Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 220/278 | < Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >

  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

    Read the article

  • In Ruby, why is a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is used?

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to the question "Ruby Print Inject Do Syntax". My question is, can we insist on using do and end and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work in the earlier example? What if a programmer insist that he uses do and end, can it be made to work?

    Read the article

  • Getting error when compiling debug mode: C++/CLI - error LNK2022

    - by Yochai Timmer
    I've got a CLI code wrapping a C++ DLL. When i try to compile it in debug mode, i get the following error: Error 22 error LNK2022: metadata operation failed (8013118D) : Inconsistent layout information induplicated types .... MSVCMRTD.lib (locale0_implib.obj) The weird thing is that on Release mode it compiles OK and works OK. The only difference i can see that causes the problem is when i change: Configuration Properties - C/C++ - Code Generation - Runtime Library When it's set to: Multi-threaded Debug DLL (/MDd) it throws the error. When it's set to: Multi-threaded DLL (/MD) it compiles fine. The same settings work for all the other DLLs in the project (CLI and C++) and they inherit the same properties. I'm using VS2010. So, how can i solve this ? And can I get some explanation to WHY this is happening ? Update: I've basically tried changing every option in the project's properties with no luck. I've read somewhere that this might be caused from duplicate declarations of a type of the same name. But in the CLI file i'm calling std::string etc. explicitly from std. Any other ideas ?

    Read the article

  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

    Read the article

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

    Read the article

  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

    Read the article

  • Socket.Recieve Failing When Multithreaded

    - by Qua
    The following piece of code runs fine when parallelized to 4-5 threads, but starts to fail as the number of threads increase somewhere beyond 10 concurrentthreads int totalRecieved = 0; int recieved; StringBuilder contentSB = new StringBuilder(4000); while ((recieved = socket.Receive(buffer, SocketFlags.None)) > 0) { contentSB.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, recieved)); totalRecieved += recieved; } The Recieve method returns with zero bytes read, and if I continue calling the recieve method then I eventually get a 'An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine'-exception. So I'm assuming that the host actually sent data and then closed the connection, but for some reason I never recieved it. I'm curious as to why this problem arises when there are a lot of threads. I'm thinking it must have something to do with the fact that each thread doesn't get as much execution time and therefore there are some idle time for the threads which causes this error. Just can't figure out why idle time would cause the socket not to recieve any data.

    Read the article

  • Python: Convert format string to regular expression

    - by miracle2k
    The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

    Read the article

  • Cross-thread operation not valid: accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on.

    - by user307524
    Hi, I want to remove checked items from checklistbox (winform control) in class file method which i am calling asynchronously using deletegate. but it showing me this error message:- Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'checkedListBox1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. i have tried invoke required but again got the same error. Sample code is below: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Create an instance of the test class. Class1 ad = new Class1(); // Create the delegate. AsyncMethodCaller1 caller = new AsyncMethodCaller1(ad.TestMethod1); //callback delegate IAsyncResult result = caller.BeginInvoke(checkedListBox1, new AsyncCallback(CallbackMethod)," "); } In class file code for TestMethod1 is : - private delegate void dlgInvoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str); private void Invoke(CheckedListBox c, Int32 str) { if (c.InvokeRequired) { c.Invoke(new dlgInvoke(Invoke), c, str); c.Items.RemoveAt(str); } else { c.Text = ""; } } // The method to be executed asynchronously. public string TestMethod1(CheckedListBox chklist) { for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { string chkValue = chklist.CheckedItems[i].ToString(); //do some other database operation based on checked items. Int32 index = chklist.FindString(chkValue); Invoke(chklist, index); } return ""; }

    Read the article

  • Problem creating a custom input element using FluentHtml (MVCContrib)

    - by seth
    Hi there, I just recently started dabbling in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and came across the wonderful MVCContrib. I had originally gone down the path of creating some extended html helpers, but after finding FluentHTML decided to try my hand at creating a custom input element. Basically I am wanting to ultimately create several custom input elements to make it easier for some other devs on the project I'm working on to add their input fields to the page and have all of my preferred markup to render for them. So, in short, I'd like to wrap certain input elements with additional markup.. A TextBox would be wrapped in an <li /> for example. I've created my custom input elements following Tim Scott's answer in another question on here: DRY in the MVC View. So, to further elaborate, I've created my class, "TextBoxListItem": public class TextBoxListItem : TextInput<TextBox> { public TextBoxListItem (string name) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name) { } public TextBoxListItem (string name, MemberExpression forMember, IEnumerable<IBehaviorMarker> behaviors) : base(HtmlInputType.Text, name, forMember, behaviors) { } public override string ToString() { var liBuilder = new TagBuilder(HtmlTag.ListItem); liBuilder.InnerHtml = ToString(); return liBuilder.ToString(TagRenderMode.SelfClosing); } } I've also added it to my ViewModelContainerExtensions class: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem<T>(this IViewModelContainer<T> view, Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) where T : class { return new TextBoxListItem(expression.GetNameFor(view), expression.GetMemberExpression(), view.Behaviors) .Value(expression.GetValueFrom(view.ViewModel)); } And lastly, I've added it to ViewDataContainerExtensions as well: public static TextBox TextBoxListItem(this IViewDataContainer view, string name) { return new TextBox(name).Value(view.ViewData.Eval(name)); } I'm calling it in my view like so: <%= this.TextBoxListItem("username").Label("Username:") %> Anyway, I'm not getting anything other than the standard FluentHTML TextBox, not wrapped in <li></li> elements. What am I missing here? Thanks very much for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • Saving tree-structures in Databases

    - by Nina Null
    Hello everyone. I use Hibernate/Spring and a MySQL Database for my data management. Currently I display a tree-structure in a JTable. A tree can have several branches, in turn a branch can have several branches (up to nine levels) again, or having leaves. Lately I have performanceproblemes, as soon as I want to create new branches on deeper levels. At this time a branch has a foreign key to its parent. The domainobject has access to its parent by calling getParent(), which returns the parent-branch. The deeper the level, the longer it takes to create a new branch. Microbenchmark results for creating a new branch are like: Level 1: 32 ms. Level 3: 80 ms. Level 9: 232 ms. Obviously the level (which means the number of parents) is responsible for this. So I wanted to ask, if there are any appendages to work around this kind of problem. I don’t understand why Hibernate needs to know about the whole object tree (all parents until the root) while creating a new branch. But as far as I know this can be the only reason for the delay while creating a new branch, because a branch doesn’t have any other relations to any other objects. I would be very thankful for any workarounds or suggestions. greets, jambusa

    Read the article

  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

    Read the article

  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

    Read the article

  • PHP with Javascript: Email confirmation script not working

    - by Josh K
    Hey Heres what i got: echo "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function finishForm() { var answer = confirm('Are you sure these are the teams you want to enter with?'); if (answer) { if(document.getElementByID(emailconfirm).value == ".$_SESSION[Email].") { form.action=\"esubmit.php\"; form.submit(); } else { alert('E-mail address do not match'); return false; } } } function restartForm() { var answer = confirm('Are you sure you want to start over?'); if (answer) { form.action=\"e1.php\"; form.submit(); } } </script>"; I have a regular button calling this function. emailconfirm is a text input. I want to confirm that they have chosen the right teams, then check if the email in the session and the email confirmation text match. If they do match Then i want to submit the form. If they dont match, I want to alert the user they dont match, and just return to page so user can check emails and then resubmit. This script is in my header. EDIT: Haha sorry i submitted one before and it didnt go through, forgot to add my problem!! When you click the button it comes up with the confirmation, clicking either yes or no doesnt do anything. The alert doesnt pop up if they dont match and if they do match it doesnt submit. Also it might be good to note I had it without the email confirmation if statement and it worked fine (going to the submit page)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

    Read the article

  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

    Read the article

  • How can I receive mouse events when a wrapped control has set capture?

    - by Greg
    My WndProc isn't seeing mouse-up notifications when I click with a modifier key (shift or control) pressed. I see them without the modifier key, and I see mouse-down notifications with the modifier keys. I'm trying to track user actions in a component I didn't write, so I'm using the Windows Forms NativeWindow wrapper (wrapping the component) to get Windows messages from the WndProc() method. I've tried tracking the notifications I do get, and I the only clue I see is WM_CAPTURECHANGED. I've tried calling SetCapture when I receive the WM_LBUTTONDOWN message, but it doesn't help. Without modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR WM_MOUSEMOVE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONUP With modifier (skipping paint, timer and NCHITTEST messages): WM_KEYDOWN WM_PARENTNOTIFY WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_MOUSEACTIVATE WM_SETCURSOR WM_LBUTTONDOWN WM_SETCURSOR (repeats) WM_KEYDOWN (repeats) WM_KEYUP If I hold the mouse button down for a long time, I can usually get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, but it should be possible to make it more responsive.. Edit: I've tried control-clicking outside of the component of interest and moving the cursor into it before releasing the mouse button, and then I do get a WM_LBUTTONUP notification, so it looks like the component is capturing the mouse on mouse-down. Is there any way to receive that notification when another window has captured the mouse? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

    Read the article

  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

    Read the article

  • Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

    - by John
    From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

    Read the article

  • Is there a fundamental difference between malloc and HeapAlloc (aside from the portability)?

    - by Lambert
    Hi, I'm having code that, for various reasons, I'm trying to port from the C runtime to one that uses the Windows Heap API. I've encountered a problem: If I redirect the malloc/calloc/realloc/free calls to HeapAlloc/HeapReAlloc/HeapFree (with GetProcessHeap for the handle), the memory seems to be allocated correctly (no bad pointer returned, and no exceptions thrown), but the library I'm porting says "failed to allocate memory" for some reason. I've tried this both with the Microsoft CRT (which uses the Heap API underneath) and with another company's run-time library (which uses the Global Memory API underneath); the malloc for both of those works well with the library, but for some reason, using the Heap API directly doesn't work. I've checked that the allocations aren't too big (= 0x7FFF8 bytes), and they're not. The only problem I can think of is memory alignment; is that the case? Or other than that, is there a fundamental difference between the Heap API and the CRT memory API that I'm not aware of? If so, what is it? And if not, then why does the static Microsoft CRT (included with Visual Studio) take some extra steps in malloc/calloc before calling HeapAlloc? I'm suspecting there's a difference but I can't think of what it might be. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Unsort: remembering a permutation and undoing it.

    - by dreeves
    Suppose I have a function f that takes a vector v and returns a new vector with the elements transformed in some way. It does that by calling function g that assumes the vector is sorted. So I want f to be defined like so: f[v_] := Module[{s, r}, s = Sort[v]; (* remember the permutation applied in order to sort v *) r = g[s]; Unsort[r] (* apply the inverse of that permutation *) ] What's the best way to do the "Unsort"? Or could we get really fancy and have this somehow work: answer = Unsort[g[Sort[v]]]; ADDED: Let's make this concrete with a toy example. Suppose we want a function f that takes a vector and transforms it by adding to each element the next smallest element, if any. That's easy to write if we assume the vector is sorted, so let's write a helper function g that makes that assumption: g[v_] := v + Prepend[Most@v, 0] Now for the function we really want, f, that works whether or not v is sorted: f[v_] := (* remember the order; sort it; call g on it; put it back in the original order; return it *)

    Read the article

  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >