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• Stop an executing recursive javascript function

  - by DA

  Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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• [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

  - by Jergason

  I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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• Cross-thread operation not valid: accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on.

  - by user307524

  Hi, I want to remove checked items from checklistbox (winform control) in class file method which i am calling asynchronously using deletegate. but it showing me this error message:- Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'checkedListBox1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. i have tried invoke required but again got the same error. Sample code is below: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Create an instance of the test class. Class1 ad = new Class1(); // Create the delegate. AsyncMethodCaller1 caller = new AsyncMethodCaller1(ad.TestMethod1); //callback delegate IAsyncResult result = caller.BeginInvoke(checkedListBox1, new AsyncCallback(CallbackMethod)," "); } In class file code for TestMethod1 is : - private delegate void dlgInvoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str); private void Invoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str) { if (c.InvokeRequired) { c.Invoke(new dlgInvoke(Invoke), c, str); c.Items.RemoveAt(str); } else { c.Text = ""; } } // The method to be executed asynchronously. public string TestMethod1(CheckedListBox chklist) { for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { string chkValue = chklist.CheckedItems[i].ToString(); //do some other database operation based on checked items. Int32 index = chklist.FindString(chkValue); Invoke(chklist, index); } return ""; }

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• Javascript/jQuery: programmatically follow a link

  - by Dan

  In Javascript code, I would like to programmatically cause the browser to follow a link that's on my page. Simple case: <a id="foo" href="mailto:[email protected]">something</a> function goToBar() { $('#foo').trigger('follow'); } This is hypothetical as it doesn't actually work. And no, triggering click doesn't do it. I am aware of window.location and window.open but these differ from native link-following in some ways that matter to me: a) in the presence of a <base /> element, and b) in the case of mailto URLs. The latter in particular is significant. In Firefox at least, calling window.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" causes the window's unload handlers to fire, whereas simply clicking a mailto link does not, as far as I can tell. I'm looking for a way to trigger the browser's default handling of links, from Javascript code. Does such a mechanism exist? Toolkit-specific answers also welcome (especially for Gecko).

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• NullPointerException with Servlet

  - by RonaDona

  I am calling a Servlet using its URL address. This is the URL I am typing http://localhost:7001/ryan/olympics?action=selectCatalog&id=1 This is the Servlet's URL for sure; if I change the address I get page not found This is the code for the Servlet. public class Servlet extends javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet implements javax.servlet.Servlet { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public Servlet() { super(); } public void init(ServletConfig config) throws ServletException { System.out.println("*** initializing controller servlet."); super.init(config); } protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { String action = request.getParameter("action"); if (action.equals("selectCatalog")) { String categoryId = request.getParameter("id"); ProductModelDAO dao4 = new ProductModelDAOImpl("jpac"); if (categoryId != null && !categoryId.trim().equals("")) { CategoryDAO dao1 = new CategoryDAOImpl("jpac"); try { Category category = dao1.getCategoryName(categoryId); request.setAttribute("category", category); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } try { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") List<Product> products = dao4 .getProductsByCategory(categoryId); request.setAttribute("products", products); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } url = "SelectCatalog.jsp"; RequestDispatcher requestDispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); requestDispatcher.forward(request, response); I get the NullPointerException pointing to the RequestDispatcher's line. Any help?

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• Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

  - by Ed Harper

  I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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• Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

  - by Lee-Man

  I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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• Using javascript and php together

  - by EmmyS

  I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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• How can I receive mouse events when a wrapped control has set capture?

  - by Greg

  My WndProc isn't seeing mouse-up notifications when I click with a modifier key (shift or control) pressed. I see them without the modifier key, and I see mouse-down notifications with the modifier keys. I'm trying to track user actions in a component I didn't write, so I'm using the Windows Forms NativeWindow wrapper (wrapping the component) to get Windows messages from the WndProc() method. I've tried tracking the notifications I do get, and I the only clue I see is WM_CAPTURECHANGED. I've tried calling SetCapture when I receive the WM_LBUTTONDOWN message, but it doesn't help. Without modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR WM_MOUSEMOVE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONUP With modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_KEYDOWN WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR (repeats) WM_KEYDOWN (repeats) WM_KEYUP If I hold the mouse button down for a long time, I can usually get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, but it should be possible to make it more responsive.. Edit: I've tried control-clicking outside of the component of interest and moving the cursor into it before releasing the mouse button, and then I do get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, so it looks like the component is capturing the mouse on mouse-down. Is there any way to receive that notification when another window has captured the mouse? Thanks.

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• Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

  - by skiphoppy

  I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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• How do I update a NSTableView when its data source has changed?

  - by Jergason

  I am working along with Cocoa Programming For Mac OS X (a great book). One of the exercises the book gives is to build a simple to-do program. The UI has a table view, a text field to type in a new item and an "Add" button to add the new item to the table. On the back end I have a controller that is the data source and delegate for my NSTableView. The controller also implements an IBAction method called by the "Add" button. It contains a NSMutableArray to hold the to do list items. When the button is clicked, the action method fires correctly and the new string gets added to the mutable array. However, my data source methods are not being called correctly. Here they be: - (NSInteger)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView { NSLog(@"Calling numberOfRowsInTableView: %d", [todoList count]); return [todoList count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)aTableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { NSLog(@"Returning %@ to be displayed", [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]); return [todoList objectAtIndex:rowIndex]; } Here is the rub. -numberOfRowsInTableView only gets called when the app first starts, not every time I add something new to the array. -objectValueForTableColumn never gets called at all. I assume this is because Cocoa is smart enough to not call this method when there is nothing to draw. Is there some method I need to call to let the table view know that its data source has changed, and it should redraw itself?

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• Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

  - by slack3r

  In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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• Help me clean up this crazy lambda with the out keyword

  - by Sarah Vessels

  My code looks ugly, and I know there's got to be a better way of doing what I'm doing: private delegate string doStuff( PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt ); private bool tryEncryptPassword( doStuff encryptPassword, out string errorMessage ) { ...get some variables... string encryptedPassword = encryptPassword(encrypter, publicKey, privateKey, out salt); ... } This stuff so far doesn't bother me. It's how I'm calling tryEncryptPassword that looks so ugly, and has duplication because I call it from two methods: public bool method1(out string errorMessage) { string rawPassword = "foo"; return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 1 rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } public bool method2(SecureString unencryptedPassword, out string errorMessage) { return tryEncryptPassword( (PasswordEncrypter encrypter, RSAPublicKey publicKey, string privateKey, out string salt) => encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( // Overload 2 unencryptedPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ), out errorMessage ); } Two parts to the ugliness: I have to explicitly list all the parameter types in the lambda expression because of the single out parameter. The two overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff take all the same parameters except for the first parameter, which can either be a string or a SecureString. So method1 and method2 are pretty much identical, they just call different overloads of EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. Any suggestions? Edit: if I apply Jeff's suggestions, I do the following call in method1: return tryEncryptPassword( (encrypter, publicKey, privateKey) => { var result = new EncryptionResult(); string salt; result.EncryptedValue = encrypter.EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff( rawPassword, publicKey, privateKey, out salt ); result.Salt = salt; return result; }, out errorMessage ); Much the same call is made in method2, just with a different first value to EncryptPasswordAndDoStuff. This is an improvement, but it still seems like a lot of duplicated code.

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• How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

  - by Ian

  I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

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• Help a CRUD programmer think about an "approval workflow"

  - by gerdemb

  I've been working on a web application that is basically a CRUD application (Create, Read, Update, Delete). Recently, I've started working on what I'm calling an "approval workflow". Basically, a request is generated for a material and then sent for approval to a manager. Depending on what is requested, different people need to approve the request or perhaps send it back to the requester for modification. The approvers need to keep track of what to approve what has been approved and the requesters need to see the status of their requests. As a "CRUD" developer, I'm having a hard-time wrapping my head around how to design this. What database tables should I have? How do I keep track of the state of the request? How should I notify users of actions that have happened to their requests? Is their a design pattern that could help me with this? Should I be drawing state-machines in my code? I think this is a generic programing question, but if it makes any difference I'm using Django with MySQL.

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• Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

  - by Ken

  I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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• javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

  - by agnieszka

  I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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• Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

  - by I2nfo

  GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

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• Get more error information from unhandled error

  - by Andrew Simpson

  I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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• Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

  - by Kai

  The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

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• cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

  - by jmurphy

  Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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• problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

  - by callie16

  Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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• Shared Memory and Process Sempahores (IPC)

  - by fsdfa

  This is an extract from Advanced Liniux Programming: Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated. The last process to use a semaphore set must explicitly remove it to ensure that the operating system does not run out of semaphores.To do so, invoke semctl with the semaphore identifier, the number of semaphores in the set, IPC_RMID as the third argument, and any union semun value as the fourth argument (which is ignored).The effective user ID of the calling process must match that of the semaphore’s allocator (or the caller must be root). Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately. If a process allocate a shared memory, and many process use it and never set to delete it (with shmctl), if all them terminate, then the shared page continues being available. (We can see this with ipcs). If some process did the shmctl, then when the last process deattached, then the system will deallocate the shared memory. So far so good (I guess, if not, correct me). What I dont understand from that quote I did, is that first it say: "Semaphores continue to exist even after all processes using them have terminated." and then: "Unlike shared memory segments, removing a semaphore set causes Linux to deallocate immediately."

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• Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

  - by Ravi Gupta

  Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

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• Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

  - by NXT

  Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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