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  • Which is the correct design pattern for my PHP application?

    - by user1487141
    I've been struggling to find good way to implement my system which essentially matches the season and episode number of a show from a string, you can see the current working code here: https://github.com/huddy/tvfilename I'm currently rewriting this library and want a nicer way to implement how the the match happens, currently essentially the way it works is: There's a folder with classes in it (called handlers), every handler is a class that implements an interface to ensure a method called match(); exists, this match method uses the regex stored in a property of that handler class (of which there are many) to try and match a season and episode. The class loads all of these handlers by instantiating each one into a array stored in a property, when I want to try and match some strings the method iterates over these objects calling match(); and the first one that returns true is then returned in a result set with the season and episode it matched. I don't really like this way of doing it, it's kind of hacky to me, and I'm hoping a design pattern can help, my ultimate goal is to do this using best practices and I wondered which one I should use? The other problems that exist are: More than one handler could match a string, so they have to be in an order to prevent the more greedy ones matching first, not sure if this is solvable as some of the regex patterns have to be greedy, but possibly a score system, something that shows a percentage of how likely the match is correct, i'd have no idea how to actually implement this though. I'm not if instantiating all those handlers is a good way of doing it, speed is important, but using best practices and sticking to design patterns to create good, extensible and maintainable code is my ultimate priority. It's worth noting the handler classes sometimes do other things than just regex matching, they sometimes prep the string to be matched by removing common words etc. Cheers for any help Billy

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  • Multiple plugin instance loading with MEF

    - by Dave
    In my last application, using MEF to load plugins went just fine, but now I'm running into a new issue. I have a solution for it that I explain at the end of this question, but I'm looking for other ways to do it. Let's say I have an interface called ApplianceInterface. I also have two plugins that inherit from ApplianceInterface, let's call them Blender and Processor. Now, I would like to have multiple Blenders and Processors in my application, but I am not sure how to instantiate them properly. Before, I would simply use the ImportMany attribute and upon calling ComposeParts, my application would load Blender and Processor. For example: [ImportMany(typeof(ApplianceInterface))] private IEnumerable<ApplianceInterface> Appliances { get; set; } and my Blender and Processor plugins would be attributed like this: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(typeof(MyInterface)] public class Blender : ApplianceInterface { ... } but what this ends up doing for me is populating Appliances with one Blender and one Processor. I need to be able to create an arbitrary number of Blender and Processor objects. Now, from the documentation I understand that [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] is what allows MEF to create a new instance each time, but is there a similar "magical" way to create a specific number of instances of something using MEF? Up until now, I've relied on [Import] and [ImportMany] to resolve the assemblies. Is my only option to use a global container, and then resolve the export manually using GetExportedValue<? I have tried GetExportedValue< and that implementation does work fine for me, but I was just curious if there is a better, more accepted way to do it.

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  • Filtering Questions (posts) by tag_name in TagController#index passing /tags?tag_name=something

    - by bgadoci
    I am trying to get my TagsController#index action to display only the Questions that contain certain tags when passing the search parameter tag_name. I am not getting an error just can't get the filter to work correctly such that upon receiving the /tags?tag_name=something url, only those questions are displayed . Here is the setup: class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question def self.search(str) return [] if str.blank? cond_text = str.split.map{|w| "tag_name LIKE ? "}.join(" OR ") cond_values = str.split.map{|w| "%#{w}%"} all(:order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => (str ? [cond_text, *cond_values] : [])) end end and class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy end tag link that would send the URL to the TagsController looks like this: <%= link_to(tag_name, tags_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %> and outputs: /tags?tag_name=something In my /views/tags/index.html.erb view I am calling the questions by rendering a partial /views/questions/_question.html.erb. <%= render :partial => @questions %> When I send the URL with the search parameter nothing happens. Here is my TagsController#index action: def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) @questions = Question.all( :order => 'created_at DESC', :limit => 50) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end How can I properly filter questions displayed in the /views/tags/index.html.erb file for the parameter tag.tag_name?

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  • PHP If/Else for Wordpress Custom Fields

    - by HollerTrain
    I have a site that is using custom fields, and I want to either show the content for the field if the field is being used, and if the field is not being used per a Post then of course don't show the contents of the fields. Seems my code below is not correct, as it is showing the content in the else block when the Post is not using any of the custom fields. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Here is the Post in question: http://beta.ohsinsider.com/insider-top-stories/workers%E2%80%99-compensation-may-not-shield-you-from-lawsuits-by-injured-workers Here is the Post Edit showing that the field I am calling in my code are not being used (http://screencast.com/t/aBjt1drIw). I have confirmed that when I do input the value for the custom field is it being outputted in the Post. Here is the code I am using: <?php $pdfurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); $wordurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); if( !empty($pdf) || !empty($word) ){ ?> <?php /* show nothing then */ } else { ?> <div id="post_downloads_box"> <h3 class="single_related_footer">Dfownload Now</h3> <div id="post_downloads_box_left"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_pdf_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> <div id="post_downloads_box_right"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_word_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> </div> <?php } ?>

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  • How to get timestamp of tick precision in .NET / C#?

    - by Hermann
    Up until now I used DateTime.Now for getting timestamps, but I noticed that if you print DateTime.Now in a loop you will see that it increments in descrete jumps of approx. 15 ms. But for certain scenarios in my application I need to get the most accurate timestamp possible, preferably with tick (=100 ns) precision. Any ideas? Update: Apparently, StopWatch / QueryPerformanceCounter is the way to go, but it can only be used to measure time, so I was thinking about calling DateTime.Now when the application starts up and then just have StopWatch run and then just add the elapsed time from StopWatch to the initial value returned from DateTime.Now. At least that should give me accurate relative timestamps, right? What do you think about that (hack)? NOTE: StopWatch.ElapsedTicks is different from StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks! I used the former assuming 1 tick = 100 ns, but in this case 1 tick = 1 / StopWatch.Frequency. So to get ticks equivalent to DateTime use StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks. I just learned this the hard way. NOTE 2: Using the StopWatch approach, I noticed it gets out of sync with the real time. After about 10 hours, it was ahead by 5 seconds. So I guess one would have to resync it every X or so where X could be 1 hour, 30 min, 15 min, etc. I am not sure what the optimal timespan for resyncing would be since every resync will change the offset which can be up to 20 ms.

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  • .NET Application with SQL Server CE Database

    - by blu
    I just started using SQL Server CE 3.5 in my WinForms Application (C# in VS 2008 SP1). I've noticed a couple of interesting things I'd like some input on: 1. Copying of sdf file to bin My sdf file is located inside of an Infrastructure project that houses my repository implementations. When the application is first debugged the sdf was copied to debug\bin. This is where all future reads/writes operate. At some point when this is deployed the file will go into a data folder using Click Once, but during development where should I be putting this sdf? Is having it in the bin typical, or are there any other recommendations? 2. Updating sdf It appears that writing to the sdf file does not immediately update the database. I am using Linq-to-SQL and am calling SubmitChanges, but on read the values are not returned. However if I close the application and re-open it the added value is there. Is there an additional flush step I need to take? What is causing this, file locking, buffering, something else? Update 3. Unit Tests I have an MS test project, and the sdf file is not being copied to the correct output directory. I have the settings: Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy Always The message is: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException: The database file cannot be found. Check the path to the database. I appreciate any guidance on these questions, thanks. If there is a tutorial other than what is on MSDN that you know about that would be great too. Working with CE is proving to be a difficult task and I welcome any help I can find.

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  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

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  • Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

    - by user348255
    Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

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  • Unit testing a method with many possible outcomes

    - by Cthulhu
    I've built a simple~ish method that constructs an URL out of approximately 5 parts: base address, port, path, 'action', and a set of parameters. Out of these, only the address part is mandatory, the other parts are all optional. A valid URL has to come out of the method for each permutation of input parameters, such as: address address port address port path address path address action address path action address port action address port path action address action params address path action params address port action params address port path action params andsoforth. The basic approach for this is to write one unit test for each of these possible outcomes, each unit test passing the address and any of the optional parameters to the method, and testing the outcome against the expected output. However, I wonder, is there a Better (tm) way to handle a case like this? Are there any (good) unit test patterns for this? (rant) I only now realize that I've learned to write unit tests a few years ago, but never really (feel like) I've advanced in the area, and that every unit test is a repeat of building parameters, expected outcome, filling mock objects, calling a method and testing the outcome against the expected outcome. I'm pretty sure this is the way to go in unit testing, but it gets kinda tedious, yanno. Advice on that matter is always welcome. (/rant) (note) christmas weekend approaching, probably won't reply to suggestions until next week. (/note)

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  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

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  • CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

    - by Sebhael
    I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

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  • Will this web service accept both raw xml and an object?

    - by ChadNC
    We have a web service that provides auto insurance quotes and a company that provides an insurance agency management system would like to use the web service for thier client but they want to pass the web service raw xml instead of using the wsdl to create a port, the object the service expects and calling the web method. The web service has performed flawlessly by creating an object like so com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote service = new com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote(); com.insurance.quotesvc.QuotePortType port = service.getQuotePortType(); com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.request.ACORD parameter = null; Then create initialize the request object with the other objects that make up the response. parameter = factory.createACORD(); parameter.setSignonRq(signOn); parameter.setInsurancesSvcRq(svcRq); And send the request to the web service. com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.response.ACORD result = null; result = port.requestQuote(parameter); By doing that I am able to easily marshall the request and the result into an xml file and do with them as I wish. So if a client was to send the web service via an http post as raw xml inside of a soap envelope. Would the web service be able to handle the xml without any changes being made to the web service or would there need to be changes made to the web service in order for it to handle a request of that type? The web service is a JAX_WS and we currently have both Java and C# clients consuming the web service using the method described above but now there is another client who wants to send raw xml inside of a soap envelope instead of creating the objects. I feel pretty sure that they will be making the call to the web service using vb. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but it is eluding me at the moment and any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

    - by justSteve
    I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

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  • Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

    - by Scott B
    I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

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  • How to call stored procedure by hibernate?

    - by user367097
    Hi I have an oracle stored procedure GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(DOCUMENT_ID IN NUMBER , NOT_INVITED OUT NUMBER,INVITE_WITHDRAWN OUT NUMBER,... rest all parameters are OUT parameters. In hbm file I have written - <sql-query name="getVendorStatus" callable="true"> <return-scalar column="NOT_INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITE_WITHDRAWN" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="DISQUALIFIED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_AWAITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_RECEIVED" type="string"/> { call GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(:DOCUMENT_ID , :NOT_INVITED ,:INVITE_WITHDRAWN ,:INVITED ,:DISQUALIFIED ,:RESPONSE_AWAITED ,:RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS ,:RESPONSE_RECEIVED ) } </sql-query> In java I have written - session.getNamedQuery("getVendorStatus").setParameter("DOCUMENT_ID", "DOCUMENT_ID").setParameter("NOT_INVITED", "NOT_INVITED") ... continue till all the parametes . I am getting the sql exception 18:29:33,056 WARN [JDBCExceptionReporter] SQL Error: 1006, SQLState: 72000 18:29:33,056 ERROR [JDBCExceptionReporter] ORA-01006: bind variable does not exist Please let me know what is the exact process of calling a stored procedure from hibernate. I do not want to use JDBC callable statement.

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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  • Building simple jQuery plugin, need assistance

    - by kirisu_kun
    Hi there, I'm building my first ever jQuery plugin (it's just a simple experiment). Here's what I have so far: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ auchieFader: function(options) { var defaults = { mask: '', topImg : '', } var options = $.extend(defaults, options); return this.each(function() { var o = options; var obj = $(this); var masker = $(o.mask, obj); masker.hover(function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "0" }, "slow"); }, function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "1" }, "slow"); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I'm then calling the plugin using: $('.fader').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); If I then add another request say: $('.fader2').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); Then no matter what instance of my 2 faders I hover both of them will trigger. I know this is because my mask mask and topImg options have the same class - but how can I modify the plugin to allow for these items to have the same class? I know it's probably something really simple, but I'm still finding my way with jQuery and Javascript in general. Any other tips on improving my code would also be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Chris

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  • Objective C: Function returning correct data for the first time of call and null for other times

    - by Kooshal Bhungy
    Hi all, Am a beginner in objective C, i am implementing a function that would query a web server and display the returning string in console. I am calling the function (getDatafromServer) repeatedly in a loop. The problem is that the first time am getting the value whereas the other times, it returns me a (null) in console... I've searched about memory management and check out on the forums but none have worked. Can you please guys tell me where am wrong in the codes below? Thanks in advance.... @implementation RequestThread +(void)startthread:(id)param{ while (true) { //NSLog(@"Test threads"); sleep(5); NSLog(@"%@",[self getDatafromServer]); } } +(NSString *) getDatafromServer{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *myRequestString = @"name=Hello%20&[email protected]"; NSData *myRequestData = [NSData dataWithBytes:[myRequestString UTF8String] length:[myRequestString length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://192.168.1.32/gs/includes/widget/getcalls.php?user=asdasd&passw=asdasdasd"]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody: myRequestData]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *myString = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:[returnData bytes]]; [myRequestString release]; [request release]; [returnData release]; return myString; [pool release]; } @end

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • DLL Export C/C++ 6.00 function invoked by VB6

    - by nashth
    Hi all, I have been attemptng to create a DLL with C/C++ that can be accessed by VB6, and that's right I get error "453 Can't find DLL entry point myFunctionName in myDllName.dll" upon calling the function from a VB6 app. After searching the Web, including this site, I see that I am not alone, and I have tried the various solutions posted but error "453" is unexcapable. This is Not a COMM dll, and I believe that is possible when created via C/C++. In any case, please help, if you can. Please refer to the following simple test case below: The DLL created as a C/C++ 6.00 Win32 Dynamic-Link Library: #include // Note that I did try the line below rather than the def file, but to no avail... // #pragma comment(linker, "/EXPORT:ibask32=_ibask32@0") // Function definition extern "C" int __declspec(dllexport) __stdcall ibask32() { MessageBox(NULL,"String","Sample Code", NULL); return 0L; } The def file: LIBRARY "Gpib-32" EXPORTS ibask32 Now for the VB App: The following is the entire content of the startup Form1, Form_Load Option Explicit Private Sub Form_Load() Call ibask End Sub The following is a BAS module file that is added to the project: Option Explicit Declare Function ibask32 Lib "Gpib-32.dll" Alias "ibask" () As Long Sub ibask() Call ibask32 ' Note: This is the point of failure End Sub Thanks in advance if a workable solution can be provided, Tom

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  • why i cant read my webservice with jquery???

    - by rima
    what's my function problem?I wana read from my webservice but I just receive error :( the browser message is: "undefined- status:error" when I press button just I see the error function of my Jqueary calling but I dont know why??plz help me. function SetupCompanyInfo(companyID) { //alert('aaa'); companyID = '1'; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '../../../Services/CompanyServices.asmx/GetCompanyInfo', data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: OnSuccess, error: OnError }); } function OnSuccess(data, status) { SetMainBody(data); } function OnError(request, status, error) { SetMainBody(error + '- ' + request + ' status:' + status); } my webservice: using System; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Script.Services; /// <summary> /// Summary description for CompanyServices /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [ScriptService] //[System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] public class CompanyServices : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string GetCompanyInfo() { string response = "aaa"; Console.WriteLine("here"); return response.ToString(); } [WebMethod] public string GetCompanyInfo(string id) { string response = "aaa"; Console.WriteLine("here2"+id); return response.ToString(); } } my aspx file,part of head and my button code: <script src="../../Scripts/InnerFunctions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/TabMenu.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/InternalFunctions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div dir="rtl" style="border: 1px solid #CCCCCC"> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl="../../generalImg/Icons/64X64/settings_Icon_64.gif" style="width: 27px; height: 26px" onclick="SetupCompanyInfo(1)" /></div>

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  • How to differentiate between exceptions i can show the user, and ones i can't?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have some business logic that traps some logically invalid situations, e.g. trying to reverse a transaction that was already reversed. In this case the correct action is to inform the user: Transaction already reversed or Cannot reverse a reversing transaction or You do not have permission to reverse transactions or This transaction is on a session that has already been closed or This transaction is too old to be reversed The question is, how do i communicate these exceptional cases back to the calling code, so they can show the user? Do i create a separate exception for each case: catch (ETransactionAlreadyReversedException) MessageBox.Show('Transaction already reversed') catch (EReversingAReversingTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('Cannot reverse a reversing transaction') catch (ENoPermissionToReverseTranasctionException) MessageBox.Show('You do not have permission to reverse transactions') catch (ECannotReverseTransactionOnAlredyClosedSessionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is on a session that has already been closed') catch (ECannotReverseTooOldTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is too old to be reversed') Downside for this is that when there's a new logical case to show the user: Tranasctions created by NSL cannot be reversed i don't simply show the user a message, and instead it leaks out as an unhandled excpetion, when really it should be handled with another MessageBox. The alternative is to create a single exception class: `EReverseTransactionException` With the understanding that any exception of this type is a logical check, that should be handled with a message box: catch (EReverseTransactionException) But it's still understood that any other exceptions, ones that involve, for example, an memory ECC parity error, continue unhandled. In other words, i don't convert all errors that can be thrown by the ReverseTransaction() method into EReverseTransactionException, only ones that are logically invalid cause of the user.

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

    - by Tom Bushell
    My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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