Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 231/278 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

  • [android] setting wallpaper through code

    - by Javadid
    hi Friends, I was trying to make an app which also had the facility to let user select wallpaper he would like to set. I have managed this by calling the Gallery Intent. Once the user selects a specific image, the data path of the image is returned to me which then i preview to the user by setting the image onto an imageview. The problem crops up when the image size (and/or resolution) is greater than what android expects. This results in failure of my module. And as if this was not enough, wen the user tries to select some other wallpaper(and in my test case the "other" wallpaper was also of size 700kb) then the app crashes with the "OutOfMemoryException"... Helppp me here guys!!! For Gallery Intent i use: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setType("image/*"); intent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_GET_CONTENT); startActivityForResult(Intent.createChooser(intent, "Select Picture"),SELECT_IMAGE); For setting the wallpaper i use: InputStream is = getContentResolver().openInputStream(Uri.parse(uri_returned_from_intent)); Bitmap bgImage = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(is);//OutOfMemory error thrown here setWallpaper(bgImage); So i have 2 problems to deal with: How to crop the image before setting it as wallpaper... Cant understand y OutOfMemoryException is thrown, coz none of my image sizes exceed even 1mb... and i guess the VM budget in case Of N1 is 24Mb if m not mistaken...

    Read the article

  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

    Read the article

  • Flex component setActualSize

    - by dlots
    I am a little confused about the setActualSize method. It appears from what I've read, that if it is not called on a component by its parent, the component will not be rendered. So it appears that setActualSize is a critical method that is directly bound to rendering the UIComponent. It also appears that the width and height properties of UIComponent override the functionality of the width and height properties of flash.display.DisplayObject, in that they are not directly bound to the rendering of the object but are virtual values that are mainly used by the getExplicitOrMeasured when the parent of the component calls the component's setActualSize method. So the question are: 1) Why isn't the default behavior of every component to just call setActualSize(getExplicitOrMeasuredWidth(),getExplicitOrMeasuredHeight()) on itself? 2) I guess this question stems from the above question and the behavior as I understand it as described above: does setActualSize change the visibility of the component? It appears that that the behavior is that a component is not rendered until setActualSize is called, but if it contains display object children itself (expected behavior as it can calculate measure on itself) and is added to the display list, the only reason why flash isn't rendering it, is because its not visible. 3) Relating to question #1, does updateDisplayList of UIComponent have a method that goes through its children calling setActualSize on each of them?

    Read the article

  • The best way to write a jQuery plugin - If there is such a way?

    - by Nick Lowman
    There are quite a few ways to write plugins i.e. here's a nice example and what I've seen quite a lot of lately is the following code pattern and it's used by Doug Neiner here; (function($){ $.formatLink = function(el, options){ var base = this; base.$el = $(el); base.el = el; base.$el.data("formatLink", base); base.init = function(){ base.options = $.extend({}, $.formatLink.defaultOptions, options); //code here } base.init(); }; $.formatLink.defaultOptions = { }; $.fn.formatLink = function(options){ return this.each(function(){ (new $.formatLink(this, options)); }); }; })(jQuery); So, can anyone tell me the benefits of using the pattern above rather than the one below. I can't see the point in calling the $.extend function for every element in the jQuery stack (above), where the example below only does this once and then works on the stack. To test it I created two plugins, using both patterns, which applied styles to about 5000 li elements and the code below took about 1 second whereas the pattern above took about 1.3 seconds. (function($){ $.fn.formatLink = function(options){ var options = $.extend({}, $.fn.formatLink.defaultOptions, options || {}); return this.each(function(){ //code here }); }); $.fn.formatLink.defaultOptions ={} })(jQuery);

    Read the article

  • Will this web service accept both raw xml and an object?

    - by ChadNC
    We have a web service that provides auto insurance quotes and a company that provides an insurance agency management system would like to use the web service for thier client but they want to pass the web service raw xml instead of using the wsdl to create a port, the object the service expects and calling the web method. The web service has performed flawlessly by creating an object like so com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote service = new com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote(); com.insurance.quotesvc.QuotePortType port = service.getQuotePortType(); com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.request.ACORD parameter = null; Then create initialize the request object with the other objects that make up the response. parameter = factory.createACORD(); parameter.setSignonRq(signOn); parameter.setInsurancesSvcRq(svcRq); And send the request to the web service. com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.response.ACORD result = null; result = port.requestQuote(parameter); By doing that I am able to easily marshall the request and the result into an xml file and do with them as I wish. So if a client was to send the web service via an http post as raw xml inside of a soap envelope. Would the web service be able to handle the xml without any changes being made to the web service or would there need to be changes made to the web service in order for it to handle a request of that type? The web service is a JAX_WS and we currently have both Java and C# clients consuming the web service using the method described above but now there is another client who wants to send raw xml inside of a soap envelope instead of creating the objects. I feel pretty sure that they will be making the call to the web service using vb. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but it is eluding me at the moment and any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to specify generic method type parameters partly

    - by DNNX
    I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

    Read the article

  • How to call stored procedure by hibernate?

    - by user367097
    Hi I have an oracle stored procedure GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(DOCUMENT_ID IN NUMBER , NOT_INVITED OUT NUMBER,INVITE_WITHDRAWN OUT NUMBER,... rest all parameters are OUT parameters. In hbm file I have written - <sql-query name="getVendorStatus" callable="true"> <return-scalar column="NOT_INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITE_WITHDRAWN" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="DISQUALIFIED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_AWAITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_RECEIVED" type="string"/> { call GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(:DOCUMENT_ID , :NOT_INVITED ,:INVITE_WITHDRAWN ,:INVITED ,:DISQUALIFIED ,:RESPONSE_AWAITED ,:RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS ,:RESPONSE_RECEIVED ) } </sql-query> In java I have written - session.getNamedQuery("getVendorStatus").setParameter("DOCUMENT_ID", "DOCUMENT_ID").setParameter("NOT_INVITED", "NOT_INVITED") ... continue till all the parametes . I am getting the sql exception 18:29:33,056 WARN [JDBCExceptionReporter] SQL Error: 1006, SQLState: 72000 18:29:33,056 ERROR [JDBCExceptionReporter] ORA-01006: bind variable does not exist Please let me know what is the exact process of calling a stored procedure from hibernate. I do not want to use JDBC callable statement.

    Read the article

  • Adding to page control collection from inside a user control

    - by Zarigani
    I have an asp.net usercontrol which represents a "popup" dialog. Basically, it's a wrapper for the jQuery UI dialog which can be subclassed to easily make dialogs. As part of this control, I need to inject a div into the page the control is used on, either at the very top or very bottom of the form so that when the popup is instantiated, it's parent is changed to this div. This allows "nested" popups without the child popup being trapped inside the parent popup. The trouble is, I can't find a safe way to inject this div into the page. A usercontrol doesn't have a preinit event, so I can't do it there, and calling Page.Form.Controls.Add(...) in Init, Load or PreRender causes the standard exception "The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases." I thought I had found a solution by using... ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, Me.GetType, UniqueID + "_Dialog_Div", containerDiv, False) ... which seemed to work well normally, but recently a coworker tried putting an UpdatePanel inside the dialog and now she's getting the error "The script tag registered for type 'ASP.controls_order_viewzips_ascx' and key 'ctl00$ContentBody$OViewZips_Dialog_Div' has invalid characters outside of the script tags: . Only properly formatted script tags can be registered." How are you supposed to add controls to the pages control collection from inside a user control?

    Read the article

  • .NET Application with SQL Server CE Database

    - by blu
    I just started using SQL Server CE 3.5 in my WinForms Application (C# in VS 2008 SP1). I've noticed a couple of interesting things I'd like some input on: 1. Copying of sdf file to bin My sdf file is located inside of an Infrastructure project that houses my repository implementations. When the application is first debugged the sdf was copied to debug\bin. This is where all future reads/writes operate. At some point when this is deployed the file will go into a data folder using Click Once, but during development where should I be putting this sdf? Is having it in the bin typical, or are there any other recommendations? 2. Updating sdf It appears that writing to the sdf file does not immediately update the database. I am using Linq-to-SQL and am calling SubmitChanges, but on read the values are not returned. However if I close the application and re-open it the added value is there. Is there an additional flush step I need to take? What is causing this, file locking, buffering, something else? Update 3. Unit Tests I have an MS test project, and the sdf file is not being copied to the correct output directory. I have the settings: Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy Always The message is: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException: The database file cannot be found. Check the path to the database. I appreciate any guidance on these questions, thanks. If there is a tutorial other than what is on MSDN that you know about that would be great too. Working with CE is proving to be a difficult task and I welcome any help I can find.

    Read the article

  • How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

    - by Chris
    I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • TabBar as rootController flip animation.

    - by user558076
    Hi there, I'm using a TabBarController as the root controller for my app. I have all the views I use (5 tabs) all hooked together through it in interface builder. What I'm trying to do is trigger a slide or flip animation when moving between tabs. However, I only want this to occur when I change tabs programmatically (ie the animation is triggered when someone does a swipe gesture in the one of the views, but not when they just select one of the tabs). The way I'm currently handling this is by calling: [appDelegate.myTab setSelectedIndex:0]; when the iphone detects a swipe. I've been searching the internet for 5 straight hours and can't seem to find a way to add an animation here. It'd be really cool if there were something like: [appDelegate.myTab setSelectedIndex:0 animated:(YES)]; However, there isn't... I can't imagine no one's ever tried this before, but for the life of me, I can't find anything online that explains how this can be done. Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to get timestamp of tick precision in .NET / C#?

    - by Hermann
    Up until now I used DateTime.Now for getting timestamps, but I noticed that if you print DateTime.Now in a loop you will see that it increments in descrete jumps of approx. 15 ms. But for certain scenarios in my application I need to get the most accurate timestamp possible, preferably with tick (=100 ns) precision. Any ideas? Update: Apparently, StopWatch / QueryPerformanceCounter is the way to go, but it can only be used to measure time, so I was thinking about calling DateTime.Now when the application starts up and then just have StopWatch run and then just add the elapsed time from StopWatch to the initial value returned from DateTime.Now. At least that should give me accurate relative timestamps, right? What do you think about that (hack)? NOTE: StopWatch.ElapsedTicks is different from StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks! I used the former assuming 1 tick = 100 ns, but in this case 1 tick = 1 / StopWatch.Frequency. So to get ticks equivalent to DateTime use StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks. I just learned this the hard way. NOTE 2: Using the StopWatch approach, I noticed it gets out of sync with the real time. After about 10 hours, it was ahead by 5 seconds. So I guess one would have to resync it every X or so where X could be 1 hour, 30 min, 15 min, etc. I am not sure what the optimal timespan for resyncing would be since every resync will change the offset which can be up to 20 ms.

    Read the article

  • Objective C: Function returning correct data for the first time of call and null for other times

    - by Kooshal Bhungy
    Hi all, Am a beginner in objective C, i am implementing a function that would query a web server and display the returning string in console. I am calling the function (getDatafromServer) repeatedly in a loop. The problem is that the first time am getting the value whereas the other times, it returns me a (null) in console... I've searched about memory management and check out on the forums but none have worked. Can you please guys tell me where am wrong in the codes below? Thanks in advance.... @implementation RequestThread +(void)startthread:(id)param{ while (true) { //NSLog(@"Test threads"); sleep(5); NSLog(@"%@",[self getDatafromServer]); } } +(NSString *) getDatafromServer{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *myRequestString = @"name=Hello%20&[email protected]"; NSData *myRequestData = [NSData dataWithBytes:[myRequestString UTF8String] length:[myRequestString length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://192.168.1.32/gs/includes/widget/getcalls.php?user=asdasd&passw=asdasdasd"]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody: myRequestData]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *myString = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[returnData bytes]]; [myRequestString release]; [request release]; [returnData release]; return myString; [pool release]; } @end

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

    - by Sebhael
    I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Multiple plugin instance loading with MEF

    - by Dave
    In my last application, using MEF to load plugins went just fine, but now I'm running into a new issue. I have a solution for it that I explain at the end of this question, but I'm looking for other ways to do it. Let's say I have an interface called ApplianceInterface. I also have two plugins that inherit from ApplianceInterface, let's call them Blender and Processor. Now, I would like to have multiple Blenders and Processors in my application, but I am not sure how to instantiate them properly. Before, I would simply use the ImportMany attribute and upon calling ComposeParts, my application would load Blender and Processor. For example: [ImportMany(typeof(ApplianceInterface))] private IEnumerable<ApplianceInterface> Appliances { get; set; } and my Blender and Processor plugins would be attributed like this: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(typeof(MyInterface)] public class Blender : ApplianceInterface { ... } but what this ends up doing for me is populating Appliances with one Blender and one Processor. I need to be able to create an arbitrary number of Blender and Processor objects. Now, from the documentation I understand that [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] is what allows MEF to create a new instance each time, but is there a similar "magical" way to create a specific number of instances of something using MEF? Up until now, I've relied on [Import] and [ImportMany] to resolve the assemblies. Is my only option to use a global container, and then resolve the export manually using GetExportedValue<? I have tried GetExportedValue< and that implementation does work fine for me, but I was just curious if there is a better, more accepted way to do it.

    Read the article

  • BufferedImage.getGraphics() resulting in memory leak, is there a fix?

    - by user359202
    Hi friends, I'm having problem with some framework API calling BufferedImage.getGraphics() method and thus causing memory leak. What this method does is that it always calls BufferedImage.createGraphics(). On a windows machine, createGraphics() is handled by Win32GraphicsEnvironment which keeps a listeners list inside its field displayChanger. When I call getGraphics on my BufferedImage someChart, someChart's SurfaceManager(which retains a reference to someChart) is added to the listeners map in Win32GraphicsEnvironment, preventing someChart to be garbage collected. Nothing afterwards removes someChart's SurfaceManager from the listeners map. In general, the summarized path stopping a BufferedImage from being garbage collected, once getGraphics is called, is as follows: GC Root - localGraphicsEnvironment(Win32GraphicsEnvironment) - displayChanger(SunDisplayChanger) - listeners(Map) - key(D3DChachingSurfaceManager) - bImg(BufferedImage) I could have changed the framework's code so that after every called to BufferedImage.getGraphics(), I keep a reference to the BufferedImage's SurfaceManager. Then, I get hold of localGraphicsEnvironment, cast it to Win32GraphicsEnvironment, then call removeDisplayChangedListener() using the reference to the BufferedImage's SurfaceManager. But I don't think this is a proper way to solve the problem. Could someone please help me with this issue? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • FLEX, how to specify parent html item, when I call external functions ?

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm calling a javascript function from my flex application to set width and height of my html wrapper according to application size. However, I've many flex applications on my page and the wrappers have not id attribute. I'm using a unique javascript function and passing it the parameters. How could I specify the "parent" html element in these parameters ? Following is the code: Actionscript: if (ExternalInterface.available) ExternalInterface.call("changeSize",id, width, height); Javascript: <script type="text/JavaScript"> function changeSize(id, width, height) { console.log(id); console.log(width); console.log(height); } Wrapper: <div class="filefield-file clear-block"> <div class="filefield-icon field-icon-video-x-flv"> <img class="field-icon-video-x-flv" alt="video/x-flv icon" src="http://localhost/drupal/sites/all/modules/filefield/icons/protocons/16x16/mimetypes/video-x-generic.png"></div> <div style="background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255); width: 400px;"> <embed style="display: block;" src="/drupal/videoPlayer.swf?file=http://localhost/drupal/sites/default/files/files/projects/Project3/videos/9565274.flv" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" bgcolor="#ffffff" allowfullscreen="true" autoplay="true" flashvars="file=http://localhost/drupal/sites/default/files/files/projects/Project3/videos/9565274.flv" height="400" width="400"> <div>Scheduling Video</div> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

    Read the article

  • Get Object from memory using memory adresse

    - by Hamza Karmouda
    I want to know how to get an Object from memory, in my case a MediaRecorder. Here's my class: Mymic class: public class MyMic { MediaRecorder recorder2; File file; private Context c; public MyMic(Context context){ this.c=context; } private void stopRecord() throws IOException { recorder2.stop(); recorder2.reset(); recorder2.release(); } private void startRecord() { recorder2= new MediaRecorder(); recorder2.setAudioSource(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC); recorder2.setOutputFormat(MediaRecorder.OutputFormat.THREE_GPP); recorder2.setAudioEncoder(MediaRecorder.AudioEncoder.AMR_NB); recorder2.setOutputFile(file.getPath()); try { recorder2.prepare(); recorder2.start(); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } my Receiver Class: public class MyReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { private Context c; private MyMic myMic; @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { this.c=context; myMic = new MyMic(c); if(my condition = true){ myMic.startRecord(); }else myMic.stopRecord(); } } So when I'm calling startRecord() it create a new MediaRecorder but when i instantiate my class a second time i can't retrieve my Object. Can i retrieve my MediaRecorder with his addresse

    Read the article

  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

    Read the article

  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

    Read the article

  • uploading database file in assets not returning a record

    - by Alexander
    I have a problem with a database file not being read I have added the database file in assets called mydb but when i run my code it says its not being located. It is calling this toast Toast.makeText(this, "No contact found", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); This is being called because no records are being returned. This is an example form Android Application Development book. public class DatabaseActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ TextView quest, response1, response2; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); TextView quest = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.quest); try { String destPath = "/data/data/" + getPackageName() + "/databases/MyDB"; File f = new File(destPath); if (!f.exists()) { CopyDB( getBaseContext().getAssets().open("mydb"), new FileOutputStream(destPath)); } } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } DBAdapter db = new DBAdapter(this); //---get a contact--- db.open(); Cursor c = db.getContact(2); if (c.moveToFirst()) DisplayContact(c); else Toast.makeText(this, "No contact found", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); db.close(); } public void CopyDB(InputStream inputStream, OutputStream outputStream) throws IOException { //---copy 1K bytes at a time--- byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = inputStream.read(buffer)) > 0) { outputStream.write(buffer, 0, length); } inputStream.close(); outputStream.close(); } public void DisplayContact(Cursor c) { quest.setText(String.valueOf(c.getString(1))); //quest.setText(String.valueOf("this is a text string")); } }

    Read the article

  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

    Read the article

  • How do I set up the python/c library correctly?

    - by Bartvbl
    I have been trying to get the python/c library to like my mingW compiler. The python online doncumentation; http://docs.python.org/c-api/intro.html#include-files only mentions that I need to import the python.h file. I grabbed it from the installation directory (as is required on the windows platform), and tested it by compiling the script: #include "Python.h". This compiled fine. Next, I tried out the snippet of code shown a bit lower on the python/c API page: PyObject *t; t = PyTuple_New(3); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 0, PyInt_FromLong(1L)); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 1, PyInt_FromLong(2L)); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 2, PyString_FromString("three")); For some reason, the compiler would compile the code if I'd remove the last 4 lines (so that only the pyObject variable definition would be left), yet calling the actual constructor of the tuple returned errors. I am probably missing something completely obvious here, given I am very new to C, but does anyone know what it is?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >