Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 222/278 | < Previous Page | 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229  | Next Page >

  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

    Read the article

  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to get child nodes after store load

    - by Azincourt
    Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

    Read the article

  • javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

    - by agnieszka
    I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

    Read the article

  • cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

    - by jmurphy
    Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

    Read the article

  • Using the Loader display object to load X jpegs, then resize each of the images differently while th

    - by Supernovah
    Hey there, I was wondering if this is possible to do I am able to load the image in and have it displayed easily enough by using addChild(myLoader); where myLoader is in the classWide private scope. The problem is, whenever I call my function inside that class which adds the loader to the stage, it clears the old one and puts this new one in even if I add a bit where I change myLoader.name to something related to how many images it has completed. This is a serious hinderance as I can't do anything besides KNOW how many images I will need to load and write the code X times. The problem being is that the urls are read from an XML file. My main desire was to have a classWide private Array which contained my loaders and I would assign them using myArray.push(myLoader) each time the load had completed. There is a problem which is that it compiles but they never get displayed it would work as this is written public class Images extends Sprite { private var imagesLoaded = 0; private var myLoader:Loader; ... public function Images():Void { myLoader = new Loader; //loop calling a myLoader.load(imageURL) for a bunch of urls myLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, imageLoaded); } public function imageLoaded { myArray[imagesLoaded] = myLoader; trace("does\'nt get to here!!"); addChild(myArray[imagesLoaded]); imagesLoaded++; } }

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

    - by randombits
    According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

    Read the article

  • How to properly use Object Contexts in Entity Framework using BackgroundWorker

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am developing using Entity Framework and WPF, and I am encountering some errors and I don't know why. When saving a record (using a BackgroundWorker), I set the entities change tracker to nothing (null), attach the record to a new disposable context, save it, detach, and dispose of the context. Saving a record fires and event in the MainViewModel of the program that the other ViewModels (including the one that is saving) need to refresh their entities to reflect changes. Private Sub _saveRecordWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles _saveRecordWorker.DoWork Using MyContext As New RVShippingEntities Dim MyShipment = CType(ShipmentRecord, IEntityWithChangeTracker) MyShipment.SetChangeTracker(Nothing) MyContext.Attach(MyShipment) MyContext.Detach(ShipmentRecord) End Using End Sub The Refresh background worker is similar, but it has a Do While block to keep it from interfering with the save worker (which doesn't appear to be working; hence the post). When I save (and it subsequently refreshes) I get the following error: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. I thought that with the DoWhile block, it would wait (and when i step through it does) until the save thread finished, and all would be good. But it would seem that something (either the main thread or the save thread) is still doing something that is interfering. Is there a better way of doing this? Am I doing it is a goofy kludgey fashion? Any help would be appreciated. (Apparently Firefox recognized kludgey as a word. Interesting)

    Read the article

  • Implementing Dispose on a class derived from Stream

    - by AnthonyWJones
    I'm building a class that derives from Stream to wrap a COM IStream. However I've come across an issue where I need to release the COM IStream deteministically. Ok so that's easy just use Marshal.ReleaseComObject in the Dispose method. However I'm not sure its that simple. The Stream base class already has an protected virtual method Dispose(boolean). Here is my first idea:- ~ComStreamWrapper() { if (!_Disposed) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { base.Dispose(disposing); if (!_Disposed) { if (disposing) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } _Disposed = true; } } You'll notice there isn't an implementation of Dispose() itself. I'm currently making the asssumption that the existing implementation on Stream does what I need it to. That is calling Diposing(true) and GC.SuppressFinalize. Is this assumption faulty? Have I missed something? Is there a better approach? You see more of the basic class in this answer to an ealier question.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

    Read the article

  • Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

    - by AndreLiem
    I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Windows loader problem - turn on verbose mode

    - by doobop
    Hi, I'm in the process of reorganizing some of the legacy libraries in our application which has unmanaged code calling into libraries of managed code. While I have the code reorganized, it produces the following loader error: ... 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\CsDisp.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\psapi.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\shell32.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\daq206_32.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\SiUSBXp.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\AdlinkDAQ.dll', Symbols loaded. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\P9842.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. LDR: LdrRelocateImageWithBias() failed 0xc0000018 LDR: OldBase : 10000000 LDR: NewBase : 00A80000 LDR: Diff : 0x7c90d6fa0012f6cc LDR: NextOffset : 00000000 LDR: *NextOffset : 0x0 LDR: SizeOfBlock : 0xa80000 Debugger:: An unhandled non-continuable exception was thrown during process load I believe 0xc0000018 error is an overlapping address range. So, I have two questions. First, what linker options may cause this error? I'm currently linking with /DYNAMICBASE:NO and /FIXED:No as this was how some of the previous libraries were set up. Second, is there a way to turn on verbose mode for the loader so I can see what exactly it's trying to load? P9842 is a third party library so I imagine it is getting to one of my libraries after P9842 and failing on that one. Can I narrow it down? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

    Read the article

  • How do I avoid having JSONP returns cached in an HTML5 offline application?

    - by Kent Brewster
    I had good luck with cached offline apps until I tried including data from JSONP endpoints. Here's a tiny example, which loads a single movie from the new Netflix widget API: <!DOCTYPE html> <html manifest="main.manifest"> <head> <title>Testing!</title> </head> <body> <p>Attempting to recover a title from Netflix now...</p> <script type="text/javascript"> function ping(r) { alert('API reply: ' + r.catalog_title.title.regular); } var cb = new Date().getTime(); var s = document.createElement('SCRIPT'); s.src = 'http://movi.es/7Soq?v=2.0&output=json&expand=widget&callback=ping&cacheBuster=' + cb; alert('SCRIPT src: ' + s.src); s.type = 'text/javascript'; document.getElementsByTagName('BODY')[0].appendChild(s); </script> </body> </html> ... and here's the contents of my manifest, main.manifest, which contains no files and is only there so my browser knows to cache the calling HTML file. CACHE MANIFEST Yes, I've confirmed that my server is sending the manifest down with the correct content type, text/cache-manifest. The app works fine--meaning both alerts show--the first time I run it, but subsequent runs, even with the attempt at cache-busting in line 10, seem to be attempting to load the script from cache no matter what the query string is. I see the alert showing the script source, but the callback never fires. If I remove the manifest link from line 2 and reset my browser--being Safari and the iPhone Simulator--to clear cache, it works every time. I've also tried alerting the number of SCRIPT tags in the page, and it's definitely seeing both the existing and dynamically-created tag in all cases.

    Read the article

  • Weird exception: Cannot cast String to Boolean when using getBoolean

    - by La bla bla
    I'm getting a very weird error. I have 2 activities. On both I'm getting the SharedPreferences using MODE_PRIVATE (if it matters) by sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); on each activity's onCreate() I'm calling sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true) On the IntroActivity this works fine. But when I'm trying in the main activity, I'm getting this 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): java.lang.ClassCastException: java.lang.String cannot be cast to java.lang.Boolean 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.SharedPreferencesImpl.getBoolean(SharedPreferencesImpl.java:242) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.lablabla.parkme.ParkMeActivity$2.onClick(ParkMeActivity.java:194) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:4084) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.view.View$PerformClick.run(View.java:16966) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:615) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:137) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4745) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:511) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:786) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:553) 10-12 04:55:23.208: E/AndroidRuntime(11668): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I made sure that I'm not putting a String somewhere in the middle with that same key Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: some code: //onCreate() sp = getPreferences(MODE_PRIVATE); // other method boolean showIntro = sp.getBoolean(IntroActivity.SHOW_INTRO, true); // Exception is here showIntroCheckBox.setChecked(showIntro); If it matters, the code which throws the exception is inside a button's onClick

    Read the article

  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • VC++ 6 and MS Speech SDK 5.1 fatal error C1083: Cannot open source file: 'files\microsoft': No such

    - by eg123
    Trying to compile an application (flite synthesis sapi) on vc++6. This requires Microsoft Speech SDK 5.1 Have included C:\Program Files\Microsoft Speech SDK 5.1\IDL C:\Program Files\Microsoft Speech SDK 5.1\include using Toolsoptionsdirectories and also on another attempt via ProjectSettings Repeatedly get this error microsoft fatal error C1083: Cannot open source file: 'files\microsoft': No such file or directory speech fatal error C1083: Cannot open source file: 'speech': No such file or directory sdk fatal error C1083: Cannot open source file: 'sdk': No such file or directory idl fatal error C1083: Cannot open source file: '5.1\idl': No such file or directory FliteCMUKalDiphone.idl Thought it may be spaces related so included full path in quotes in relevant .h files. No joy Installed Microsoft Speech SDK 5.1 on another machine in same folder as flite and renamed to mssdk51 (so no spaces in pathname) but same error came up. Tried pasting in contents of each .idl called in file where glitch seems to generate Still same message. I am new to C++ and programming in general. My only guess is that something in the speech sdk is calling the .idl file and I can't find where from. Of course this is probably way wrong!

    Read the article

  • Dojo StackContainer children are not resizing on browser maximise/restore

    - by Andy
    Hi. I have the following nested layout in a dojo 1.4 app: BorderContainer 1 -- Stack Container 1 ----BorderContainer 2 ----BorderContainer 3 The StackContainer is sized with width and height 100%. When I resize the browser window using maximise/restore, the StackContainer correctly resizes to the center region of it's parent BorderContainer. The problem I have is that the StackContainer children (BorderContainer 2 and 3) do not get resized to the StackContainer's contentBox. Is there something special you have to do to force a resize of StackContainer children? I have tried calling StackContainer1.resize() but this makes no difference. Thanks in advance. Additional information: Thanks for the reply peller. The widget hierachy that contains the StackContainer is actually a custom widget, so the StackContainer is not actually in a BorderContainer directly, but has its height and width explicitly set to 100%. This works and the StackContainer is resized correctly on browser maximise. The direct children of the stackcontainer are BorderContainers and it is these BorderContainers that do not get resized when the StackContainer is resized. One point to note is that when the StackContainer is created in markup, the stackcontainer children are empty divs. These divs are then used as placeholders for custom widget creation, e.g. var widget = new com.company.widget(params, placeholderDiv); where placeholderDiv is a direct child of the StackContainer in markup. Should I be adding the programatically created 'widget' to the stackcontainer using addChild instead?

    Read the article

  • Why does multiple sessions started on the same page gets the same session id?

    - by Calmarius
    I tryed the following: <?php session_name('user'); session_start(); // sets an 'user' cookie with session id. // This session stores the user's login data. // Its an ordinary session. $USERSESSION=$_SESSION; // saving this session $userSessId=session_id(); session_write_close(); //closing this session session_name('chatroom'); session_start(); // set a 'chatroom' cookie but contains the same session id and points to the same data :( . // This session would be used to store the chat text. This session would be // shared between all users joined in this chat room by setting the same session id for all members. // by calling session_regenerate_id would make a diffent session id for every user and it won't be a chat room anymore. ?> So I want to do a chat like thing with sessions. On the client side it would be done with ajax that polls this php page in every 5-10 seconds. Sessions may be cached in the server's memory so it can be accessible fast. I can store the chat in the database but my service runs on a free webhost which is limited, only 4 mysql connections allowed at a time which is almost nothing. I try to touch my database as least times as possible.

    Read the article

  • Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

    - by evthim
    I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

    Read the article

  • Using DotNetOpenAuth AccessToken for uploading docx file to google

    - by PrashantC
    Hi , I am using DotNetOpenAuth Package, I am trying to upload a package to google docs, Using client credentials i am able to do it successfully using following code, DocumentEntry objDocumentEntry = new DocumentEntry(); objDocumentsService.setUserCredentials(strUserName,strPassWord); string strAuthenticationToken = objDocumentsService.QueryAuthenticationToken(); objDocumentEntry = objDocumentsService.UploadDocument(Server.MapPath("test.docx"), "New Name"); I want achieve save with plain oAuth, I am having following code written for it, if (this.TokenManager != null) { if (!IsPostBack) { var google = new WebConsumer(GoogleConsumer.ServiceDescription, this.TokenManager); // Is Google calling back with authorization? var accessTokenResponse = google.ProcessUserAuthorization(); if (accessTokenResponse != null) { this.AccessToken = accessTokenResponse.AccessToken; } else if (this.AccessToken == null) { // If we don't yet have access, immediately request it. GoogleConsumer.RequestAuthorization(google, GoogleConsumer.Applications.DocumentsList); } } } I successfully get "AccessToken", But i am not sure how to use it.. Do we need to exchange this token? what excatly to do with this token? Is it a sessionToken? Please provide some inputs, I am badly stuck with this problem from last 3 days, Prashant C

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229  | Next Page >