Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 230/278 | < Previous Page | 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237  | Next Page >

  • PHP If/Else for Wordpress Custom Fields

    - by HollerTrain
    I have a site that is using custom fields, and I want to either show the content for the field if the field is being used, and if the field is not being used per a Post then of course don't show the contents of the fields. Seems my code below is not correct, as it is showing the content in the else block when the Post is not using any of the custom fields. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Here is the Post in question: http://beta.ohsinsider.com/insider-top-stories/workers%E2%80%99-compensation-may-not-shield-you-from-lawsuits-by-injured-workers Here is the Post Edit showing that the field I am calling in my code are not being used (http://screencast.com/t/aBjt1drIw). I have confirmed that when I do input the value for the custom field is it being outputted in the Post. Here is the code I am using: <?php $pdfurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); $wordurl = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); if( !empty($pdf) || !empty($word) ){ ?> <?php /* show nothing then */ } else { ?> <div id="post_downloads_box"> <h3 class="single_related_footer">Dfownload Now</h3> <div id="post_downloads_box_left"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'pdf', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_pdf_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> <div id="post_downloads_box_right"> <a target="_blank" href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'word', true); ?>"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url'); ?>/images/post_word_icon.jpg" /></a> </div> </div> <?php } ?>

    Read the article

  • Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

    - by user348255
    Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

    Read the article

  • Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

    - by Shtong
    Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Open Maps app from Code : Where to find the "Current Location"?

    - by Simon
    I am opening Maps app to show directions from user's Current Location to a destination coordinate, from my code. I am using the following code to open the Maps app. I am calling this code when a button is pressed. - (void)showDirectionsToHere { CLLocationCoordinate2D currentLocation = [self getCurrentLocation]; // LINE 1 NSString* url = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"http://maps.google.com/maps?saddr=%f,%f&daddr=%f,%f", destCoordinate.latitude + 0.1, destCoordinate.longitude, destCoordinate.latitude, destCoordinate.longitude];//8.3, 12.1 [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url]]; } Here [self getCurrentLocation] in LINE 1 uses CLLocationManager to determine the Current Location and returns the value. Note: I have not yet implemented the LINE1. I've just planned to do in that way. My question is, Is this a good practice to calculate the Current Location, at the time the Maps app is called? [self getCurrentLocation] will retrun the Current Location before openURL gets called? I have to determine the Current Location well before opening the Maps app? I am little bit confused about these things. Kindly guide me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Mixing menuItem.setIntent with onOptionsItemSelected doesn't work

    - by superjos
    While extending a sample Android activity that fires some other activities from its menu, I came to have some menu items handled within onOptionsItemSelected, and some menu items (that just fired intents) handled by calling setIntent within onCreateOptionsMenu. Basically something like: @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { super.onCreateOptionsMenu(menu); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_1, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_1); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_2, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_2); menu.add(0, MENU_ID_3, Menu.NONE, R.string.menu_text_3). setIntent(new Intent(this, MyActivity_3.class)); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { super.onOptionsItemSelected(item); switch (item.getItemId()) { case (MENU_ID_1): // Process menu command 1 ... return true; case (MENU_ID_2): // Process menu command 2 ... // E.g. also fire Intent for MyActivity_2 return true; default: return false; } } Apparently, in this situation the Intent set on MENU_ID_3 is never fired, or anyway the related activity is never started. Android javadoc at some point goes like <<[if you set an intent on a menu item] and nothing else handles the item, then the default behavior will be to [start the activity with the intent]. What does it actually mean "and nothing else handles the item"? Is it enough to return false from onOptionsItemSelected? I also tried not to call super.onOptionsItemSelected(item) at the beginning and only invoke it in the default switch case, but I had same results. Does anyone have any suggestion? Does Android allow to mix the two type of handling? Thanks for your time everyone.

    Read the article

  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

    Read the article

  • In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy final member field into local final variable?

    - by mjlee
    In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

    Read the article

  • Does jQuery have an equivalent to Prototype's Element.identify?

    - by Alan Storm
    Is there a built in method or defacto default plugin that will let you automatically assign an unique ID to an element in jQuery, or do you need to implement something like this yourself? I'm looking for the jQuery equivalent to Prototype's identify method Here's an example. I have some HTML structure on a page that looks like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span></span> <span></span> <span></span> </div> I want to assign each of the spans an ID that will be unique to the page. So after calling something like this $('#foo span').identify('prefix'); //fake code, no such method The rendered DOM would look something like this <span id="prefix_1">foo bar</span> ... <div id="foo"> <span id="prefix_2"></span> <span id="prefix_3"></span> <span id="prefix_4"></span> </div> Is there anything official-ish/robust for jQuery, or is this something most jQuery developers roll on their own?

    Read the article

  • how to execute any function in jquery after few seconds on the click of any link

    - by james Bond
    I have struts2 jquery grid where on click of a row I am calling a jQuery function for performating a struts2 action. My code is running fine. I want to perform my jQuery function after delay of a few seconds. How can I do this? <script type="text/javascript"> //assume this code is working fine on rowselect from my jquery grid, New Updation in it is "i want to execute or load the url after few seconds" $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }); }); </script> What i tried is the below code but am unable to get the output which i am looking for: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $.subscribe('rowselect', function(event,data) { var param = (event.originalEvent.id); $("#myAdvanceDivBoxx").load('<s:url action='InsertbooksToSession' namespace='/admin/setups/secure/jspHomepage/bookstransaction'/>'+"?bid="+event.originalEvent.id); }).delay(9000); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • How do I close a file after catching an IOException in java?

    - by DimDom
    All, I am trying to ensure that a file I have open with BufferedReader is closed when I catch an IOException, but it appears as if my BufferedReader object is out of scope in the catch block. public static ArrayList readFiletoArrayList(String fileName, ArrayList fileArrayList) { fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); try { //open the file for reading BufferedReader fileIn = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName)); // add line by line to array list, until end of file is reached // when buffered reader returns null (todo). while(true){ fileArrayList.add(fileIn.readLine()); } }catch(IOException e){ fileArrayList.removeAll(fileArrayList); fileIn.close(); return fileArrayList; //returned empty. Dealt with in calling code. } } Netbeans complains that it "cannot find symbol fileIn" in the catch block, but I want to ensure that in the case of an IOException that the Reader gets closed. How can I do that without the ugliness of a second try/catch construct around the first? Any tips or pointers as to best practise in this situation is appreciated,

    Read the article

  • How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

    - by Waldo Spek
    I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

    Read the article

  • I need to recover an instance of an activity

    - by Bilthon
    Well.. the title is pretty descriptive, I have a bunch of tab activities (which I implemented myself, didn't want to use the tabviews with activities inside them), so It's basically 5 activities calling each other every time the user clicks on the tabs displayed as a row of LinearLayouts at the bottom of the screen. The thing is that the way I do it now, everytime the user jumps from one activity to another, a new activity is created and launched. Of course, I can see I'm wasting resources this way. So what I would like to do is to create every activity only once; and then if the user wants to go back to the previous (or any one that was already created and is probably paused) just check on some kind of list or array to see if the activity can be recovered and only in the case it can't; to lauch a new one. My question is, how can I check this? should I save the intents? and how to recover the activities afterwards? I'm kind of new with java. Greetings Nelson R. Perez

    Read the article

  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

    Read the article

  • How to get timestamp of tick precision in .NET / C#?

    - by Hermann
    Up until now I used DateTime.Now for getting timestamps, but I noticed that if you print DateTime.Now in a loop you will see that it increments in descrete jumps of approx. 15 ms. But for certain scenarios in my application I need to get the most accurate timestamp possible, preferably with tick (=100 ns) precision. Any ideas? Update: Apparently, StopWatch / QueryPerformanceCounter is the way to go, but it can only be used to measure time, so I was thinking about calling DateTime.Now when the application starts up and then just have StopWatch run and then just add the elapsed time from StopWatch to the initial value returned from DateTime.Now. At least that should give me accurate relative timestamps, right? What do you think about that (hack)? NOTE: StopWatch.ElapsedTicks is different from StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks! I used the former assuming 1 tick = 100 ns, but in this case 1 tick = 1 / StopWatch.Frequency. So to get ticks equivalent to DateTime use StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks. I just learned this the hard way. NOTE 2: Using the StopWatch approach, I noticed it gets out of sync with the real time. After about 10 hours, it was ahead by 5 seconds. So I guess one would have to resync it every X or so where X could be 1 hour, 30 min, 15 min, etc. I am not sure what the optimal timespan for resyncing would be since every resync will change the offset which can be up to 20 ms.

    Read the article

  • Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

    - by Rod
    HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

    Read the article

  • Segmentation Fault when trying to push a string to the back of a list.

    - by user308012
    I am trying to write a logger class for my C++ calculator, but I'm experiencing a problem while trying to push a string into a list. I have tried researching this issue and have found some information on this, but nothing that seems to help with my problem. I am using a rather basic C++ compiler, with little debugging utilities and I've not used C++ in quite some time (even then it was only a small amount). My code: #ifndef _LOGGER_H_ #define _LOGGER_H_ #include <iostream> #include <list> #include <string> using std::cout; using std::cin; using std::endl; using std::list; using std::string; class Logger { private: list<string> *mEntries; public: Logger() { // Initialize the entries list mEntries = new list<string>(); } ~Logger() { // Release the list mEntries->clear(); delete mEntries; } // Public Methods void WriteEntry(string entry) { // *** BELOW LINE IS MARKED WITH THE ERROR *** mEntries->push_back(string(entryData)); } void DisplayEntries() { cout << endl << "**********************" << endl << "* Logger Entries *" << endl << "**********************" << endl << endl; for(list<string>::iterator it = mEntries->begin(); it != mEntries->end(); it++) { cout << *it << endl; } } }; #endif I am calling the WriteEntry method by simply passing in a string, like so: mLogger->WriteEntry("Testing"); Any advice on this would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to Prevent PostBack Event Handler from Firing

    - by user331744
    I have a custom class (ServerSideValidator.vb) that validates user input on server side (it doesn't use any of the .NET built in validators, therefore Page.Validate() is not an option for me). I am calling the Validate() method on page.IsPostback event and the class performs without any problem My issue is, when validation fails (returns false), I want to stop the postback event handler from firing, but load the page along with all the controls and user-input values in them. If I do, Response.End(), the page comes up blank. I can programmatically instruct the page to go to the previous page (original form before postback), but it loses all user-inputs. I thought of creating a global boolean variable in the page code behind file and check the value before performing any postback method, but this approach takes away from my plan to provide all functionalities inside the class itself. The page object is being referenced to ServerSideValidator. Seems like all the postback related properties/variables I come across inside Page class are 'Readonly' and I can't assign value(s) to control/prevent postback event from firing. Any idiea on how I can accomplish this? Please let me know if you need further details

    Read the article

  • Will this web service accept both raw xml and an object?

    - by ChadNC
    We have a web service that provides auto insurance quotes and a company that provides an insurance agency management system would like to use the web service for thier client but they want to pass the web service raw xml instead of using the wsdl to create a port, the object the service expects and calling the web method. The web service has performed flawlessly by creating an object like so com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote service = new com.insurance.quotesvc.AgencyQuote(); com.insurance.quotesvc.QuotePortType port = service.getQuotePortType(); com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.request.ACORD parameter = null; Then create initialize the request object with the other objects that make up the response. parameter = factory.createACORD(); parameter.setSignonRq(signOn); parameter.setInsurancesSvcRq(svcRq); And send the request to the web service. com.insurance.quotesvc.schemas.response.ACORD result = null; result = port.requestQuote(parameter); By doing that I am able to easily marshall the request and the result into an xml file and do with them as I wish. So if a client was to send the web service via an http post as raw xml inside of a soap envelope. Would the web service be able to handle the xml without any changes being made to the web service or would there need to be changes made to the web service in order for it to handle a request of that type? The web service is a JAX_WS and we currently have both Java and C# clients consuming the web service using the method described above but now there is another client who wants to send raw xml inside of a soap envelope instead of creating the objects. I feel pretty sure that they will be making the call to the web service using vb. I'm sure I'm missing something obvious but it is eluding me at the moment and any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Howw to add new value with generic Repository if there are foreign keys (EF-4)?

    - by Phsika
    i try to write a kind of generic repository to add method. Everything is ok to add but I have table which is related with two tables with FOREIGN KEY.But Not working because of foreign key public class DomainRepository<TModel> : IDomainRepository<TModel> where TModel : class { #region IDomainRepository<T> Members private ObjectContext _context; private IObjectSet<TModel> _objectSet; public DomainRepository() { } public DomainRepository(ObjectContext context) { _context = context; _objectSet = _context.CreateObjectSet<TModel>(); } //do something..... public TModel Add<TModel>(TModel entity) where TModel : IEntityWithKey { EntityKey key; object originalItem; key = _context.CreateEntityKey(entity.GetType().Name, entity); _context.AddObject(key.EntitySetName, entity); _context.SaveChanges(); return entity; } //do something..... } Calling REPOSITORY: //insert-update-delete public partial class AddtoTables { public table3 Add(int TaskId, int RefAircraftsId) { using (DomainRepository<table3> repTask = new DomainRepository<table3>(new TaskEntities())) { return repTask.Add<table3>(new table3() { TaskId = TaskId, TaskRefAircraftsID = RefAircraftsId }); } } } How to add a new value if this table includes foreign key relation

    Read the article

  • Centralizing Messagebox handling for application

    - by DRapp
    I'm wondering how others deal with trying to centralize MessageBox function calling. Instead of having long text embedded all over the place in code, in the past (non .net language), I would put system and application base "messagebox" type of messages into a database file which would be "burned" into the executable, much like a resource file in .Net. When a prompting condition would arise, I would just do call something like MBAnswer = MyApplication.CallMsgBox( IDUserCantDoThat ) then check the MBAnswer upon return, such as a yes/no/cancel or whatever. In the database table, I would have things like what the messagebox title would be, the buttons that would be shown, the actual message, a special flag that automatically tacked on a subsequent standard comment like "Please contact help desk if this happens.". The function would call the messagebox with all applicable settings and just return back the answer. The big benefits of this was, one location to have all the "context" of messages, and via constants, easier to read what message was going to be presented to the user. Does anyone have a similar system in .Net to do a similar approach, or is this just a bad idea in the .Net environment.

    Read the article

  • IE7 & IE8 error executing function with ajax

    - by Yahreen
    I am loading an ajax page which executes an HTML5 video player script. The function for the Flash fallback is html5media(); : //Load 1st Case Study $("#splash").live('click', function (e) { $(this).fadeOut('slow', function () { $('#case-studies').load('case-study-1.html', function() { html5media(); //initiate Flash fallback }).fadeIn(); }); e.preventDefault(); }); This initial page load works fine in IE7 & IE8. The problem is once this page is loaded, there are links to 4 more videos which are loaded in again using ajax. I use this function: //Switcher function csClients(url, client) { $("#case-studies").fadeOut('slow', function() { $('#case-studies').load(url, function () { html5media(); //initiate Flash fallback }).fadeIn(); }); } //Page Loader $("#cs-client-list li.client1 a").live('click', function(e) { csClients('case-study-1.html', 'client1'); e.preventDefault(); }); Originally I was using return false; but none of the sub-page Flash videos would load in IE7. When I switched to preventDefault, the videos loaded in IE7 but still not in IE8. I also get a weird error in both IE7 & IE8 with no helpful feedback: Error on Page: Unspecified error. / (Line 49) Code: 0 (Char 5) URI: http://www.mysite.com This is line 49 in my index page: <section id="case-studies" class="main-section"> I have a feeling it has to do with calling html5media(); too many times? At a loss...

    Read the article

  • Haskell quiz: a simple function

    - by levy
    I'm not a Haskell programmer, but I'm curious about the following questions. Informal function specification: Let MapProduct be a function that takes a function called F and multiple lists. It returns a list containing the results of calling F with one argument from each list in each possible combination. Example: Call MapProduct with F being a function that simply returns a list of its arguments, and two lists. One of the lists contains the integers 1 and 2, the other one contains the strings "a" and "b". It should return a list that contains the lists: 1 and "a", 1 and "b", 2 and "a", 2 and "b". Questions: How is MapProduct implemented? What is the function's type? What is F's type? Can one guess what the function does just by looking at its type? Can you handle inhomogeneous lists as input? (e.g. 1 and "a" in one of the input lists) What extra limitation (if any) do you need to introduce to implement MapProduct?

    Read the article

  • TabBar as rootController flip animation.

    - by user558076
    Hi there, I'm using a TabBarController as the root controller for my app. I have all the views I use (5 tabs) all hooked together through it in interface builder. What I'm trying to do is trigger a slide or flip animation when moving between tabs. However, I only want this to occur when I change tabs programmatically (ie the animation is triggered when someone does a swipe gesture in the one of the views, but not when they just select one of the tabs). The way I'm currently handling this is by calling: [appDelegate.myTab setSelectedIndex:0]; when the iphone detects a swipe. I've been searching the internet for 5 straight hours and can't seem to find a way to add an animation here. It'd be really cool if there were something like: [appDelegate.myTab setSelectedIndex:0 animated:(YES)]; However, there isn't... I can't imagine no one's ever tried this before, but for the life of me, I can't find anything online that explains how this can be done. Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How do I set up the python/c library correctly?

    - by Bartvbl
    I have been trying to get the python/c library to like my mingW compiler. The python online doncumentation; http://docs.python.org/c-api/intro.html#include-files only mentions that I need to import the python.h file. I grabbed it from the installation directory (as is required on the windows platform), and tested it by compiling the script: #include "Python.h". This compiled fine. Next, I tried out the snippet of code shown a bit lower on the python/c API page: PyObject *t; t = PyTuple_New(3); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 0, PyInt_FromLong(1L)); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 1, PyInt_FromLong(2L)); PyTuple_SetItem(t, 2, PyString_FromString("three")); For some reason, the compiler would compile the code if I'd remove the last 4 lines (so that only the pyObject variable definition would be left), yet calling the actual constructor of the tuple returned errors. I am probably missing something completely obvious here, given I am very new to C, but does anyone know what it is?

    Read the article

  • efficient sort with custom comparison, but no callback function

    - by rob
    I have a need for an efficient sort that doesn't have a callback, but is as customizable as using qsort(). What I want is for it to work like an iterator, where it continuously calls into the sort API in a loop until it is done, doing the comparison in the loop rather than off in a callback function. This way the custom comparison is local to the calling function (and therefore has access to local variables, is potentially more efficient, etc). I have implemented this for an inefficient selection sort, but need it to be efficient, so prefer a quick sort derivative. Has anyone done anything like this? I tried to do it for quick sort, but trying to turn the algorithm inside out hurt my brain too much. Below is how it might look in use. // the array of data we are sorting MyData array[5000], *firstP, *secondP; // (assume data is filled in) Sorter sorter; // initialize sorter int result = sortInit (&sorter, array, 5000, (void **)&firstP, (void **)&secondP, sizeof(MyData)); // loop until complete while (sortIteration (&sorter, result) == 0) { // here's where we do the custom comparison...here we // just sort by member "value" but we could do anything result = firstP->value - secondP->value; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237  | Next Page >