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  • Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

    - by brainydexter
    I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

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  • search form in php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

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  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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  • Unit Testing-- fundamental goal?

    - by David
    Me and my co-workers had a bit of a disagreement last night about unit testing in our PHP/MySQL application. Half of us argued that when unit testing a function within a class, you should mock everything outside of that class and its parents. The other half of us argued that you SHOULDN'T mock anything that is a direct dependancy of the class either. The specific example was our logging mechanism, which happened through a static Logging class, and we had a number of Logging::log() calls in various locations throughout our application. The first half of us said the Logging mechanism should be faked (mocked) because it would be tested in the Logging unit tests. The second half of us argued that we should include the original Logging class in our unit test so that if we make a change to our logging interface, we'll be able to see if it creates problems in other parts of the application due to failing to update the call interface. So I guess the fundamental question is-- do unit tests serve to test the functionality of a single unit in a closed environment, or show the consequences of changes to a single unit in a larger environment? If it's one of these, how do you accomplish the other?

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  • Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

    - by SztupY
    Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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  • HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Graham
    I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • Using application roles with DataReader

    - by Shahar
    I have an application that should use an application role from the database. I'm trying to make this work with queries that are actually run using Subsonic (2). To do this, I created my own DataProvider, which inherits from Subsonic's SqlDataProvider. It overrides the CreateConnection function, and calls sp_appsetrole to set the application role after the connection is created. This part works fine, and I'm able to get data using the application role. The problem comes when I try to unset the application role. I couldn't find any place in the code where my provider is called after the query is done, so I tried to add my own, by changing SubSonic code. The problem is that Subsonic uses a data reader. It loads data from the data reader, and then closes it. If I unset the application role before the data reader is closed, I get an error saying: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. If I unset the application role after the data reader is closed, I get an error saying ExecuteNonQuery requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is closed. I can't seem to find a way to close the data reader without closing the connection.

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  • jQuery AJAX with two domains

    - by Andrew Burns
    OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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  • How to implement an interface class using the non-virtual interface idiom in C++?

    - by andreas buykx
    Hi all, In C++ an interface can be implemented by a class with all its methods pure virtual. Such a class could be part of a library to describe what methods an object should implement to be able to work with other classes in the library: class Lib::IFoo { public: virtual void method() = 0; }; : class Lib::Bar { public: void stuff( Lib::IFoo & ); }; Now I want to to use class Lib::Bar, so I have to implement the IFoo interface. For my purposes I need a whole of related classes so I would like to work with a base class that guarantees common behavior using the NVI idiom: class FooBase : public IFoo // implement interface IFoo { public: void method(); // calls methodImpl; private: virtual void methodImpl(); }; The non-virtual interface (NVI) idiom ought to deny derived classes the possibility of overriding the common behavior implemented in FooBase::method(), but since IFoo made it virtual it seems that all derived classes have the opportunity to override the FooBase::method(). If I want to use the NVI idiom, what are my options other than the pImpl idiom already suggested (thanks space-c0wb0y).

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Cocoa Touch: Creating and Adding Custom View

    - by Jason
    I create a custom view in cocoa touch that is superclassed by UIView and in my main controller I initialize it and then add it as a subview to the main view, but when I add it to the main view it calls my initializer method again and causes an infinite loop. Am I going about creating my custom view wrong? Here is the mainView (void)loadView { UIImage *tempImage = [UIImage imageNamed: @"image1.jpg"]; CustomImageContainer *testImage = [[CustomImageContainer alloc] initWithImage: tempImage andLabel: @"test image" onTop: true atX: 10 atY: 10]; [self.view addSubview: testImage]; } and the CustomImageContainer -(CustomImageContainer *) initWithImage: (UIImage *)imageToAdd andLabel: (NSString *)text onTop: (BOOL) top atX: (int) x_cord atY: (int) y_cord{ UIImageView *imageview_to_add = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage: imageToAdd]; imageview_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageToAdd.size.width, imageToAdd.size.height); UILabel *label_to_add = [[UILabel alloc] init]; label_to_add.text = text; label_to_add.alpha = 50; label_to_add.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor]; label_to_add.textColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; [self addSubview: imageview_to_add]; self.frame = CGRectMake(x_cord, y_cord, imageToAdd.size.width, imageToAdd.size.height); if (top) { label_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageview_to_add.frame.size.width, imageview_to_add.frame.size.height); //[self addSubview: label_to_add]; } else { label_to_add.frame = CGRectMake(0,.2 * imageview_to_add.frame.size.height, imageview_to_add.frame.size.width, imageview_to_add.frame.size.height); } [self addSubview: label_to_add]; [super init]; return self; }

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Accept templated parameter of stl_container_type<string>::iterator

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have a function where I have a container which holds strings (eg vector<string>, set<string>, list<string>) and, given a start iterator and an end iterator, go through the iterator range processing the strings. Currently the function is declared like this: template< typename ContainerIter> void ProcessStrings(ContainerIter begin, ContainerIter end); Now this will accept any type which conforms to the implicit interface of implementing operator*, prefix operator++ and whatever other calls are in the function body. What I really want to do is have a definition like the one below which explicitly restricts the amount of input (pseudocode warning): template< typename Container<string>::iterator> void ProcessStrings(Container<string>::iterator begin, Container<string>::iterator end); so that I can use it as such: vector<string> str_vec; list<string> str_list; set<SomeOtherClass> so_set; ProcessStrings(str_vec.begin(), str_vec.end()); // OK ProcessStrings(str_list.begin(), str_list.end()); //OK ProcessStrings(so_set.begin(), so_set.end()); // Error Essentially, what I am trying to do is restrict the function specification to make it obvious to a user of the function what it accepts and if the code fails to compile they get a message that they are using the wrong parameter types rather than something in the function body that XXX function could not be found for XXX class.

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  • Trouble implementing Singleton pattern in Tomcat web application due to Class Loader

    - by jwegan
    I'm trying to implement a Singleton in Tomcat 6.24 on Linux with x86_64 OpenJDK 1.6. My application is just a bunch of JSPs and some static content and the JSPs make calls to my Java code. Currently the web.xml just looks like this: <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <description> App Name </description> <display-name>App Name</display-name> <!-- The Usual Welcome File List --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>pages/index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> Before when I was trying to load my Singleton it was getting instantiated twice since the class was getting loaded by two different class loaders (I'm not sure why) and each loader would create an instance of the singleton which is not acceptable for my application. I finally figured out if I exported my code as a jar and put it in $CATALINA_HOME/lib then there was only one instance, but this is not an elegant solution. I've been googling for hours, but I haven't come up with anything yet. I'm wondering if there is some other solution. Currently I'm not precompling my JSPs, could this be part of the problem? Could I write a servlet to ensure the singleton is created? If so how do I do that?

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  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • Android NDK import-module / code reuse

    - by Graeme
    Morning! I've created a small NDK project which allows dynamic serialisation of objects between Java and C++ through JNI. The logic works like this: Bean - JavaCInterface.Java - JavaCInterface.cpp - JavaCInterface.java - Bean The problem is I want to use this functionality in other projects. I separated out the test code from the project and created a "Tester" project. The tester project sends a Java object through to C++ which then echo's it back to the Java layer. I thought linking would be pretty simple - ("Simple" in terms of NDK/JNI is usually a day of frustration) I added the JNIBridge project as a source project and including the following lines to Android.mk: NDK_MODULE_PATH=.../JNIBridge/jni/" JNIBridge/jni/JavaCInterface/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_STATIC_LIBRARY) JNITester/jni/Android.mk: ... include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) $(call import-module, JavaCInterface) This all works fine. The C++ files which rely on headers from JavaCInterface module work fine. Also the Java classes can happily use interfaces from JNIBridge project. All the linking is happy. Unfortunately JavaCInterface.java which contains the native method calls cannot see the JNI method located in the static library. (Logically they are in the same project but both are imported into the project where you wish to use them through the above mechanism). My current solutions are are follows. I'm hoping someone can suggest something that will preserve the modular nature of what I'm trying to achieve: My current solution would be to include the JavaCInterface cpp files in the calling project like so: LOCAL_SRC_FILES := FunctionTable.cpp $(PATH_TO_SHARED_PROJECT)/JavaCInterface.cpp But I'd rather not do this as it would lead to me needing to update each depending project if I changed the JavaCInterface architecture. I could create a new set of JNI method signatures in each local project which then link to the imported modules. Again, this binds the implementations too tightly.

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  • jQuery: Moving window (or FIFO) type DIV?

    - by Legend
    I have been trying to get this effect for a couple of hours now and I must admit I am failing at it. I am trying to construct a DIV that accepts a particular number of items (say 5), when the 6th item is added, the first item that was aded should be removed (first-in-first-out). The feel should have some kind of a fadeIn and fadeOut. Here's what I managed to write till now: ... //Create a ul element with id 'ulele' and add it to a div ... //Do an ajax call and when an element arrives Hash = ComputeHash(message) if(!$("#" + Hash).exists()) { var element = $("<li></li>").html(message).attr('id', Hash).prependTo("#ulele"); $("#" + Hash).hide().delay(10000 - 1000 * messageNumber).show("slow"); _this.prune("#ulele"); } ... prune: function(divid) { $("#" + divid).children().each( function(i, elemLi) { if(i >= maxMessages) $(this).delay(10000).hide("slow").delay(10000).remove(); } ); } I've tried a couple of variations but the final effect I am getting is not that of a FIFO. The elements disappear instantaneously despite the delay and hide("slow") calls. Anyone has a more straightforward approach?

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  • Resizing a GLJPanel with JOGL causes my model to disappear.

    - by badcodenotreat
    I switched over to using a GLJPanel from a GLCanvas to avoid certain flickering issues, however this has created several unintended consequences of it's own. From what I've gleaned so far, GLJPanel calls GLEventListener.init() every time it's resized which either resets various openGL functions i've enabled in init() (depth test, lighting, etc...) if i'm lucky, or completely obliterates my model if i'm not. I've tried debugging it but I'm not able to correct this behavior. This is my init() function: gl.glShadeModel( GL.GL_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_DEPTH_TEST ); gl.glDepthFunc( GL.GL_LEQUAL ); gl.glDepthRange( zNear, zFar ); gl.glDisable( GL.GL_LINE_SMOOTH ); gl.glEnable(GL.GL_NORMALIZE); gl.glEnable( GL.GL_BLEND ); gl.glBlendFunc( GL.GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA ); // set up the background color gl.glClearColor( ((float)backColor.getRed () / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getGreen() / 255.0f), ((float)backColor.getBlue () / 255.0f), 1.0f); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHTING ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_AMBIENT, Constants.AMBIENT_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glLightfv( GL.GL_LIGHT0, GL.GL_DIFFUSE, Constants.DIFFUSE_LIGHT, 0 ); gl.glEnable ( GL.GL_LIGHT0 ); gl.glTexEnvf( GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL.GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL.GL_MODULATE ); gl.glHint( GL.GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL.GL_NICEST ); // code to generate model Is there any way around this other than removing everything from init(), adding it to my display() function? Given the behavior of init() and reshape() for GLJPanel, i'm not sure if that will fix it either.

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  • Question about how to implement a c# host application with a plugin-like architecture

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to have an application that works as a Host to many other small applications. Each one of those applications should work as kind of plugin to this main application. I call them plugins not in the sense they add something to the main application, but because they can only work with this Host application as they depend on some of its services. My idea was to have each of those plugins run in a different app domain. The problem seems to be that my host application should have a set of services that my plugins will want to use and from what is my understanding making data flow in and out from different app domains is not that great of a thing. On one hand I'd like them to behave as stand-alone applications(although, as I said, they need to use lots of times the host application services), but on the other hand I'd like that if any of them crashes, my main application wouldn't suffer from it. What is the best (.NET) approach to this kind of situation? Make them all run on the same AppDomain but each one in a different Thread? Use different AppDomains? One for each "plugin"? How would I make them communicate with the Host Application? Any other way of doing this? Although speed is not an issue here, I wouldn't like for function calls to be that much slower than they are when we're working with just a regular .NET application. Thanks

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  • Delayed_job not executing the perform method but emptying the job queue

    - by James
    I have a fresh rails 3 app, here's my Gemfile: source 'http://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.0.0' gem 'delayed_job' gem 'sqlite3-ruby', :require = 'sqlite3' Here's the class that represents the job that I want to queue: class Me < Struct.new(:something) def perform puts "Hello from me" logger.info "Hello from me" logger.debug "Hello from me" raise Exception.new end end From the console with no workers running: irb(main):002:0> Delayed::Job.enqueue Me.new(1) => #<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11"> Like I mentioned: there are no workers running: irb(main):003:0> Delayed::Job.all => [#<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11">] I start a worker with script/delayed_job run The queue gets emptied: irb(main):006:0> Delayed::Job.all => [] However, nothing happens as a result of the puts, nothing is logged from the logger calls, and no exception is raised. I'd appreciate any help / insight or anything to try.

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  • Alignment in assembly

    - by jena
    Hi, I'm spending some time on assembly programming (Gas, in particular) and recently I learned about the align directive. I think I've understood the very basics, but I would like to gain a deeper understanding of its nature and when to use alignment. For instance, I wondered about the assembly code of a simple C++ switch statement. I know that under certain circumstances switch statements are based on jump tables, as in the following few lines of code: .section .rodata .align 4 .align 4 .L8: .long .L2 .long .L3 .long .L4 .long .L5 ... .align 4 aligns the following data on the next 4-byte boundary which ensures that fetching these memory locations is efficient, right? I think this is done because there might be things happening before the switch statement which caused misalignment. But why are there actually two calls to .align? Are there any rules of thumb when to call .align or should it simply be done whenever a new block of data is stored in memory and something prior to this could have caused misalignment? In case of arrays, it seems that alignment is done on 32-byte boundaries as soon as the array occupies at least 32 byte. Is it more efficient to do it this way or is there another reason for the 32-byte boundary? I'd appreciate any explanation or hint on literature.

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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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