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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• Bad idea to have the same object, have a different side effect after method call.

  - by Nathan W

  Hi all, I'm having a bit of a gesign issue(again). Say I have this Buttonpad object: now this object is a wrapper object over one in a com object. At the moment it has a method on it called CreateInto(IComObject). Now to make a new button pad in the Com Object. You do: ButtonPad pad = new ButtonPad(); pad.Title = "Hello"; // Set some more properties. pad.CreateInto(Cominstance); The createinfo method will excute the right commands to buid the button pad in the com object. After it has been created it any calls against it are foward to the underlying object for change so: pad.Title = "New title"; will call the com object to set the title and also set the internal title variable. Basically any calls before the CreateInfo method only affect the .NET object anything after has the side effect of calling the com object also. I'm not very good at sequence diagrams but here is my attempt to explain whats going on: This doesn't feel good to me, it feels like I'm lying to the user about what the button pad does. I was going to have a object called WrappedButtonPad, which is returned from CreateInto and the user could make calls against that to make changes to the Com Object, but I feel having two objects that almost do the same thing but only differ by names might be even worse. Are these valid designs, or am I right to be worried? How else would you handle a object the can create and query a com object?

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• Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

  - by JeffH

  I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

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• IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

  - by Keith

  I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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• Java generics question with wildcards

  - by Sean

  Just came across a place where I'd like to use generics and I'm not sure how to make it work the way I want. I have a method in my data layer that does a query and returns a list of objects. Here's the signature. public List getList(Class cls, Map query) This is what I'd like the calling code to look like. List<Whatever> list = getList(WhateverImpl.class, query); I'd like to make it so that I don't have to cast this to a List coming out, which leads me to this. public <T> List<T> getList(Class<T> cls, Map query) But now I have the problem that what I get out is always the concrete List<WhateverImpl> passed in whereas I'd like it to be the Whatever interface. I tried to use the super keyword but couldn't figure it out. Any generics gurus out there know how this can be done?

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• How to Prevent PostBack Event Handler from Firing

  - by user331744

  I have a custom class (ServerSideValidator.vb) that validates user input on server side (it doesn't use any of the .NET built in validators, therefore Page.Validate() is not an option for me). I am calling the Validate() method on page.IsPostback event and the class performs without any problem My issue is, when validation fails (returns false), I want to stop the postback event handler from firing, but load the page along with all the controls and user-input values in them. If I do, Response.End(), the page comes up blank. I can programmatically instruct the page to go to the previous page (original form before postback), but it loses all user-inputs. I thought of creating a global boolean variable in the page code behind file and check the value before performing any postback method, but this approach takes away from my plan to provide all functionalities inside the class itself. The page object is being referenced to ServerSideValidator. Seems like all the postback related properties/variables I come across inside Page class are 'Readonly' and I can't assign value(s) to control/prevent postback event from firing. Any idiea on how I can accomplish this? Please let me know if you need further details

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• How to reload a tableView i.e call the viewDidLoad method if a condition is met

  - by Kquane Ingram

  The problem is this i need a way to basically erase all the entry data a user placed into my arrays if a condition is met. Im new to Objective-C and iOS programming, but i believed the solution might be in calling the viewDidLoad method, thus it would virtually refresh the applications with the values of the array reset to default. If there is any other logical way of doing this i would appreciate the help. In short i need to refresh the arrays as they were when the application first launched and the user did not select anything. This is the part where i need it to refresh. if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must begin anew. Edit* I need to recall the - (void)viewDidLoad method here is more of the code. -(IBAction)button:(id)sender{ int i = 0; int sum = 0; int gradeEarned; int creditHours = 3; for ( i=0;i<8 ; i++) { if ([[points objectAtIndex:i] tag]==GradeA.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeB.intValue) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; } if ([[points objectAtIndex:i]tag]==GradeC.intValue){ [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i]==nil) { break; // if this condition is met the program must restart. } } while ( i<[gradeRecieved count]) { if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeA ) { [finArray replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeA]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeB ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeB]; i++; continue; } if ([gradeRecieved objectAtIndex:i] == GradeC ) { [gradeRecieved replaceObjectAtIndex:i withObject:GradeC]; i++; continue; } }

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• how to handle empty selection in a jface bound combobox?

  - by guido

  I am developing a search dialog in my eclipse-rcp application. In the search dialog I have a combobox as follows: comboImp = new CCombo(grpColSpet, SWT.BORDER | SWT.READ_ONLY); comboImp.setBounds(556, 46, 184, 27); comboImpViewer = new ComboViewer(comboImp); comboImpViewer.setContentProvider(new ArrayContentProvider()); comboImpViewer.setInput(ImpContentProvider.getInstance().getImps()); comboImpViewer.setLabelProvider(new LabelProvider() { @Override public String getText(Object element) { return ((Imp)element).getImpName(); } }); Imp is a database entity, ManyToOne to the main entity which is searched, and ImpContentProvider is the model class which speaks to embedded sqlite database via jpa/hibernate. This combobox is supposed to contain all instances of Imp, but to also let empty selection; it's value is bound to a service bean as follows: IObservableValue comboImpSelectionObserveWidget = ViewersObservables.observeSingleSelection(comboImpViewer); IObservableValue filterByImpObserveValue = BeansObservables.observeValue(searchPrep, "imp"); bindingContext.bindValue(comboImpSelectionObserveWidget, filterByImpObserveValue , null, null); As soon as the user clicks on the combo, a selection (first element) is made: I can see the call to a selectionlistener i added on the viewer. My question is: after a selection has been made, how do I let the user change his mind and have an empty selection in the combobox? should I add a "fake" empty instance of Imp to the List returned by the ImpContentProvider? or should I implement an alternative to ArrayContentProvider? and one additional related question is: why calling deselectAll() and clearSelection() on the combo does NOT set a null value to the bound bean?

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• Android - BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray - OutOfMemoryError (OOM)

  - by Bob Keathley

  I have read 100s of article about the OOM problem. Most are in regard to large bitmaps. I am doing a mapping application where we download 256x256 weather overlay tiles. Most are totally transparent and very small. I just got a crash on a bitmap stream that was 442 Bytes long while calling BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(....). The Exception states: java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget(Heap Size=9415KB, Allocated=5192KB, Bitmap Size=23671KB) The code is: protected Bitmap retrieveImageData() throws IOException { URL url = new URL(imageUrl); InputStream in = null; OutputStream out = null; HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); // determine the image size and allocate a buffer int fileSize = connection.getContentLength(); if (fileSize < 0) { return null; } byte[] imageData = new byte[fileSize]; // download the file //Log.d(LOG_TAG, "fetching image " + imageUrl + " (" + fileSize + ")"); BufferedInputStream istream = new BufferedInputStream(connection.getInputStream()); int bytesRead = 0; int offset = 0; while (bytesRead != -1 && offset < fileSize) { bytesRead = istream.read(imageData, offset, fileSize - offset); offset += bytesRead; } // clean up istream.close(); connection.disconnect(); Bitmap bitmap = null; try { bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(imageData, 0, bytesRead); } catch (OutOfMemoryError e) { Log.e("Map", "Tile Loader (241) Out Of Memory Error " + e.getLocalizedMessage()); System.gc(); } return bitmap; } Here is what I see in the debugger: bytesRead = 442 So the Bitmap data is 442 Bytes. Why would it be trying to create a 23671KB Bitmap and running out of memory?

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• Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

  - by NeilD

  Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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• problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

  - by Ted

  I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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• What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

  - by nopopem

  I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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• In MySql Stored Procedure updating more than one time

  - by Both FM

  In MySql UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=92 AND `ItemID`=28; It successfully update only one row , where inventoryID = 92 and itemID=28 , the following message displayed. 1 row(s) affected when I put this on stored procedure, as follow CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `Sample`(IN itemId INT, IN itemQnty DOUBLE, IN invID INT) BEGIN DECLARE crntQnty DOUBLE; DECLARE nwQnty DOUBLE; SET crntQnty=(SELECT `QuantityOnHand` FROM `item` WHERE id=itemId); SET nwQnty=itemQnty+crntQnty; UPDATE `item` SET `QuantityOnHand`=nwQnty WHERE `Id`=itemId; UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=invID AND `ItemID`=itemId; END$$ calling stored procedures CALL Sample(28,10,92) It update all the status = 1 in inventoryentry against InventoryID (i.e. 92) ignoring ItemID, instead of updating only one row. The following message displayed! 5 row(s) affected Why Stored procedure ignoring itemID in update statement ? or Why Stored procedure updating more than one time? But without Stored procedure it working fine.

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• Consuming PHP webservice with .Net C#, error with array

  - by Faber

  I've a problem calling a PHP Web Service from .Net application. This is the XML response and I think there is a problem with the return node <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:infoprodottoResponse xmlns:ns1="http://wan3.edc.it"> <result xsi:type="SOAP-ENC:Array" SOAP-ENC:arrayType=":[0]"></result> <error xsi:type="xsd:string">8u9lvDe3RBiGuXyL9lvM2tODlRMtcN77ya3S2LDEWEetBeRz/k4mXkK4hSqpgZOKilHYXgycj6Jtu8iBTfR1FQ==</error> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">5o58H00T96AWedhG1tnSc4xR+yXg7PQfQzXYVpri2AY=</token> </ns1:infoprodottoResponse> </SOAP-ENV:Body> In result node the SOAP-ENC:arrayType attribute hasn't declared the array type. The array type must be declare if the SOAP-ENC:arrayType is present, isn't it? It must be declared also if the array is empty?

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• SIFR, JAVASCRIPT & PHP - How to apply SIFR to dynamically loaded content.

  - by user311039

  Well here's the problem: I have a PHP index page which uses show/hide layers javascript. I am using the on menu.click function to show and hide content relevant to each menu. On.click all divs are hidden except the content for that menu item , which fades in. The content relating to each menu item are displayed within separate DIVS. The property is applied to all the text within all the divs. See: http://jobe-group.com/jobeco/uk/2010live/dynamic/content/index.php# The trouble is that SIFR only appears to be applied to the displayed on.load when the page is first loaded. When this is hidden and the other s shown through the "show" function they load in classic CSS fonts without the SIFR applied. Is this unavoidable with the SIFR setup. Or am I not calling the divs properly. I have set the SIFR to apply to the selector and indeed it works fine on the for the displayed on load. It doesn't work for the within other . In theory I would think its possible to load the SIFR on all divs on page.load even if those divs are presently visibility:hidden. What's the verdict on this? Hope someone can help. Cheers, John

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• C++ Template Class Constructor with Variable Arguments

  - by david

  Is it possible to create a template function that takes a variable number of arguments, for example, in this Vector< T, C class constructor: template < typename T, uint C > Vector< T, C >::Vector( T, ... ) { assert( C > 0 ); va_list arg_list; va_start( arg_list, C ); for( uint i = 0; i < C; i++ ) { m_data[ i ] = va_arg( arg_list, T ); } va_end( arg_list ); } This almost works, but if someone calls Vector< double, 3 ( 1, 1, 1 ), only the first argument has the correct value. I suspect that the first parameter is correct because it is cast to a double during the function call, and that the others are interpreted as ints and then the bits are stuffed into a double. Calling Vector< double, 3 ( 1.0, 1.0, 1.0 ) gives the desired results. Is there a preferred way to do something like this?

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• Will this web service accept both raw xml and an object?

  - by ChadNC

  We have a web service that provides auto insurance quotes and a company that provides an insurance agency management system would like to use the web service for thier client but they want to pass the web service raw xml instead of using the wsdl to create a port, the object the service expects and calling the web method. The web service has performed flawlessly by creating an object like so com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote service = new com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote(); com.insurance.quotesvc.QuotePortType port = service.getQuotePortType(); com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.request.ACORD parameter = null; Then create initialize the request object with the other objects that make up the response. parameter = factory.createACORD(); parameter.setSignonRq(signOn); parameter.setInsurancesSvcRq(svcRq); And send the request to the web service. com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.response.ACORD result = null; result = port.requestQuote(parameter); By doing that I am able to easily marshall the request and the result into an xml file and do with them as I wish. So if a client was to send the web service via an http post as raw xml inside of a soap envelope. Would the web service be able to handle the xml without any changes being made to the web service or would there need to be changes made to the web service in order for it to handle a request of that type? The web service is a JAX_WS and we currently have both Java and C# clients consuming the web service using the method described above but now there is another client who wants to send raw xml inside of a soap envelope instead of creating the objects. I feel pretty sure that they will be making the call to the web service using vb. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but it is eluding me at the moment and any help is greatly appreciated.

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• odd url, and difficulty in following the php page flow

  - by sdfor

  I'm trying to understand code that I bought so I can modify it. In the index.php there are picture links: <a href="test10,10"><img title="" border=1 src="makethumb.php?pic=product_images/test101.jpg&amp;w=121&amp;sq=N" / ></a> I don't understand the href since it is not pointing to a page. test10 is an id of a picture. I assumed it was going back to the index.php and the code would extract the test10,10 from the url, but it's not. I know that because I put in trace code as the first line. The question is, where is the link going to? I know it that it somewhere in the process it executes a page called profile.php, but nowhere in the source code (doing a global search) is there an explicit call to profile.php. As a related question, is there a way to profile the code to see what pages it's calling without using xdebug, which for the life of me I can't get working after many hours of trying every suggestion I found here and else where. (I'm using xampp) thanks

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• Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

  - by Elliott Darfink

  I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

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• Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

  - by byte

  This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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• Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

  - by Scott B

  I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

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• Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method

  - by Darxval

  So i am trying to call this function in my javascript but it gives me the error of "Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method" and i cant figure out why. It is occuring when trying to call hmacObj.getHMAC. This is from the jsSHA website: http://jssha.sourceforge.net/ to use the hmac-sha1 algorithm encryption. Thank you! hmacObj = new jsSHA(signature_base_string,"HEX"); signature = hmacObj.getHMAC("hgkghk","HEX","SHA-1","HEX"); Above this i have copied the code from sha.js snippet: function jsSHA(srcString, inputFormat) { /* * Configurable variables. Defaults typically work */ jsSHA.charSize = 8; // Number of Bits Per character (8 for ASCII, 16 for Unicode) jsSHA.b64pad = ""; // base-64 pad character. "=" for strict RFC compliance jsSHA.hexCase = 0; // hex output format. 0 - lowercase; 1 - uppercase var sha1 = null; var sha224 = null; The function it is calling (inside of the jsSHA function) (snippet) this.getHMAC = function (key, inputFormat, variant, outputFormat) { var formatFunc = null; var keyToUse = null; var blockByteSize = null; var blockBitSize = null; var keyWithIPad = []; var keyWithOPad = []; var lastArrayIndex = null; var retVal = null; var keyBinLen = null; var hashBitSize = null; // Validate the output format selection switch (outputFormat) { case "HEX": formatFunc = binb2hex; break; case "B64": formatFunc = binb2b64; break; default: return "FORMAT NOT RECOGNIZED"; }

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• CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

  - by Sebhael

  I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

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• Clarification on Threads and Run Loops In Cocoa

  - by dubbeat

  I'm trying to learn about threading and I'm thoroughly confused. I'm sure all the answers are there in the apple docs but I just found it really hard to breakdown and digest. Maybe somebody could clear a thing or 2 up for me. 1)performSelectorOnMainThread Does the above simply register an event in the main run loop or is it somehow a new thread even though the method says "mainThread"? If the purpose of threads is to relieve processing on the main thread how does this help? 2) RunLoops Is it true that if I want to create a completely seperate thread I use "detachNewThreadSelector"? Does calling start on this initiate a default run loop for the thread that has been created? If so where do run loops come into it? 3) And Finally , I've seen examples using NSOperationQueue. Is it true to say that If you use performSelectorOnMainThread the threads are in a queue anyway so NSOperation is not needed? 4) Should I forget about all of this and just use the Grand Central Dispatch instead?

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• Implement a threading to prevent UI block on a bug in an async function

  - by Marcx

  I think I ran up againt a bug in an async function... Precisely the getDirectoryListingAsync() of the File class... This method is supposted to return an object containing the lists of files in a specified folder. I found that calling this method on a direcory with a lot of files (in my tests more than 20k files), after few seconds there is a block on the UI until the process is completed... I think that this method is separated in two main block: 1) get the list of files 2) create the array with the details of the files The point 1 seems to be async (for a few second the ui is responsive), then when the process pass from point 1 to point 2 the block of the UI occurs until the complete event is dispathed... Here's some (simple) code: private function checkFiles(dir:File):void { if (dir.exists) { dir.addEventListener( FileListEvent.DIRECTORY_LISTING, listaImmaginiLocale); dir.getDirectoryListingAsync(); // after this point, for the firsts seconds the UI respond well (point 1), // few seconds later (point 2) the UI is frozen } } private function listaImmaginiLocale( event:FileListEvent ):void { // from this point on the UI is responsive again... } Actually in my projects there are some function that perform an heavy cpu usage and to prevent the UI block I implemented a simple function that after some iteration will wait giving time to UI to be refreshed. private var maxIteration:int = 150000; private function sampleFunct(offset:int = 0) :void { if (offset < maxIteration) { // do something // call the recursive function using a timeout.. // if the offset in multiple by 1000 the function will wait 15 millisec, // otherwise it will be called immediately // 1000 is a random number for the pourpose of this example, but I usually change the // value based on how much heavy is the function itself... setTimeout(function():void{aaa(++offset);}, (offset%1000?15:0)); } } Using this method I got a good responsive UI without afflicting performance... I'd like to implement it into the getDirectoryListingAsync method but I don't know if it's possibile how can I do it where is the file to edit or extend.. Any suggestion???

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