,?)}"; java.sql.CallableStatement cs = con.prepareCall(simpleProc); cs.setString(1, username); cs.setString(2, password); java.sql.ResultSet rs = cs.executeQuery(); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println(rs.getString("sLogin")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sPassHash")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sForename")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sName")); System.out.println(rs.getString("company")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sEmail")); rs.close();} }catch ( Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.print(e); } return ack; }

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• Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

  - by Cian

  I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

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• Delphi: Error when starting MCI

  - by marco92w

  I use the TMediaPlayer component for playing music. It works fine with most of my tracks. But it doesn't work with some tracks. When I want to play them, the following error message is shown: Which is German but roughly means that: In the project pMusicPlayer.exe an exception of the class EMCIDeviceError occurred. Message: "Error when starting MCI.". Process was stopped. Continue with "Single Command/Statement" or "Start". The program quits directly after calling the procedure "Play" of TMediaPlayer. This error occurred with the following file for example: file size: 7.40 MB duration: 4:02 minutes bitrate: 256 kBit/s I've encoded this file with a bitrate of 128 kBit/s and thus a file size of 3.70 MB: It works fine! What's wrong with the first file? Windows Media Player or other programs can play it without any problems. Is it possible that Delphi's TMediaPlayer cannot handle big files (e.g. 5 MB) or files with a high bitrate (e.g. 128 kBit/s)? What can I do to solve the problem?

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• Using Tcl DSL in Python

  - by Sridhar Ratnakumar

  I have a bunch of Python functions. Let's call them foo, bar and baz. They accept variable number of string arguments and does other sophisticated things (like accessing the network). I want the "user" (let's assume he is only familiar with Tcl) to write scripts in Tcl using those functions. Here's an example (taken from Macports) that user can come up with: post-configure { if {[variant_isset universal]} { set conflags "" foreach arch ${configure.universal_archs} { if {${arch} == "i386"} {append conflags "x86 "} else { if {${arch} == "ppc64"} {append conflags "ppc_64 "} else { append conflags ${arch} " " } } } set profiles [exec find ${worksrcpath} -name "*.pro"] foreach profile ${profiles} { reinplace -E "s|^(CONFIG\[ \\t].*)|\\1 ${conflags}|" ${profile} # Cures an isolated case system "cd ${worksrcpath}/designer && \ ${qt_dir}/bin/qmake -spec ${qt_dir}/mkspecs/macx-g++ -macx \ -o Makefile python.pro" } } } Here, variant_issset, reinplace are so on (other than Tcl builtins) are implemented as Python functions. if, foreach, set, etc.. are normal Tcl constructs. post-configure is a Python function that accepts, well, a Tcl code block that can later be executed (which in turns would obviously end up calling the above mentioned Python "functions"). Is this possible to do in Python? If so, how? from Tkinter import *; root= Tk(); root.tk.eval('puts [array get tcl_platform]') is the only integration I know of, which is obviously very limited (not to mention the fact that it starts up X11 server on mac).

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• Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

  - by anonymous

  I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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• Objective-C subclass and base class casting

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

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• In Ruby, why is a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is used?

  - by Jian Lin

  The following question is related to the question "Ruby Print Inject Do Syntax". My question is, can we insist on using do and end and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work in the earlier example? What if a programmer insist that he uses do and end, can it be made to work?

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• Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

  - by Kannabiran

  I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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• Python: Convert format string to regular expression

  - by miracle2k

  The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

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• Graceful DOS Command Error-Handling

  - by Captain Obvious

  PHP 5.2.13 on Windows 2003 I am using the DOS Start /B command to launch a background application using the PHP popen() function: popen("start /B {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/{$app}.exe > {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/bg_output.log 2>&1 & echo $!", 'r'); The popen() function launches a cmd.exe process that runs the specified command; however, if the command fails (e.g. the {$app}.exe doesn't exist or is locked in the above example), the cmd.exe process never returns, and PHP hangs indefinitely as a result. Calling the failing DOS command directly using the Command Prompt results in an Error prompt that requires clicking the OK button. I assume this error confirmation requirement is what's preventing the cmd.exe process from returning to PHP both from the Command Prompt (using both CGI and CLI) and the web (using Apache 2.0 handler w/Apache 2.2). Is there a way to write the DOS command or configure the server or cmd.exe app itself to return the DOS error to the originating call rather than waiting for confirmation?

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• Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

  - by Jace

  To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

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• Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

  - by Ken

  I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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• Hidden youtube player loses its methods

  - by zaius

  I'm controlling a embedded youtube chromeless player with javascript, and I want to hide it occasionally by setting display: none. However, when I show the player again, it loses its youtube methods. For example: <script> swfobject.embedSWF("http://www.youtube.com/apiplayer?enablejsapi=1&playerapiid=player", "player", "425", "356", "8", null, null, {allowScriptAccess: "always"}, {id: 'player'} ); var player = null; function onYouTubePlayerReady(playerId) { player = document.getElementById(playerId); player.addEventListener('onStateChange', 'playerStateChanged'); } function hidePlayer() { player.pauseVideo(); player.style.display = 'none'; } function showPlayer() { player.style.display = 'block'; player.playVideo(); } </script> <a href="#" onClick="hidePlayer();">hide</a> <a href="#" onClick="showPlayer();">show</a> <div id="player"></div> Calling hidePlayer followed by showPlayer gives this error on the playVideo call: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<an HTMLObjectElement> has no method 'playVideo' The only solution I can find is to use visibility: hidden, but that is messing with my page layout. Any other solutions out there?

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• How to debug an external library (OpenCV) in Visual C++?

  - by neuviemeporte

  I am developing a project in VC++2008. The project uses the OpenCV library (but I guess this applies to any other library). I am working with the Debug configuration, the linker properties include the debug versions of the library .lib's as additional dependencies. In VC++ Directories under Tools|Options i set up the include directory, the .lib directory, the source directories for the library as well. I get an error while calling one of the functions from the library and I'd like to see exactly what that function is doing. The line that produces the error is: double error = cvStereoCalibrate(&calObjPointsM, &img1PointsM, &img2PointsM, &pointCountsM, &cam1M, &dist1M, &cam2M, &dist2M, imgSize, &rotM, &transM, NULL, NULL, cvTermCriteria(CV_TERMCRIT_ITER + CV_TERMCRIT_EPS, 100, 1e-5)); I set up a breakpoint at this line to see how the cvStereoCalibrate() function fails. Unfortunately the debugger won't show the source code for this function when I hit "Step into". It skips immediately to the cvTermCriteria() (which is a simple inline, macro-kinda function) and show its contents. Is there anything else I need to do to be able to enter the external library functions in the debugger? EDIT: I think the cvTermCriteria() function shows in the debugger, because it's defined in a header file, therefore immediately accesible to the project.

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• JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

  - by teerapap

  The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

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• Scope of "library" methods

  - by JS

  Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• How can I log any login operation in case of "Remember Me" option ?

  - by Space Cracker

  I have an asp.net login web form that have ( username textBox - password textBox ) plus Remember Me CheckBox option When user login i do the below code if (provider.ValidateUser(username, password)) { int timeOut = 0x13; DateTime expireDate = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(19.0); if (rememberMeCheckBox.Checked) { timeOut = 0x80520; expireDate = DateTime.Now.AddYears(1); } FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(username, true, timeOut); string cookieValue = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookieValue); cookie.Expires = expireDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); AddForLogin(username); Response.Redirect("..."); } as in code after user is authenticated i log that he login in db by calling method AddForLogin(username); But if user choose remember me in login and then he try to go to site any time this login method isn't executed as it use cookies ... so i have many questions: 1- Is this the best way to log login operation or is there any other better ? 2- In my case how to log login operation in case of remember me chosen by user ?

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• cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

  - by jmurphy

  Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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