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  • Left/Right/Inner joins using C# and LINQ

    - by Keith Barrows
    I am trying to figure out how to do a series of queries to get the updates, deletes and inserts segregated into their own calls. I have 2 tables, one in each of 2 databases. One is a Read Only feeds database and the other is the T-SQL R/W Production source. There are a few key columns in common between the two. What I am doing to setup is this: List<model.AutoWithImage> feedProductList = _dbFeed.AutoWithImage.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); List<model.vwCompanyDetails> companyDetailList = _dbRiv.vwCompanyDetails.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); foreach (model.vwCompanyDetails companyDetail in companyDetailList) { List<model.Product> productList = _dbRiv.Product.Include("Company").Where(a => a.Company.CompanyId == companyDetail.CompanyId).ToList(); } Now that I have a (source) list of products from the feed, and an existing (target) list of products from my prod DB I'd like to do 3 things: Find all SKUs in the feed that are not in the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are active feed products and update the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are inactive and soft delete from the target What are the best practices for doing this without running a double loop? Would prefer a LINQ 4 Objects solution as I already have my objects. EDIT: BTW, I will need to transfer info from feed rows to target rows in the first 2 instances, just set a flag in the last instance. TIA

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  • Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

    - by user643794
    I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

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  • How to exit current activity to homescreen (without using "Home" button)?

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I am sure this will have been answered but I proved unable to find it. So please excuse my redundancy. What I am trying to do is emulating the "Home" button which takes one back to Android's homescreen. So here is what causes me problems: I have 3 launcher activities. The first one (which is connected to the homescreen icon) is just a (password protected) configuration activity. It will not be used by the user (just admin) One of the other 2 (both accessed via an app widget) is a questionnaire app. I'm allowing to jump back between questions via the Back button or a GUI back button as well. When the questionnaire is finished I sum up the answers given and provide a "Finish" button which should take the user back to the home screen. For the questionnaire app I use a single activity (called ItemActivity) which calls itself (is that recursion as well when using intents?) to jump from one question to another: Questionnaire.serializeToXML(); Intent i = new Intent().setClass(c, ItemActivity.class); if(Questionnaire.instance.getCurrentItemNo() == Questionnaire.instance.getAmountOfItems()) { Questionnaire.instance.setCompleted(true); } else Questionnaire.instance.nextItem(); startActivity(i); The final screen shows something like "Thank you for participating" as well as the formerly described button which should take one back to the homescreen. But I don't really get how to exit the Activity properly. I've e.g. used this.finish(); but this strangely brings up the "Thank you" screen again. So how can I just exit by jumping back to the homescreen?? Sorry for the inconvinience. Regards, Steff

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  • Unit testing with Mocks. Test behaviour not implementation

    - by Kenny Eliasson
    Hi.. I always had a problem when unit testing classes that calls other classes, for example I have a class that creates a new user from a phone-number then saves it to the database and sends a SMS to the number provided. Like the code provided below. public class UserRegistrationProcess : IUserRegistration { private readonly IRepository _repository; private readonly ISmsService _smsService; public UserRegistrationProcess(IRepository repository, ISmsService smsService) { _repository = repository; _smsService = smsService; } public void Register(string phone) { var user = new User(phone); _repository.Save(user); _smsService.Send(phone, "Welcome", "Message!"); } } It is a really simple class but how would you go about and test it? At the moment im using Mocks but I dont really like it [Test] public void WhenRegistreringANewUser_TheNewUserIsSavedToTheDatabase() { var repository = new Mock<IRepository>(); var smsService = new Mock<ISmsService>(); var userRegistration = new UserRegistrationProcess(repository.Object, smsService.Object); var phone = "0768524440"; userRegistration.Register(phone); repository.Verify(x => x.Save(It.Is<User>(user => user.Phone == phone)), Times.Once()); } [Test] public void WhenRegistreringANewUser_ItWillSendANewSms() { var repository = new Mock<IRepository>(); var smsService = new Mock<ISmsService>(); var userRegistration = new UserRegistrationProcess(repository.Object, smsService.Object); var phone = "0768524440"; userRegistration.Register(phone); smsService.Verify(x => x.Send(phone, It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>()), Times.Once()); } It feels like I am testing the wrong thing here? Any thoughts on how to make this better?

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  • Delayed_job not executing the perform method but emptying the job queue

    - by James
    I have a fresh rails 3 app, here's my Gemfile: source 'http://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.0.0' gem 'delayed_job' gem 'sqlite3-ruby', :require = 'sqlite3' Here's the class that represents the job that I want to queue: class Me < Struct.new(:something) def perform puts "Hello from me" logger.info "Hello from me" logger.debug "Hello from me" raise Exception.new end end From the console with no workers running: irb(main):002:0> Delayed::Job.enqueue Me.new(1) => #<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11"> Like I mentioned: there are no workers running: irb(main):003:0> Delayed::Job.all => [#<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11">] I start a worker with script/delayed_job run The queue gets emptied: irb(main):006:0> Delayed::Job.all => [] However, nothing happens as a result of the puts, nothing is logged from the logger calls, and no exception is raised. I'd appreciate any help / insight or anything to try.

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  • How to create instances of a class from a static method?

    - by Pierre
    Hello. Here is my problem. I have created a pretty heavy readonly class making many database calls with a static "factory" method. The goal of this method is to avoid killing the database by looking in a pool of already-created objects if an identical instance of the same object (same type, same init parameters) already exists. If something was found, the method will just return it. No problem. But if not, how may I create an instance of the object, in a way that works with inheritance? >>> class A(Object): >>> @classmethod >>> def get_cached_obj(self, some_identifier): >>> # Should do something like `return A(idenfier)`, but in a way that works >>> class B(A): >>> pass >>> A.get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> A().get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> B.get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') >>> B().get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') Thanks.

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Windows service threading call to WCF service

    - by Sam Brinsted
    Hi, I have a windows service that is reading data from a database and then submitting it to a WCF serivce. Once that has finished it is stamping a processed date on the original record. Trouble I am currently having is to do with threading. The call to the WCF serivce is relatively long and I want to have a number of concurrent calls to the service to help improve the throughput of the windows service. Currently I have a submitToService method on a new worker class. Upon reading a new row from the database I am creating a new thread which is calling this method. This obviously isn't too good as the number of threads quickly shoots up and overburdens the WCF service. I have put a thread.sleep in the submit method and am sure to call System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(); after the submission has finished. However, I don't seem to see the number of threads go down. How can I just have a fixed number of threads that can be used in the windows service? I did think about using a thread pool but read somewhere that wasn't a good choice for a windows service. Thanks very much.

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  • Resolve php endless recursion issue

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into an endless recursion situation. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. I'm looking for some kind of queue implementation that will make messages wait for each other.. One where the return values still get set. I'm looking to have as little boilerplate code in class A and class B as possible Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • Unit Testing-- fundamental goal?

    - by David
    Me and my co-workers had a bit of a disagreement last night about unit testing in our PHP/MySQL application. Half of us argued that when unit testing a function within a class, you should mock everything outside of that class and its parents. The other half of us argued that you SHOULDN'T mock anything that is a direct dependancy of the class either. The specific example was our logging mechanism, which happened through a static Logging class, and we had a number of Logging::log() calls in various locations throughout our application. The first half of us said the Logging mechanism should be faked (mocked) because it would be tested in the Logging unit tests. The second half of us argued that we should include the original Logging class in our unit test so that if we make a change to our logging interface, we'll be able to see if it creates problems in other parts of the application due to failing to update the call interface. So I guess the fundamental question is-- do unit tests serve to test the functionality of a single unit in a closed environment, or show the consequences of changes to a single unit in a larger environment? If it's one of these, how do you accomplish the other?

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  • asp.net 4.0 webforms - how to keep ContentPlaceHolder1_ out of client id's in a simple way?

    - by James Manning
    I'm attempting to introduce master pages to an existing webforms site that's avoided using them because of client id mangling in the past (and me not wanting to deal with the mangling and doing <% foo.ClientID % everywhere :) GOAL: use 'static' id values (whatever is in the server control's id attribute) except for data-bound / repeating controls which would break for those cases and therefore need suffixes or whatever to differentiate (basically, Predictable) Now that the site migrated to ASP.NET 4.0, I first attempted to use ClientIDMode of Static (in the web.config) but that broke too many places doing repeating controls (checkboxes inside gridviews, for instance) since they all resulted with the same id. So, I then tried Predictable (again, just in the web.config) so that the repeating controls wouldn't have conflicting id's, and it works well except that the master page content placeholder (which is indeed a naming container) is still reflecting in the resulting client id's (for instance, ContentPlaceHolder1_someCheckbox). Certainly I could leave the web.config setting as static and then go through all the databound/repeating controls switch them to Predictable, but I'm hoping there's some easier/simpler way to get that effect without having to scatter ClientIDMode attributes in those N number of places (or extend all those databound controls with my own usercontrol that just sets clientidmode, or whatever). I even thought of leaving web.config set to static and doing a master or basepage handler (preinit? not sure if that would work or not) that would go walk Controls with OfType<INamingContainer() (might be a better choice on the type, but that seems like a good starting choice looking at repeater and gridview) and then set those to Predictable so I'd get static for all my 'normal' things outside of repeating controls but not have to deal with static inside things like gridview/repeater/etc. I don't see any way to mark the content placeholder such that it 'opts out' of being included in child id's - setting the ID of the placeholder to empty/blank doesn't work as it's a required attribute :) At that point I figured there was a better/simpler way that I was missing and decided to ask on SO :) Edit: I thought about changing all my 'fetch by id' jquery calls from $('#foo') to fetch_by_id('foo') and then having that function return the 'right one' by checking $('#foo').length and then $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_foo').length (and maybe other patterns) or even just have it return $('#foo, #ContentPlaceHolder1_foo') (again, potentially other patterns) but changing all the places I fetch elements by id seemed pretty ugly too, and I'd like to avoid that abstraction layer if possible to do so easily :)

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  • Upgrade .NET 1.1 WinForm/Service to what?

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, We have a current WinForm/Windows Service running in .NET 1.1 out on various customer sites that is getting data from internal systems, transforming it and then calling a Web Service synchronously. This client app will no longer work in Vista or Windows 7 etc.. and its time to update!! I was looking for ideas on what I could do here, I didn't write the App and I have the Business team telling me they want the world but I need to be realistic :) Things the service must be able to do: - Handle multiple formats from internal system and transform to a schema SAP, ERP etc.. - Run silently and just work on customer sites (it does currently albeit .NET 1.1) - The Customers are unable to call our web service from their sites as they are not technical enough. - Upgrade it's self when updates occur (currently don't have this capability) Is there anything I can do here other than upgrade the service to run in .NET and add a few more transformation capabilities e..g they want the customer to be able to give us a flat file, an xml file, a csv and the service transforms it and calls the Web Service? I was hoping in this day and age we could use the Web, but automating this 100% rules it out in my eyes? I could be totally wrong!! Any help would be gratefully appreciated! Cheers. Conor

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  • Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

    - by brainydexter
    I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

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  • Changing a url depending on what link chosen (HTML) no asp.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR I need to change a javascript variable on the same page after clicking a link (can be from a different page) so that the getjson request pulls different data without having to duplicate on html pages. I am using some getJSON requests with Jquery, to make calls to populate my pages. I want to be able to (in plain HTML / javascript) when the user clicks say "link 1" or "link 2" to open the same page (say page.html) but change the get request url to "link 1" or "link 2". Page.html var url = ??; $.getJSON(url, function(data){} link 1 var url = host/link1 <a href="page.html">link1</a> link2 var url = host/link2 <a href="page.html">link2</a> So I call the same page but am able to populate it with different content. Purposely staying away from asp. Was thinking maybe of inserting the content into a div after page load so the url can be set or something along those lines. Any ideas how I might go about this?

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  • Magento Replacing super attributes table with dropdown

    - by thrice801
    Hi, I am trying to replace my magento super attributes table with a drop down menu in place of it, Ive got the menu created but I am struggling to get it to actually use the data from the select dropdown. On submit it calls up function productAddToCartForm, which I feel like if I could modify, I could figure it out. But I have no idea where that function is. My php code looks like the following. <?php if (count($_associatedProducts)): ?> <select name="selectedSku"> <?php foreach ($_associatedProducts as $_item): ?> <?php $prodname = $this->htmlEscape($_item->getName()); $prodprice = $this->htmlEscape($_item->getPrice()); $prodcolor = $_item->getFullColor(); $prodsize = $_item->getTopSize(); $prodcombined = $prodname; $prodcombined .= " / "; $prodcombined .= $prodprice; echo "<option "; echo "value ='"; echo $_item->getId(); echo "'>"; echo $prodcombined; echo "</option>"; ?> <?php endforeach; ?> </select> Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How to implement an interface class using the non-virtual interface idiom in C++?

    - by andreas buykx
    Hi all, In C++ an interface can be implemented by a class with all its methods pure virtual. Such a class could be part of a library to describe what methods an object should implement to be able to work with other classes in the library: class Lib::IFoo { public: virtual void method() = 0; }; : class Lib::Bar { public: void stuff( Lib::IFoo & ); }; Now I want to to use class Lib::Bar, so I have to implement the IFoo interface. For my purposes I need a whole of related classes so I would like to work with a base class that guarantees common behavior using the NVI idiom: class FooBase : public IFoo // implement interface IFoo { public: void method(); // calls methodImpl; private: virtual void methodImpl(); }; The non-virtual interface (NVI) idiom ought to deny derived classes the possibility of overriding the common behavior implemented in FooBase::method(), but since IFoo made it virtual it seems that all derived classes have the opportunity to override the FooBase::method(). If I want to use the NVI idiom, what are my options other than the pImpl idiom already suggested (thanks space-c0wb0y).

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  • Excessive httpd processes to stack up on my Rails + Apache2 + Passenger production setup?

    - by LeoAlmighty
    I have a Rails + Apache2 + Postgres + Passenger application running in production mode in OSX Snow Leopard. The application serves as a data warehouse for another application in the cloud so I'm constantly getting API calls to my OSX production build. After a recent reboot, I'm finding a ton of httpd processes stacking up and eventually requiring an apache reboot. I haven't changed any settings, everything was running fine before. Any ideas on the best way to troubleshoot this? $ ps -ef|grep httpd 0 6203 1 0 0:00.20 ?? 0:00.47 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6222 6203 0 0:00.05 ?? 0:00.11 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6224 6203 0 0:00.31 ?? 0:00.50 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6233 6203 0 0:00.05 ?? 0:00.10 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6234 6203 0 0:00.43 ?? 0:00.64 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6243 6203 0 0:00.02 ?? 0:00.03 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6319 6203 0 0:00.08 ?? 0:00.16 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6334 6203 0 0:00.02 ?? 0:00.05 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6469 6203 0 0:00.04 ?? 0:00.08 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6487 6203 0 0:00.36 ?? 0:00.48 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6593 6203 0 0:00.36 ?? 0:00.48 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6709 6203 0 0:00.04 ?? 0:00.08 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6718 6203 0 0:00.04 ?? 0:00.10 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6834 6203 0 0:00.01 ?? 0:00.03 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6852 6203 0 0:00.00 ?? 0:00.00 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND 70 6853 6203 0 0:00.01 ?? 0:00.02 /usr/sbin/httpd -D FOREGROUND

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • Can I use a keyPath in a predicate?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    For some reason, this didn't work (although the keypath does exist): NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"department.departmentName == %@", departmentName]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *fetchError = nil; NSUInteger count = [moc countForFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&fetchError]; // execution simply stops at this line, with no error or console log Execution just stops at the last line above when asking for the count. I don't get an console log. Also I don't get any kind of exception. The execution just stops. There are no objects in the persistent store yet. So maybe it crashes because of it tries to follow a keypath in a nonexisting object? Does that make sense? The line where GDB stops is this: 0x002a31cb <+0459> test %eax,%eax Previously to that, I see a lot of NSSQLAdapter... calls in the stack trace. There's definitely something wrong. Well, but when I set the Entity to the destination of the key path and then just do something like NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"departmentName == %@", departmentName]; then there is no problem and count simply is 0.

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  • search form in php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

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  • Android, phone call audio stream via wlan

    - by moppel
    I am planning on developing my specific voip app for android. Here's the scenario: when a phone call occurs I want to hear the person who's calling on my local pc speakers and I want to speak to him via my own pc microphone / headset. So I need to send the audio stream of both me and the person I am talking to via the wlan network. Something like this: ... onCallStateChanged(int state, String phoneNumber){ while(state == PhoneListener.CALL_STATE_OFFHOOK){ //while phone call is happaning //send incoming speech via wlan to pc //receive audiostream from pc microphone and direct it to the phone call } } ... Is this possible with the current Android API? (Actually it should be since voip apps are available in the market) I did some research in the Android API and all I found was the AudioManager which has constant named public static final int STREAM_VOICE_CALL; //The audio stream for phone calls But I don't know how to use it our how it should give me access to the actual audiostreams which I can send via network. How do I manage to do this? The connection would be realised by TCP sockets.

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  • jQueryUI Modal confirmation dialog on form submission

    - by DavidYell
    I am trying to get a modal confirmation dialog working when a user submits a form. My approach, I thought logically, would be to catch the form submission. My code is as follows, $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Confirm': function(){ //$(this).dialog('close'); return true; }, 'Cancel': function(){ $(this).dialog('close'); return false; } } }); $('#completeform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var n = $('#completeform input:checked').length; if(n == 0){ alert("Please check the item and mark as complete"); return false; }else{ var q = $('#completeform #qty').html(); if(q > 1){ $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog('open'); } } //return false; }); So I'm setting up my dialog first. This is because I'm pretty certain that the scope of the dialog needs to be at the same level as the function which calls it. However, the issue is that when you click 'Confirm' nothing happens. The submit action does not continue. I've tried $('#completeform').submit(); also, which doesn't seem to work. I have tried removing the .preventDefault() to ensure that the form submission isn't completely cancelled, but it doesn't seem to make a difference between that and returning false. Not checking the box, show and alert fine. Might change to dialog at some point ;), clicking 'Cancel' closes the dialog and remains on the page, but the elusive 'Confirm' buttons seems to not continue with the form submission event. If anyone can help, I'd happily share my lunch with you! ;)

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  • Alignment in assembly

    - by jena
    Hi, I'm spending some time on assembly programming (Gas, in particular) and recently I learned about the align directive. I think I've understood the very basics, but I would like to gain a deeper understanding of its nature and when to use alignment. For instance, I wondered about the assembly code of a simple C++ switch statement. I know that under certain circumstances switch statements are based on jump tables, as in the following few lines of code: .section .rodata .align 4 .align 4 .L8: .long .L2 .long .L3 .long .L4 .long .L5 ... .align 4 aligns the following data on the next 4-byte boundary which ensures that fetching these memory locations is efficient, right? I think this is done because there might be things happening before the switch statement which caused misalignment. But why are there actually two calls to .align? Are there any rules of thumb when to call .align or should it simply be done whenever a new block of data is stored in memory and something prior to this could have caused misalignment? In case of arrays, it seems that alignment is done on 32-byte boundaries as soon as the array occupies at least 32 byte. Is it more efficient to do it this way or is there another reason for the 32-byte boundary? I'd appreciate any explanation or hint on literature.

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  • Webforms vs. MVC. Once you start using MVC.. Do you ever go back to webforms?

    - by punkouter
    I checked out MVC months ago and didn't really get it.. but recently as I have become a better programmer I think it is making sense.. Here is my theory.. tell me if I got it Right In the 90s for Microsoft Devs we had Classic ASP. This mixed VBscript and HTML on the same page. So you needed to create all the HTML yourself and mix HTML and VBScript. This was not considered Ideal. Then .NET came along and everyone liked it because it was similiar to event driven VB 6 style programming. It created this abstraction of binding data to ASP Servier controls. It made getting Enumerated data easy to get on the screen with one line. Then recently Jquery and SOA concepts are mixed together.. Now people think.. Why create this extra layer of abstraction when I can just directly use .NET as a data provider and use jquery AJAX calls to get the data and create the HTML with it directly .. no need for the Webforms abstraction layer.. Sowe are back to creating HTML directly like we did in 1999. So MVC is all about saying Stop pretending like WEb programming is a VB6 app! Generate HTML directly! Am I missing anything? So I wonder.. for you people out there using MVC... is it the sort of things that once you get used to it you never want to go back to webforms??

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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