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• How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

  - by user315182

  First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

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• How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

  - by huffmaster

  So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

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• How do I tell nant to only call csc when there are cs files in to compile?

  - by rob_g

  In my NAnt script I have a compile target that calls csc. Currently it fails because no inputs are specified: <target name="compile"> <csc target="library" output="${umbraco.bin.dir}\Mammoth.${project::get-name()}.dll"> <sources> <include name="project/*.cs" /> </sources> <references> </references> </csc> </target> How do I tell NAnt to not execute the csc task if there are no CS files? I read about the 'if' attribute but am unsure what expression to use with it, as ${file::exists('*.cs')} does not work. The build script is a template for Umbraco (a CMS) projects and may or may not ever have .cs source files in the project. Ideally I would like to not have developers need to remember to modify the NAnt script to include the compile task when .cs files are added to the project (or exclude it when all .cs files are removed).

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• UIAlertView choice causing resignFirstResponder to fail

  - by Chazbot

  Hi everyone. I'm having a similar issue to Anthony Chan's question, and after trying every suggested solution, I'm still stuck. Somehow, only after interacting with my UIAlertView, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard in another view of my app. It's as though the Alert is breaking my UITextField's ability to resignFirstResponder. Below I instantiate my UIAlertView, which then calls its didDismissWIthButtonIndex method. Then, I call the showInfo method, which loads another UIViewController. UIAlertView *emailFailAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"error message text." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not now" otherButtonTitles:@"Settings", nil]; [emailFailAlert setTag:2]; [emailFailAlert show]; [emailFailAlert release]; Once the 'Settings' option is pressed, I'm calling this method: - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([alertView tag] == 2) { if (buttonIndex == 1){ [self showInfo:nil]; } } } My showInfo method loads the other ViewController, via the code below: - (IBAction)showInfo:(id)sender { FlipsideViewController *fscontroller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; fscontroller.delegate = self; fscontroller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:fscontroller animated:YES]; [fscontroller release]; } Upon clicking any textField in this Flipside VC, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard as I normally can with - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)textField, and [textField resignFirstResponder]. I've omitted this code bc this question is getting long, but I'm happy to post if necessary. The interesting part is that if I comment out the [self showInfo:nil] call made when the button is clicked and call it by clicking a test button (outside the alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex: method), everything works fine. Any idea what's happening here? Thanks in advance!

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• GoogleAuthUtil: Daily Limit for Unauthenticated Use Exceeded

  - by Copa

  I am using the Google Client API and the GoogleAuthUtil.class to get access to the user's Google Drive Account. String scope = "oauth2:" + DriveScopes.DRIVE; String token = GoogleAuthUtil.getToken(getContext(), account.name, scope); This is the whole magic. It worked the whole day but since a couple of hours I receive the following message when sending API calls: com.google.api.client.googleapis.json.GoogleJsonResponseException: 403 Forbidden { "code": 403, "errors": [ { "domain": "usageLimits", "message": "Daily Limit for Unauthenticated Use Exceeded. Continued use requires signup.", "reason": "dailyLimitExceededUnreg", "extendedHelp": "https://code.google.com/apis/console" } ], "message": "Daily Limit for Unauthenticated Use Exceeded. Continued use requires signup." } I dont know how to use a API Key from the console instead of an oauth2 authentication. There are two different "getToken()" messages. One has four parameters and the description for the last one says: extras: Bundle containing additional information that may be relevant to the authentication scope. But what do these information should look like? What informations do I have to put in the Bundle?

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• Why does first call to java.io.File.createTempFile(String,String,File) take 5 seconds on Citrix?

  - by Ben Roling

  While debugging slow startup of an Eclipse RCP app on a Citrix server, I came to find out that java.io.createTempFile(String,String,File) is taking 5 seconds. It does this only on the first execution and only for certain user accounts. Specifically, I am noticing it Citrix anonymous user accounts. I have not tried many other types of accounts, but this behavior is not exhibited with an administrator account. Also, it does not matter if the user has access to write to the given directory or not. If the user does not have access, the call will take 5 seconds to fail. If they do have access, the call with take 5 seconds to succeed. This is on a Windows 2003 Server. I've tried Sun's 1.6.0_16 and 1.6.0_19 JREs and see the same behavior. I googled a bit expecting this to be some sort of known issue, but didn't find anything. It seems like someone else would have had to have run into this before. The Eclipse Platform uses File.createTempFile() to test various directories to see if they are writeable during initialization and this issue adds 5 seconds to the startup time of our application. I imagine somebody has run into this before and might have some insight. Here is sample code I executed to see that it is indeed this call that is consuming the time. I also tried it with a second call to createTempFile and notice that subsequent calls return nearly instantaneously. public static void main(final String[] args) throws IOException { final File directory = new File(args[0]); final long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); File file = null; try { file = File.createTempFile("prefix", "suffix", directory); System.out.println(file.getAbsolutePath()); } finally { System.out.println(System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime); if (file != null) { file.delete(); } } } Sample output of this program is the following: C:\java.exe -jar filetest.jar C:/Temp C:\Temp\prefix8098550723198856667suffix 5093

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• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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• Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

  - by Nikhil

  Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

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• Can't set Visible attribute in ASP.NET Panels

  - by RichW

  I am having trouble with visible attribute of an ASP.NET Panel control. I have a page that calls a database table and returns the results in a datagrid. Requirements If some of the returned values are null I need to hide the image that's next to it. I am using a Panel to determine whether to hide or show the image but am having trouble with the statement: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' I have tried these as well: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' Code is below: <asp:TemplateField > <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("Name")%> <p> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="Panel1" visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>'> <asp:Image Id="imgHouse" runat="server" AlternateText="Address" SkinId="imgHouse"/> </asp:Panel> <%# Eval("addr1") %><p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> What am I doing wrong? Edit If I use visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' I get the following error: Compiler Error Message: CS1026: ) expected

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• Trouble implementing Singleton pattern in Tomcat web application due to Class Loader

  - by jwegan

  I'm trying to implement a Singleton in Tomcat 6.24 on Linux with x86_64 OpenJDK 1.6. My application is just a bunch of JSPs and some static content and the JSPs make calls to my Java code. Currently the web.xml just looks like this: <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <description> App Name </description> <display-name>App Name</display-name> <!-- The Usual Welcome File List --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>pages/index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> Before when I was trying to load my Singleton it was getting instantiated twice since the class was getting loaded by two different class loaders (I'm not sure why) and each loader would create an instance of the singleton which is not acceptable for my application. I finally figured out if I exported my code as a jar and put it in $CATALINA_HOME/lib then there was only one instance, but this is not an elegant solution. I've been googling for hours, but I haven't come up with anything yet. I'm wondering if there is some other solution. Currently I'm not precompling my JSPs, could this be part of the problem? Could I write a servlet to ensure the singleton is created? If so how do I do that?

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• Non-blocking TCP connection issues.

  - by Poni

  Hi! I think I'm in a problem. I have two TCP apps connected to each other which use winsock I/O completion ports to send/receive data (non-blocking sockets). Everything works just fine until there's a data transfer burst. The sender starts sending incorrect/malformed data. I allocate the buffers I'm sending on the stack, and if I understand correctly, that's a wrong to do, because these buffers should remain as I sent them until I get the "write complete" notification from IOCP. Take this for example: void some_function() { char cBuff[1024]; // filling cBuff with some data WSASend(...); // sending cBuff, non-blocking mode // filling cBuff with other data WSASend(...); // again, sending cBuff // ..... and so forth! } If I understand correctly, each of these WSASend() calls should have its own unique buffer, and that buffer can be reused only when the send completes. Correct? Now, what strategies can I implement in order to maintain a big sack of such buffers, how should I handle them etc'? And, if I am to use buffers that means I should copy the data to be sent from the source buffer to the temporary one, thus, I'd set SO_SNDBUF on each socket to zero, so the system will not re-copy what I already copied. Are you with me? Please let me know if I wasn't clear.

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• Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

  - by sal

  Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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• Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

  - by SztupY

  Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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• greasemonkey: perform GM_xmlhttpRequest() from eval (follow up)

  - by Paul Tarjan

  How can you call GM_xmlhttpRequest inside of an eval where you are evaling some complicated code, some of which calls GM_xmlhttpRequest. This is a follow up to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1074236 Here is some sample code: // ==UserScript== // @name Test GM AJAX // ==/UserScript== console = unsafeWindow.console; function fetch(msg) { console.log('fetching: '+msg); GM_xmlhttpRequest({ method: 'GET', url: 'http://google.com', onload: function(responseDetails) { console.log(msg); } }); } function complicated(arg1, arg2) { fetch(arg1 + arg2); } console.log('trying'); var code = 'complicated("Ya", "y!")'; function myEval(code) { eval(code); eval('setTimeout(function(){'+code+'},0)'); eval('setTimeout(fetch,0)'); eval('setTimeout(function(){console.log("here");fetch("cool")},0)'); fetch("BOO"); } myEval(code); which outputs: trying fetching: Yay! fetching: BOO fetching: Yay! fetching: 30 here fetching: cool BOO 30 So the only fetch that worked was the setTimeout(fetch,0) but I need to actually execute the code which includes come complicated code. Any ideas?

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• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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• jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

  - by meosoft

  Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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• How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

  - by Martin

  So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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• WCF Web Service - Service Unavaiable

  - by born to hula

  I have a WCF Web Service which is kept under an Application Pool on IIS. Lately I've been getting "Service Unavaiable" when I'm trying to make calls to this Web Service. The first thing I tried to do was restarting the Application Pool. I did it and after a couple of seconds, it crashed and stopped. Looking at the Event Viewer, I found these messages, which by the moment couldn't help me to find where the problem is. A process serving application pool 'X' reported a failure. The process id was '11616'. The data field contains the error number. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. After getting a couple of these, I got this one: Application pool 'X' is being automatically disabled due to a series of failures in the process(es) serving that application pool. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. I've already checked permissions and Application Pool configurations but everything seems to be OK. Have anyone been through this? Thanks in advance.

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• Unknown and unreproducible crash causes App Store rejection

  - by Daniel Johnson

  After submitting our application several times, we continue to receive the following response: Thank you for submitting My App to the App Store. We've reviewed your application and determined that we cannot post this version of your iPad application to the App Store because My App is crashing on iPad running iPhone OS 3.2 and Mac OS X 10.6.2. My App crashes upon launch. Unfortunately, crash logs have not been generated. However, resigning the same build with the AdHoc entitlements and loading the build onto the device yields no such crash. After a number of attempts, the application simply does not crash as reported by the reviewer. Furthermore, the reviewer does not provide any useful logging that may have been generated by SpringBoard such as an exit status or event if it had worked properly for any other device. There are no calls to explicitly exit or quit the application in the code line and yet the application terminates on startup. What might cause an application to terminate in such a manner? Under what conditions is an application tested that might not be found under a development environment? Could it be a result of a signing issue that the submission validation system is simply unable to catch? Thanks in advance.

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• Alloy MVC Framework Titanium Network (Model)

  - by flyingDuck

  I'm trying to authenticate using the Model in Alloy. I have been trying to figure this problem out since yesterday. If anybody could help me, I'd really appreciate it. So, I have a view login.xml, then a controller login.js. The login.js contains the following function: var user = Alloy.Models.user; //my user.js model function login(e) { if($.username.value !== '' && $.password.value !== ''){ if(user.login($.username.value, $.password.value)){ Alloy.createController('home').getView().open(); $.login.close(); } }else{ alert('Username and/or Password required!'); } } Then in my user.js model, it's like this: extendModel : function(Model) { _.extend(Model.prototype, { login: function(username, password) { var first_name, last_name, email; var _this = this; var url = 'http://myurl.com/test.php'; var auth = Ti.Network.createHTTPClient({ onerror: function(e){ alert(e.error); }, onload: function(){ var json = this.responseText; var response = JSON.parse(json); if(response.logged == true){ first_name = response.f_name; last_name = response.l_name; email = response.email; _this.set({ loggedIn: 1, username: email, realname: first_name + ' ' + last_name, email: email, }); _this.save(); }else{ alert(response.message); } }, }); auth.open('POST', url); var params = { usernames: username, passwords: password, }; auth.send(params); alert(_this.get('email')); //alert email }, }); When I click on login in login.xml it calls the function login in index.js. So, now my problem is that, when I click the button for the first time, I get an empty alert from alert(_this.get('email')), but then when I click the button the second time, everything works fine, it alerts the email. I have no idea what's going on. Thank you for the help.

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• dynamic lib can't find static lib

  - by renyufei

  env: gcc version 4.4.1 (Ubuntu 4.4.1-4ubuntu9) app: Bin(main) calls dynamic lib(testb.so), and testb.so contains a static lib(libtesta.a). file list: main.c test.h a.c b.c then compile as: gcc -o testa.o -c a.c ar -r libtesta.a testa.o gcc -shared -fPIC -o testb.so b.c gcc -o main main.c -L. -ltesta -ldl then compile success, but runs an error: ./main: symbol lookup error: ./testb.so: undefined symbol: print code as follows: test.h #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <string.h> #include <dlfcn.h> int printa(const char *msg); int printb(const char *msg); a.c #include "test.h" int printa(const char *msg) { printf("\tin printa\n"); printf("\t%s\n", msg); } b.c #include "test.h" int printb(const char *msg) { printf("in printb\n"); printa("called by printb\n"); printf("%s\n", msg); } main.c #include "test.h" int main(int argc, char **argv) { void *handle; int (*dfn)(const char *); printf("before dlopen\n"); handle = dlopen("./testb.so", RTLD_LOCAL | RTLD_LAZY); printf("after dlopen\n"); if (handle == NULL) { printf("dlopen fail: [%d][%s][%s]\n", \ errno, strerror(errno), dlerror()); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } printf("before dlsym\n"); dfn = dlsym(handle, "printb"); printf("after dlsym\n"); if (dfn == NULL) { printf("dlsym fail: [%d][%s][%s]\n", \ errno, strerror(errno), dlerror()); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } printf("before dfn\n"); dfn("printb func\n"); printf("after dfn\n"); exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); }

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• NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

  - by alexantd

  I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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• Drawing an honeycomb with as3

  - by vitto

  Hi, I'm trying to create an honeycomb with as3 but I have some problem on cells positioning. I've already created the cells (not with code) and for cycled them to a funcion and send to it the parameters which what I thought was need (the honeycomb cell is allready on a sprite container in the center of the stage). to see the structure of the cycle and which parameters passes, please see the example below, the only thing i calculate in placeCell is the angle which I should obtain directly inside tha called function Note: the angle is reversed but it isn't important, and the color are useful in example only for visually divide cases. My for cycle calls placeCell and passes cell, current_case, counter (index) and the honeycomb cell_lv (cell level). I thought it was what i needed but I'm not skilled in geometry and trigonometry, so I don't know how to position cells correctly: function placeCell (cell:Sprite, current_case:int, counter:int, cell_lv:int):void { var margin:int = 2; var angle:Number = (360 / (cell_lv * 6)) * (current_case + counter); var radius:Number = (cell.width + margin) * cell_lv; cell.x = radius * Math.cos (angle); cell.y = radius * Math.sin (angle); trace ("LV " + cell_lv + " current_case " + current_case + " counter " + counter + " angle " + angle + " radius " + radius) } how can I do to solve it?

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• Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

  - by Carl Manaster

  I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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