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  • Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

    - by Scott B
    I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

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  • Unit testing a method with many possible outcomes

    - by Cthulhu
    I've built a simple~ish method that constructs an URL out of approximately 5 parts: base address, port, path, 'action', and a set of parameters. Out of these, only the address part is mandatory, the other parts are all optional. A valid URL has to come out of the method for each permutation of input parameters, such as: address address port address port path address path address action address path action address port action address port path action address action params address path action params address port action params address port path action params andsoforth. The basic approach for this is to write one unit test for each of these possible outcomes, each unit test passing the address and any of the optional parameters to the method, and testing the outcome against the expected output. However, I wonder, is there a Better (tm) way to handle a case like this? Are there any (good) unit test patterns for this? (rant) I only now realize that I've learned to write unit tests a few years ago, but never really (feel like) I've advanced in the area, and that every unit test is a repeat of building parameters, expected outcome, filling mock objects, calling a method and testing the outcome against the expected outcome. I'm pretty sure this is the way to go in unit testing, but it gets kinda tedious, yanno. Advice on that matter is always welcome. (/rant) (note) christmas weekend approaching, probably won't reply to suggestions until next week. (/note)

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • .NET Application with SQL Server CE Database

    - by blu
    I just started using SQL Server CE 3.5 in my WinForms Application (C# in VS 2008 SP1). I've noticed a couple of interesting things I'd like some input on: 1. Copying of sdf file to bin My sdf file is located inside of an Infrastructure project that houses my repository implementations. When the application is first debugged the sdf was copied to debug\bin. This is where all future reads/writes operate. At some point when this is deployed the file will go into a data folder using Click Once, but during development where should I be putting this sdf? Is having it in the bin typical, or are there any other recommendations? 2. Updating sdf It appears that writing to the sdf file does not immediately update the database. I am using Linq-to-SQL and am calling SubmitChanges, but on read the values are not returned. However if I close the application and re-open it the added value is there. Is there an additional flush step I need to take? What is causing this, file locking, buffering, something else? Update 3. Unit Tests I have an MS test project, and the sdf file is not being copied to the correct output directory. I have the settings: Build Action: Content Copy to Output Directory: Copy Always The message is: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException: The database file cannot be found. Check the path to the database. I appreciate any guidance on these questions, thanks. If there is a tutorial other than what is on MSDN that you know about that would be great too. Working with CE is proving to be a difficult task and I welcome any help I can find.

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  • How to call stored procedure by hibernate?

    - by user367097
    Hi I have an oracle stored procedure GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(DOCUMENT_ID IN NUMBER , NOT_INVITED OUT NUMBER,INVITE_WITHDRAWN OUT NUMBER,... rest all parameters are OUT parameters. In hbm file I have written - <sql-query name="getVendorStatus" callable="true"> <return-scalar column="NOT_INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITE_WITHDRAWN" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="DISQUALIFIED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_AWAITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_RECEIVED" type="string"/> { call GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(:DOCUMENT_ID , :NOT_INVITED ,:INVITE_WITHDRAWN ,:INVITED ,:DISQUALIFIED ,:RESPONSE_AWAITED ,:RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS ,:RESPONSE_RECEIVED ) } </sql-query> In java I have written - session.getNamedQuery("getVendorStatus").setParameter("DOCUMENT_ID", "DOCUMENT_ID").setParameter("NOT_INVITED", "NOT_INVITED") ... continue till all the parametes . I am getting the sql exception 18:29:33,056 WARN [JDBCExceptionReporter] SQL Error: 1006, SQLState: 72000 18:29:33,056 ERROR [JDBCExceptionReporter] ORA-01006: bind variable does not exist Please let me know what is the exact process of calling a stored procedure from hibernate. I do not want to use JDBC callable statement.

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  • odd url, and difficulty in following the php page flow

    - by sdfor
    I'm trying to understand code that I bought so I can modify it. In the index.php there are picture links: <a href="test10,10"><img title="" border=1 src="makethumb.php?pic=product_images/test101.jpg&amp;w=121&amp;sq=N" / ></a> I don't understand the href since it is not pointing to a page. test10 is an id of a picture. I assumed it was going back to the index.php and the code would extract the test10,10 from the url, but it's not. I know that because I put in trace code as the first line. The question is, where is the link going to? I know it that it somewhere in the process it executes a page called profile.php, but nowhere in the source code (doing a global search) is there an explicit call to profile.php. As a related question, is there a way to profile the code to see what pages it's calling without using xdebug, which for the life of me I can't get working after many hours of trying every suggestion I found here and else where. (I'm using xampp) thanks

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  • Noise with multi-threaded raytracer

    - by herber88
    This is my first multi-threaded implementation, so it's probably a beginners mistake. The threads handle the rendering of every second row of pixels (so all rendering is handled within each thread). The problem persists if the threads render the upper and lower parts of the screen respectively. Both threads read from the same variables, can this cause any problems? From what I've understood only writing can cause concurrency problems... Can calling the same functions cause any concurrency problems? And again, from what I've understood this shouldn't be a problem... The only time both threads write to the same variable is when saving the calculated pixel color. This is stored in an array, but they never write to the same indices in that array. Can this cause a problem? Multi-threaded rendered image (Spam prevention stops me from posting images directly..) Ps. I use the exactly same implementation in both cases, the ONLY difference is a single vs. two threads created for the rendering.

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  • Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

    - by justSteve
    I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

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  • How to get timestamp of tick precision in .NET / C#?

    - by Hermann
    Up until now I used DateTime.Now for getting timestamps, but I noticed that if you print DateTime.Now in a loop you will see that it increments in descrete jumps of approx. 15 ms. But for certain scenarios in my application I need to get the most accurate timestamp possible, preferably with tick (=100 ns) precision. Any ideas? Update: Apparently, StopWatch / QueryPerformanceCounter is the way to go, but it can only be used to measure time, so I was thinking about calling DateTime.Now when the application starts up and then just have StopWatch run and then just add the elapsed time from StopWatch to the initial value returned from DateTime.Now. At least that should give me accurate relative timestamps, right? What do you think about that (hack)? NOTE: StopWatch.ElapsedTicks is different from StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks! I used the former assuming 1 tick = 100 ns, but in this case 1 tick = 1 / StopWatch.Frequency. So to get ticks equivalent to DateTime use StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks. I just learned this the hard way. NOTE 2: Using the StopWatch approach, I noticed it gets out of sync with the real time. After about 10 hours, it was ahead by 5 seconds. So I guess one would have to resync it every X or so where X could be 1 hour, 30 min, 15 min, etc. I am not sure what the optimal timespan for resyncing would be since every resync will change the offset which can be up to 20 ms.

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  • How to differentiate between exceptions i can show the user, and ones i can't?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have some business logic that traps some logically invalid situations, e.g. trying to reverse a transaction that was already reversed. In this case the correct action is to inform the user: Transaction already reversed or Cannot reverse a reversing transaction or You do not have permission to reverse transactions or This transaction is on a session that has already been closed or This transaction is too old to be reversed The question is, how do i communicate these exceptional cases back to the calling code, so they can show the user? Do i create a separate exception for each case: catch (ETransactionAlreadyReversedException) MessageBox.Show('Transaction already reversed') catch (EReversingAReversingTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('Cannot reverse a reversing transaction') catch (ENoPermissionToReverseTranasctionException) MessageBox.Show('You do not have permission to reverse transactions') catch (ECannotReverseTransactionOnAlredyClosedSessionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is on a session that has already been closed') catch (ECannotReverseTooOldTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is too old to be reversed') Downside for this is that when there's a new logical case to show the user: Tranasctions created by NSL cannot be reversed i don't simply show the user a message, and instead it leaks out as an unhandled excpetion, when really it should be handled with another MessageBox. The alternative is to create a single exception class: `EReverseTransactionException` With the understanding that any exception of this type is a logical check, that should be handled with a message box: catch (EReverseTransactionException) But it's still understood that any other exceptions, ones that involve, for example, an memory ECC parity error, continue unhandled. In other words, i don't convert all errors that can be thrown by the ReverseTransaction() method into EReverseTransactionException, only ones that are logically invalid cause of the user.

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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

    - by user348255
    Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

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  • Which is the correct design pattern for my PHP application?

    - by user1487141
    I've been struggling to find good way to implement my system which essentially matches the season and episode number of a show from a string, you can see the current working code here: https://github.com/huddy/tvfilename I'm currently rewriting this library and want a nicer way to implement how the the match happens, currently essentially the way it works is: There's a folder with classes in it (called handlers), every handler is a class that implements an interface to ensure a method called match(); exists, this match method uses the regex stored in a property of that handler class (of which there are many) to try and match a season and episode. The class loads all of these handlers by instantiating each one into a array stored in a property, when I want to try and match some strings the method iterates over these objects calling match(); and the first one that returns true is then returned in a result set with the season and episode it matched. I don't really like this way of doing it, it's kind of hacky to me, and I'm hoping a design pattern can help, my ultimate goal is to do this using best practices and I wondered which one I should use? The other problems that exist are: More than one handler could match a string, so they have to be in an order to prevent the more greedy ones matching first, not sure if this is solvable as some of the regex patterns have to be greedy, but possibly a score system, something that shows a percentage of how likely the match is correct, i'd have no idea how to actually implement this though. I'm not if instantiating all those handlers is a good way of doing it, speed is important, but using best practices and sticking to design patterns to create good, extensible and maintainable code is my ultimate priority. It's worth noting the handler classes sometimes do other things than just regex matching, they sometimes prep the string to be matched by removing common words etc. Cheers for any help Billy

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  • How do I check if a scalar has a compiled regex in it with Perl?

    - by Robert P
    Let's say I have a subroutine/method that a user can call to test some data that (as an example) might look like this: sub test_output { my ($self, $test) = @_; my $output = $self->long_process_to_get_data(); if ($output =~ /\Q$test/) { $self->assert_something(); } else { $self->do_something_else(); } } Normally, $test is a string, which we're looking for anywhere in the output. This was an interface put together to make calling it very easy. However, we've found that sometimes, a straight string is problematic - for example, a large, possibly varying number of spaces...a pattern, if you will. Thus, I'd like to let them pass in a regex as an option. I could just do: $output =~ $test if I could assume that it's always a regex, but ah, but the backwards compatibility! If they pass in a string, it still needs to test it like a raw string. So in that case, I'll need to test to see if $test is a regex. Is there any good facility for detecting whether or not a scalar has a compiled regex in it?

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  • trouble calculating offset index into 3D array

    - by Derek
    Hello, I am writing a CUDA kernel to create a 3x3 covariance matrix for each location in the rows*cols main matrix. So that 3D matrix is rows*cols*9 in size, which i allocated in a single malloc accordingly. I need to access this in a single index value the 9 values of the 3x3 covariance matrix get their values set according to the appropriate row r and column c from some other 2D arrays. In other words - I need to calculate the appropriate index to access the 9 elements of the 3x3 covariance matrix, as well as the row and column offset of the 2D matrices that are inputs to the value, as well as the appropriate index for the storage array. i have tried to simplify it down to the following: //I am calling this kernel with 1D blocks who are 512 cols x 1row. TILE_WIDTH=512 int bx = blockIdx.x; int by = blockIdx.y; int tx = threadIdx.x; int ty = threadIdx.y; int r = by + ty; int c = bx*TILE_WIDTH + tx; int offset = r*cols+c; int ndx = r*cols*rows + c*cols; if((r < rows) && (c < cols)){ //this IF statement is trying to avoid the case where a threadblock went bigger than my original array..not sure if correct d_cov[ndx + 0] = otherArray[offset]; d_cov[ndx + 1] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 2] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 3] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 4] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 5] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 6] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 7] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 8] = otherArray[offset] } When I check this array with the values calculated on the CPU, which loops over i=rows, j=cols, k = 1..9 The results do not match up. in other words d_cov[i*rows*cols + j*cols + k] != correctAnswer[i][j][k] Can anyone give me any tips on how to sovle this problem? Is it an indexing problem, or some other logic error?

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  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • Complicated .NET factory design

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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  • Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

    - by samsam
    Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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  • CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

    - by Sebhael
    I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

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  • PHP If/Else for Wordpress Custom Fields

    - by HollerTrain
    I have a site that is using custom fields, and I want to either show the content for the field if the field is being used, and if the field is not being used per a Post then of course don't show the contents of the fields. Seems my code below is not correct, as it is showing the content in the else block when the Post is not using any of the custom fields. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Here is the Post in question: http://beta.ohsinsider.com/insider-top-stories/workers%E2%80%99-compensation-may-not-shield-you-from-lawsuits-by-injured-workers Here is the Post Edit showing that the field I am calling in my code are not being used (http://screencast.com/t/aBjt1drIw). I have confirmed that when I do input the value for the custom field is it being outputted in the Post. Here is the code I am using: <?php $pdfurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); $wordurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); if( !empty($pdf) || !empty($word) ){ ?> <?php /* show nothing then */ } else { ?> <div id="post_downloads_box"> <h3 class="single_related_footer">Dfownload Now</h3> <div id="post_downloads_box_left"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_pdf_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> <div id="post_downloads_box_right"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_word_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> </div> <?php } ?>

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  • Flex component setActualSize

    - by dlots
    I am a little confused about the setActualSize method. It appears from what I've read, that if it is not called on a component by its parent, the component will not be rendered. So it appears that setActualSize is a critical method that is directly bound to rendering the UIComponent. It also appears that the width and height properties of UIComponent override the functionality of the width and height properties of flash.display.DisplayObject, in that they are not directly bound to the rendering of the object but are virtual values that are mainly used by the getExplicitOrMeasured when the parent of the component calls the component's setActualSize method. So the question are: 1) Why isn't the default behavior of every component to just call setActualSize(getExplicitOrMeasuredWidth(),getExplicitOrMeasuredHeight()) on itself? 2) I guess this question stems from the above question and the behavior as I understand it as described above: does setActualSize change the visibility of the component? It appears that that the behavior is that a component is not rendered until setActualSize is called, but if it contains display object children itself (expected behavior as it can calculate measure on itself) and is added to the display list, the only reason why flash isn't rendering it, is because its not visible. 3) Relating to question #1, does updateDisplayList of UIComponent have a method that goes through its children calling setActualSize on each of them?

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  • Performance issue finding weekdays over a given period

    - by Oysio
    I have some methods that return the number of weekdays between two given dates. Since calling these methods become very expensive to call when the two dates lie years apart, I'm wondering how these methods could be refactored in a more efficient way. The returned result is correct but I feel that the iphone processor is struggling to keep up and consequently freezes up the application when I would call these methods over a period of say 10years. Any suggestions ? //daysList contains all weekdays that need to be found between the two dates -(NSInteger) numberOfWeekdaysFromDaysList:(NSMutableArray*) daysList startingFromDate:(NSDate*)startDate toDate:(NSDate*)endDate { NSInteger retNumdays = 0; for (Day *dayObject in [daysList objectEnumerator]) { if ([dayObject isChecked]) { retNumdays += [self numberOfWeekday:[dayObject weekdayNr] startingFromDate:startDate toDate:endDate]; } } return retNumdays; } -(NSInteger) numberOfWeekday:(NSInteger)day startingFromDate:(NSDate*)startDate toDate:(NSDate*)endDate { NSInteger numWeekdays = 0; NSDate *nextDate = startDate; NSComparisonResult result = [endDate compare:nextDate]; //Do while nextDate is in the past while (result == NSOrderedDescending || result == NSOrderedSame) { if ([NSDate weekdayFromDate:nextDate] == day) { numWeekdays++; } nextDate = [nextDate dateByAddingDays:1]; result = [endDate compare:nextDate]; } return numWeekdays; }

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  • NSApp Sheets question in cocoa

    - by califguy
    Hi, Here's what I am trying to do. I need to prompt the user for a password prompt and until he enters the password and hits, say the Enter button on the sheet, I want to prevent the code being parsed in the background. Here's the code to run the sheet and when the user enters the password and hits Enter, endSpeedSheet is run. I am calling all of this from my Main() function. What I am noticing is that the when the main function runs, the sheet shows up, the user is prompted for a password. But in the background, I already see " Code gets here" has been run. This means the code has already run in the background. What I need is the code to wait at the password prompt and then use this password after the Sheet has been dismissed. Any idea's on what I am missing here ? - (IBAction) showSpeedSheet:(id)sender { [NSApp beginSheet:speedSheet modalForWindow:(NSWindow *)window modalDelegate:nil didEndSelector:nil contextInfo:nil]; } -(IBAction)endSpeedSheet:(id)sender { joinPassword = [joinPasswordLabel stringValue]; [NSApp endSheet:speedSheet]; [speedSheet orderOut:sender]; } -(IBAction)main:(id)sender { [self showSpeedSheet:(id)sender]; // More Code here NSLog(@" Code gets here"); }

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