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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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  • Graceful DOS Command Error-Handling

    - by Captain Obvious
    PHP 5.2.13 on Windows 2003 I am using the DOS Start /B command to launch a background application using the PHP popen() function: popen("start /B {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/{$app}.exe > {$_SERVER['HOMEPATH']}/bg_output.log 2>&1 & echo $!", 'r'); The popen() function launches a cmd.exe process that runs the specified command; however, if the command fails (e.g. the {$app}.exe doesn't exist or is locked in the above example), the cmd.exe process never returns, and PHP hangs indefinitely as a result. Calling the failing DOS command directly using the Command Prompt results in an Error prompt that requires clicking the OK button. I assume this error confirmation requirement is what's preventing the cmd.exe process from returning to PHP both from the Command Prompt (using both CGI and CLI) and the web (using Apache 2.0 handler w/Apache 2.2). Is there a way to write the DOS command or configure the server or cmd.exe app itself to return the DOS error to the originating call rather than waiting for confirmation?

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  • Android NDK import-module / code reuse

    - by Graeme
    Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

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  • Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

    - by John
    From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

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  • Is there a fundamental difference between malloc and HeapAlloc (aside from the portability)?

    - by Lambert
    Hi, I'm having code that, for various reasons, I'm trying to port from the C runtime to one that uses the Windows Heap API. I've encountered a problem: If I redirect the malloc/calloc/realloc/free calls to HeapAlloc/HeapReAlloc/HeapFree (with GetProcessHeap for the handle), the memory seems to be allocated correctly (no bad pointer returned, and no exceptions thrown), but the library I'm porting says "failed to allocate memory" for some reason. I've tried this both with the Microsoft CRT (which uses the Heap API underneath) and with another company's run-time library (which uses the Global Memory API underneath); the malloc for both of those works well with the library, but for some reason, using the Heap API directly doesn't work. I've checked that the allocations aren't too big (= 0x7FFF8 bytes), and they're not. The only problem I can think of is memory alignment; is that the case? Or other than that, is there a fundamental difference between the Heap API and the CRT memory API that I'm not aware of? If so, what is it? And if not, then why does the static Microsoft CRT (included with Visual Studio) take some extra steps in malloc/calloc before calling HeapAlloc? I'm suspecting there's a difference but I can't think of what it might be. Thank you!

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  • Javascript/jQuery: programmatically follow a link

    - by Dan
    In Javascript code, I would like to programmatically cause the browser to follow a link that's on my page. Simple case: <a id="foo" href="mailto:[email protected]">something</a> function goToBar() { $('#foo').trigger('follow'); } This is hypothetical as it doesn't actually work. And no, triggering click doesn't do it. I am aware of window.location and window.open but these differ from native link-following in some ways that matter to me: a) in the presence of a <base /> element, and b) in the case of mailto URLs. The latter in particular is significant. In Firefox at least, calling window.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" causes the window's unload handlers to fire, whereas simply clicking a mailto link does not, as far as I can tell. I'm looking for a way to trigger the browser's default handling of links, from Javascript code. Does such a mechanism exist? Toolkit-specific answers also welcome (especially for Gecko).

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  • Get more error information from unhandled error

    - by Andrew Simpson
    I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

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  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • Enumerating computers in NT4 domain using WNetEnumResourceW (C++) or DirectoryEntry (C#)

    - by Kevin Davis
    I'm trying to enumerate computers in NT4 domains (not Active Directory) and support Unicode NetBIOS names. According to MSDN, WNetEnumResourceW is the Unicode counterpart of WNetEnumResource which to me would imply that using this would do the trick. However, I have not been able to get Unicode NetBIOS names properly using WNetEnumResourceW. I've also tried the C# rough equivalent DirectoryEntry using the WinNT: provider with no luck on Unicode names either. If I use DirectoryEntry on Active Directory (using the LDAP: provider) I do get Unicode names back. I noticed that during some debugging my code using DirectoryEntry and the WinNT: provider, the exceptions I saw were of type System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException which tends to make me believe that this is just calling WNetEnumResourceW via COM. This web page implies that for some Net APIs the MS documentation is incomplete and possibly inaccurate which further confuses things. Additionally I've found that using the C# method which certainly results in cleaner, more understandable code also yields incomplete results in enumerating computers in domains\workgroups. Does anyone have any insight on this? Is it possible that computer acting as the WINS server is mangling the name? How would I determine this? Thanks

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  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

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  • Inereritance of clousure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })();` Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

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  • C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

    - by John Bartholomew
    While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

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  • Detecting an online poker cheat

    - by Tom Gullen
    It recently emerged on a large poker site that some players were possibly able to see all opponents cards as they played through exploiting a security vulnerability that was discovered. A naïve cheater would win at an incredibly fast rate, and these cheats are caught very quickly usually, and if not caught quickly they are easy to detect through a quick scan through their hand histories. The more difficult problem occurs when the cheater exhibits intelligence, bluffing in spots they are bound to be called in, calling river bets with the worst hands, the basic premise is that they lose pots on purpose to disguise their ability to see other players cards, and they win at a reasonably realistic rate. Given: A data set of millions of verified and complete information hand histories Theoretical unlimited computer power Assume the game No Limit Hold'em, although suggestions on Omaha or limit poker may be beneficial How could we reasonably accurately classify these cheaters? The original 2+2 thread appeals for ideas, and I thought that the SO community might have some useful suggestions. It's an interesting problem also because it is current, and has real application in bettering the world if someone finds a creative solution, as there is a good chance genuine players will have funds refunded to them when identified cheaters are discovered.

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  • Problem using SQLDataReader with Sybase ASE

    - by John K.
    We're developing a reporting application that uses asp.net-mvc (.net 4). We connect through DDTEK.Sybase middleware to a Sybase ASE 12.5 database. We're having a problem pulling data into a datareader (from a stored procedure). The stored procedure computes values (approximately 50 columns) by doing sums, counts, and calling other stored procedures. The problem we're experiencing is... certain (maybe 5% of the columns) come back with NULL or 0. If we debug and copy the SQL statement being used for the datareader and run it inside another SQL tool we get all valid values for all columns. conn = new SybaseConnection { ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectStringName].ToString() }; conn.Open(); cmd = new SybaseCommand { CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout, Connection = conn, CommandText = mainSql }; reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); // AT THIS POINT IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE EXECUTEREADER COMMAND // THE READER CONTAINS THE BAD (NULL OR 0) DATA FOR THESE COLUMNS. DataTable schemaTable = reader.GetSchemaTable(); // AT THIS POINT WE CAN VIEW THE DATATABLE FOR THE SCHEMA AND IT APPEARS CORRECT // THE COLUMNS THAT DON'T WORK HAVE SPECIFICATIONS IDENTICAL TO THE COLUMNS THAT DO WORK Has anyone had problems like this using Sybase and ADO? Thanks, John K.

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  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

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  • Saving tree-structures in Databases

    - by Nina Null
    Hello everyone. I use Hibernate/Spring and a MySQL Database for my data management. Currently I display a tree-structure in a JTable. A tree can have several branches, in turn a branch can have several branches (up to nine levels) again, or having leaves. Lately I have performanceproblemes, as soon as I want to create new branches on deeper levels. At this time a branch has a foreign key to its parent. The domainobject has access to its parent by calling getParent(), which returns the parent-branch. The deeper the level, the longer it takes to create a new branch. Microbenchmark results for creating a new branch are like: Level 1: 32 ms. Level 3: 80 ms. Level 9: 232 ms. Obviously the level (which means the number of parents) is responsible for this. So I wanted to ask, if there are any appendages to work around this kind of problem. I don’t understand why Hibernate needs to know about the whole object tree (all parents until the root) while creating a new branch. But as far as I know this can be the only reason for the delay while creating a new branch, because a branch doesn’t have any other relations to any other objects. I would be very thankful for any workarounds or suggestions. greets, jambusa

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  • Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

    - by skiphoppy
    I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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  • How to get around DnsRecordListFree error in .NET Framework 4.0?

    - by Greg Finzer
    I am doing an MxRecordLookup. I am getting an error when calling the DnsRecordListFree in the .NET Framework 4.0. I am using Windows 7. How do I get around it? Here is the error: System.MethodAccessException: Attempt by security transparent method to call native code through method. Here is my code: [DllImport("dnsapi", EntryPoint = "DnsQuery_W", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true, ExactSpelling = true)] private static extern int DnsQuery([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.VBByRefStr)]ref string pszName, QueryTypes wType, QueryOptions options, int aipServers, ref IntPtr ppQueryResults, int pReserved); [DllImport("dnsapi", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern void DnsRecordListFree(IntPtr pRecordList, int FreeType); public List<string> GetMXRecords(string domain) { List<string> records = new List<string>(); IntPtr ptr1 = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr ptr2 = IntPtr.Zero; MXRecord recMx; try { int result = DnsQuery(ref domain, QueryTypes.DNS_TYPE_MX, QueryOptions.DNS_QUERY_BYPASS_CACHE, 0, ref ptr1, 0); if (result != 0) { if (result == 9003) { //No Record Exists } else { //Some other error } } for (ptr2 = ptr1; !ptr2.Equals(IntPtr.Zero); ptr2 = recMx.pNext) { recMx = (MXRecord)Marshal.PtrToStructure(ptr2, typeof(MXRecord)); if (recMx.wType == 15) { records.Add(Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(recMx.pNameExchange)); } } } finally { DnsRecordListFree(ptr1, 0); } return records; }

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  • Dynamically invoke web service at runtime

    - by Ulrik Rasmussen
    So, our application needs support for dynamically calling web services which are unknown at compile time. The user should therefore be able to specify a URL to a WSDL, and specify some data bindings for the request and reply parameters. When Googling for answers, it seems like the way to do this is by actually compiling a web service proxy class at runtime, loading it, and invoking the methods using reflection. I think this seems like a rather clunky approach, given that I don't really need a strongly typed set of classes when I'm going to cast my data dynamically anyway. Dynamically compiling code for doing something that simple also just seems like The Wrong Way To Do It. Restricting ourself to the SOAP protocol, is there any library for C# that implements this protocol for dynamic use? I can imagine that it would be possible to generate runtime key/value data structures from the WSDL, which could be used to specify the request messages, as well as reading the replies. The library should then be able to send well-formed SOAP messages to the server, and parse the replies, without the programmer having to generate the XML manually (at least not the headers and other plumbing). I can't seem to find any library that actually does this. Is what I want to do really that esoteric, or have I just searched the wrong places? Thanks, Ulrik

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  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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  • extension methods with generics - when does caller need to include type parameters?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Is there a rule for knowing when one has to pass the generic type parameters in the client code when calling an extension method? So for example in the Program class why can I (a) not pass type parameters for top.AddNode(node), but where as later for the (b) top.AddRelationship line I have to pass them? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Create Graph var top = new TopologyImp<string>(); // Add Node var node = new StringNode(); node.Name = "asdf"; var node2 = new StringNode(); node2.Name = "test child"; top.AddNode(node); top.AddNode(node2); top.AddRelationship<string, RelationshipsImp>(node,node2); // *** HERE *** } } public static class TopologyExtns { public static void AddNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> node) { topIf.Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); } public static INode<T> FindNode<T>(this ITopology<T> topIf, T searchKey) { return topIf.Nodes[searchKey]; } public static void AddRelationship<T,R>(this ITopology<T> topIf, INode<T> parentNode, INode<T> childNode) where R : IRelationship<T>, new() { var rel = new R(); rel.Child = childNode; rel.Parent = parentNode; } } public class TopologyImp<T> : ITopology<T> { public Dictionary<T, INode<T>> Nodes { get; set; } public TopologyImp() { Nodes = new Dictionary<T, INode<T>>(); } }

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  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

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  • Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

    - by I2nfo
    GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

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