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  • How to implement an interface class using the non-virtual interface idiom in C++?

    - by andreas buykx
    Hi all, In C++ an interface can be implemented by a class with all its methods pure virtual. Such a class could be part of a library to describe what methods an object should implement to be able to work with other classes in the library: class Lib::IFoo { public: virtual void method() = 0; }; : class Lib::Bar { public: void stuff( Lib::IFoo & ); }; Now I want to to use class Lib::Bar, so I have to implement the IFoo interface. For my purposes I need a whole of related classes so I would like to work with a base class that guarantees common behavior using the NVI idiom: class FooBase : public IFoo // implement interface IFoo { public: void method(); // calls methodImpl; private: virtual void methodImpl(); }; The non-virtual interface (NVI) idiom ought to deny derived classes the possibility of overriding the common behavior implemented in FooBase::method(), but since IFoo made it virtual it seems that all derived classes have the opportunity to override the FooBase::method(). If I want to use the NVI idiom, what are my options other than the pImpl idiom already suggested (thanks space-c0wb0y).

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  • .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

    - by DevSolo
    I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

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  • Fastest Java way to remove the first/top line of a file (like a stack)

    - by christangrant
    I am trying to improve an external sort implementation in java. I have a bunch of BufferedReader objects open for temporary files. I repeatedly remove the top line from each of these files. This pushes the limits of the Java's Heap. I would like a more scalable method of doing this without loosing speed because of a bunch of constructor calls. One solution is to only open files when they are needed, then read the first line and then delete it. But I am afraid that this will be significantly slower. So using Java libraries what is the most efficient method of doing this. --Edit-- For external sort, the usual method is to break a large file up into several chunk files. Sort each of the chunks. And then treat the sorted files like buffers, pop the top item from each file, the smallest of all those is the global minimum. Then continue until for all items. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/External_sorting My temporary files (buffers) are basically BufferedReader objects. The operations performed on these files are the same as stack/queue operations (peek and pop, no push needed). I am trying to make these peek and pop operations more efficient. This is because using many BufferedReader objects takes up too much space.

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  • Android NDK import-module / code reuse

    - by Graeme
    Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

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  • C++ destructor called on array index - why

    - by tge
    The following code (from Apache Tuscany SDO C++) occasionally (actually very rarely) causes subsequent crashes and I don't understand what's going on. The following statement is in DataObjectImpl.cpp (see stack below): PropertyImpl* DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl(unsigned int index) { ... 904 PropertyList props = getType().getProperties(); 905 if (index < props.size()) 906 { 907 return (PropertyImpl*)&props[index]; ... causes the following stack (all omitted frames above and below look plausible): Note: #11 libtuscany_sdo.dll!std::vector<>::~vector<> [c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\vector:559] Note: #12 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::PropertyList::~PropertyList [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\propertylist.cpp:60] Note: #13 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getPropertyImpl [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:907] Note: #14 libtuscany_sdo.dll!commonj::sdo::DataObjectImpl::getSDOValue [y:\external\tuscany\src\runtime\core\src\commonj\sdo\dataobjectimpl.cpp:3845] The actual question is - why is the destructor of PropertyList called?? As stated, the stack looks OK otherwise, also the vector destructor, as PropertyList has a member std::vector<PropertyImplPtr plist; and the array index operator of PropertyList just calls the array index of the plist member. And, even more puzzling (to me), why this happens only occasionally ... Many thx!!

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  • c++ multithread

    - by chnet
    I use C++ to implement a thread class. My code shows in the following. I have a problem about how to access thread data. In the class Thread, I create a thread use pthread_create() function. then it calls EntryPoint() function to start thread created. In the Run function, I want to access the mask variable, it always shows segment fault. So, my question is whether the new created thread copy the data in original class? How to access the thread own data? class Thread { public: int mask; pthread_t thread; Thread( int ); void start(); static void * EntryPoint (void *); void Run(); }; Thread::Thread( int a) { mask =a; } void Thread::Run() { cout<<"thread begin to run" <<endl; cout << mask <<endl; // it always show segmentfault here } void * Thread::EntryPoint(void * pthis) { cout << "entry" <<endl; Thread *pt = (Thread *) pthis; pt->Run(); } void Thread::start() { pthread_create(&thread, NULL, EntryPoint, (void *)ThreadId ); pthread_join(thread, NULL); } int main() { int input_array[8]={3,1,2,5,6,8,7,4}; Thread t1(1); t1.start(); }

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  • Android, phone call audio stream via wlan

    - by moppel
    I am planning on developing my specific voip app for android. Here's the scenario: when a phone call occurs I want to hear the person who's calling on my local pc speakers and I want to speak to him via my own pc microphone / headset. So I need to send the audio stream of both me and the person I am talking to via the wlan network. Something like this: ... onCallStateChanged(int state, String phoneNumber){ while(state == PhoneListener.CALL_STATE_OFFHOOK){ //while phone call is happaning //send incoming speech via wlan to pc //receive audiostream from pc microphone and direct it to the phone call } } ... Is this possible with the current Android API? (Actually it should be since voip apps are available in the market) I did some research in the Android API and all I found was the AudioManager which has constant named public static final int STREAM_VOICE_CALL; //The audio stream for phone calls But I don't know how to use it our how it should give me access to the actual audiostreams which I can send via network. How do I manage to do this? The connection would be realised by TCP sockets.

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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  • jQueryUI Modal confirmation dialog on form submission

    - by DavidYell
    I am trying to get a modal confirmation dialog working when a user submits a form. My approach, I thought logically, would be to catch the form submission. My code is as follows, $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Confirm': function(){ //$(this).dialog('close'); return true; }, 'Cancel': function(){ $(this).dialog('close'); return false; } } }); $('#completeform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var n = $('#completeform input:checked').length; if(n == 0){ alert("Please check the item and mark as complete"); return false; }else{ var q = $('#completeform #qty').html(); if(q > 1){ $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog('open'); } } //return false; }); So I'm setting up my dialog first. This is because I'm pretty certain that the scope of the dialog needs to be at the same level as the function which calls it. However, the issue is that when you click 'Confirm' nothing happens. The submit action does not continue. I've tried $('#completeform').submit(); also, which doesn't seem to work. I have tried removing the .preventDefault() to ensure that the form submission isn't completely cancelled, but it doesn't seem to make a difference between that and returning false. Not checking the box, show and alert fine. Might change to dialog at some point ;), clicking 'Cancel' closes the dialog and remains on the page, but the elusive 'Confirm' buttons seems to not continue with the form submission event. If anyone can help, I'd happily share my lunch with you! ;)

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  • jQuery: Moving window (or FIFO) type DIV?

    - by Legend
    I have been trying to get this effect for a couple of hours now and I must admit I am failing at it. I am trying to construct a DIV that accepts a particular number of items (say 5), when the 6th item is added, the first item that was aded should be removed (first-in-first-out). The feel should have some kind of a fadeIn and fadeOut. Here's what I managed to write till now: ... //Create a ul element with id 'ulele' and add it to a div ... //Do an ajax call and when an element arrives Hash = ComputeHash(message) if(!$("#" + Hash).exists()) { var element = $("<li></li>").html(message).attr('id', Hash).prependTo("#ulele"); $("#" + Hash).hide().delay(10000 - 1000 * messageNumber).show("slow"); _this.prune("#ulele"); } ... prune: function(divid) { $("#" + divid).children().each( function(i, elemLi) { if(i >= maxMessages) $(this).delay(10000).hide("slow").delay(10000).remove(); } ); } I've tried a couple of variations but the final effect I am getting is not that of a FIFO. The elements disappear instantaneously despite the delay and hide("slow") calls. Anyone has a more straightforward approach?

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Cocoa Touch: Creating and Adding Custom View

    - by Jason
    I create a custom view in cocoa touch that is superclassed by UIView and in my main controller I initialize it and then add it as a subview to the main view, but when I add it to the main view it calls my initializer method again and causes an infinite loop. Am I going about creating my custom view wrong? Here is the mainView (void)loadView { UIImage *tempImage = [UIImage imageNamed: @"image1.jpg"]; CustomImageContainer *testImage = [[CustomImageContainer alloc] initWithImage: tempImage andLabel: @"test image" onTop: true atX: 10 atY: 10]; [self.view addSubview: testImage]; } and the CustomImageContainer -(CustomImageContainer *) initWithImage: (UIImage *)imageToAdd andLabel: (NSString *)text onTop: (BOOL) top atX: (int) x_cord atY: (int) y_cord{ UIImageView *imageview_to_add = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage: imageToAdd]; imageview_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageToAdd.size.width, imageToAdd.size.height); UILabel *label_to_add = [[UILabel alloc] init]; label_to_add.text = text; label_to_add.alpha = 50; label_to_add.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor]; label_to_add.textColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; [self addSubview: imageview_to_add]; self.frame = CGRectMake(x_cord, y_cord, imageToAdd.size.width, imageToAdd.size.height); if (top) { label_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageview_to_add.frame.size.width, imageview_to_add.frame.size.height); //[self addSubview: label_to_add]; } else { label_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0,.2 * imageview_to_add.frame.size.height, imageview_to_add.frame.size.width, imageview_to_add.frame.size.height); } [self addSubview: label_to_add]; [super init]; return self; }

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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  • Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

    - by SztupY
    Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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  • Is there a fundamental difference between malloc and HeapAlloc (aside from the portability)?

    - by Lambert
    Hi, I'm having code that, for various reasons, I'm trying to port from the C runtime to one that uses the Windows Heap API. I've encountered a problem: If I redirect the malloc/calloc/realloc/free calls to HeapAlloc/HeapReAlloc/HeapFree (with GetProcessHeap for the handle), the memory seems to be allocated correctly (no bad pointer returned, and no exceptions thrown), but the library I'm porting says "failed to allocate memory" for some reason. I've tried this both with the Microsoft CRT (which uses the Heap API underneath) and with another company's run-time library (which uses the Global Memory API underneath); the malloc for both of those works well with the library, but for some reason, using the Heap API directly doesn't work. I've checked that the allocations aren't too big (= 0x7FFF8 bytes), and they're not. The only problem I can think of is memory alignment; is that the case? Or other than that, is there a fundamental difference between the Heap API and the CRT memory API that I'm not aware of? If so, what is it? And if not, then why does the static Microsoft CRT (included with Visual Studio) take some extra steps in malloc/calloc before calling HeapAlloc? I'm suspecting there's a difference but I can't think of what it might be. Thank you!

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Graham
    I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

    - by ashays
    Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

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  • Question about how to implement a c# host application with a plugin-like architecture

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to have an application that works as a Host to many other small applications. Each one of those applications should work as kind of plugin to this main application. I call them plugins not in the sense they add something to the main application, but because they can only work with this Host application as they depend on some of its services. My idea was to have each of those plugins run in a different app domain. The problem seems to be that my host application should have a set of services that my plugins will want to use and from what is my understanding making data flow in and out from different app domains is not that great of a thing. On one hand I'd like them to behave as stand-alone applications(although, as I said, they need to use lots of times the host application services), but on the other hand I'd like that if any of them crashes, my main application wouldn't suffer from it. What is the best (.NET) approach to this kind of situation? Make them all run on the same AppDomain but each one in a different Thread? Use different AppDomains? One for each "plugin"? How would I make them communicate with the Host Application? Any other way of doing this? Although speed is not an issue here, I wouldn't like for function calls to be that much slower than they are when we're working with just a regular .NET application. Thanks

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  • jQuery AJAX with two domains

    - by Andrew Burns
    OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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  • Accept templated parameter of stl_container_type<string>::iterator

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have a function where I have a container which holds strings (eg vector<string>, set<string>, list<string>) and, given a start iterator and an end iterator, go through the iterator range processing the strings. Currently the function is declared like this: template< typename ContainerIter> void ProcessStrings(ContainerIter begin, ContainerIter end); Now this will accept any type which conforms to the implicit interface of implementing operator*, prefix operator++ and whatever other calls are in the function body. What I really want to do is have a definition like the one below which explicitly restricts the amount of input (pseudocode warning): template< typename Container<string>::iterator> void ProcessStrings(Container<string>::iterator begin, Container<string>::iterator end); so that I can use it as such: vector<string> str_vec; list<string> str_list; set<SomeOtherClass> so_set; ProcessStrings(str_vec.begin(), str_vec.end()); // OK ProcessStrings(str_list.begin(), str_list.end()); //OK ProcessStrings(so_set.begin(), so_set.end()); // Error Essentially, what I am trying to do is restrict the function specification to make it obvious to a user of the function what it accepts and if the code fails to compile they get a message that they are using the wrong parameter types rather than something in the function body that XXX function could not be found for XXX class.

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