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  • NSApp Sheets question in cocoa

    - by califguy
    Hi, Here's what I am trying to do. I need to prompt the user for a password prompt and until he enters the password and hits, say the Enter button on the sheet, I want to prevent the code being parsed in the background. Here's the code to run the sheet and when the user enters the password and hits Enter, endSpeedSheet is run. I am calling all of this from my Main() function. What I am noticing is that the when the main function runs, the sheet shows up, the user is prompted for a password. But in the background, I already see " Code gets here" has been run. This means the code has already run in the background. What I need is the code to wait at the password prompt and then use this password after the Sheet has been dismissed. Any idea's on what I am missing here ? - (IBAction) showSpeedSheet:(id)sender { [NSApp beginSheet:speedSheet modalForWindow:(NSWindow *)window modalDelegate:nil didEndSelector:nil contextInfo:nil]; } -(IBAction)endSpeedSheet:(id)sender { joinPassword = [joinPasswordLabel stringValue]; [NSApp endSheet:speedSheet]; [speedSheet orderOut:sender]; } -(IBAction)main:(id)sender { [self showSpeedSheet:(id)sender]; // More Code here NSLog(@" Code gets here"); }

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  • Clarification on Threads and Run Loops In Cocoa

    - by dubbeat
    I'm trying to learn about threading and I'm thoroughly confused. I'm sure all the answers are there in the apple docs but I just found it really hard to breakdown and digest. Maybe somebody could clear a thing or 2 up for me. 1)performSelectorOnMainThread Does the above simply register an event in the main run loop or is it somehow a new thread even though the method says "mainThread"? If the purpose of threads is to relieve processing on the main thread how does this help? 2) RunLoops Is it true that if I want to create a completely seperate thread I use "detachNewThreadSelector"? Does calling start on this initiate a default run loop for the thread that has been created? If so where do run loops come into it? 3) And Finally , I've seen examples using NSOperationQueue. Is it true to say that If you use performSelectorOnMainThread the threads are in a queue anyway so NSOperation is not needed? 4) Should I forget about all of this and just use the Grand Central Dispatch instead?

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  • How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

    - by Waldo Spek
    I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

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  • Unit testing a method with many possible outcomes

    - by Cthulhu
    I've built a simple~ish method that constructs an URL out of approximately 5 parts: base address, port, path, 'action', and a set of parameters. Out of these, only the address part is mandatory, the other parts are all optional. A valid URL has to come out of the method for each permutation of input parameters, such as: address address port address port path address path address action address path action address port action address port path action address action params address path action params address port action params address port path action params andsoforth. The basic approach for this is to write one unit test for each of these possible outcomes, each unit test passing the address and any of the optional parameters to the method, and testing the outcome against the expected output. However, I wonder, is there a Better (tm) way to handle a case like this? Are there any (good) unit test patterns for this? (rant) I only now realize that I've learned to write unit tests a few years ago, but never really (feel like) I've advanced in the area, and that every unit test is a repeat of building parameters, expected outcome, filling mock objects, calling a method and testing the outcome against the expected outcome. I'm pretty sure this is the way to go in unit testing, but it gets kinda tedious, yanno. Advice on that matter is always welcome. (/rant) (note) christmas weekend approaching, probably won't reply to suggestions until next week. (/note)

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  • How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

    - by Chris
    I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

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  • How to Object Array to List

    - by Peter Black
    (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • C release dynamically allocated memory

    - by user1152463
    I have defined function, which returns multidimensional array. allocation for rows arr = (char **)malloc(size); allocation for columns (in loop) arr[i] = (char *)malloc(v); and returning type is char** Everything works fine, except freeing the memory. If I call free(arr[i]) and/or free(arr) on array returned by function, it crashes. Thanks for help EDIT:: allocating fuction pole = malloc(zaznamov); char ulica[52], t[52], datum[10]; float dan; int i = 0, v; *max = 0; while (!is_eof(f)) { get_record(t, ulica, &dan, datum, f); v = strlen(ulica) - 1; pole[i] = malloc(v); strcpy(pole[i], ulica); pole[i][v] = '\0'; if (v > *max) { *max = v; } i++; } return pole;` part of main where i am calling function pole = function(); releasing memory int i; for (i = 0; i < zaznamov; i++) { free(pole[i]); pole[i] = NULL; } free(pole); pole = NULL;

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  • Synchronous Android activities

    - by rayman
    Ive made mis-leading topic in my last question, so i open this new question to clear what I realy want. sorry for the inconvenience. I wanna run two system(Android) activities one after another in specific order from my main activity. now as we know, startActivity is an asynchronous operation, so i cant keep on a specific order. so i thought maybe I should try to do it with dialogBox in the middle but also running a dialogBox is an asynchronous. now as i said the activities which i try to run are Android activities, so i cant even start them with startActivityForResult (or mybe i can, but i dont get any result back to my main(calling) activity) Any tricks how could i manage with this issue? Some code: first activity: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setAction(Settings.ACTION_APPLICATION_SETTINGS); startActivity(intent); second activity: Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(tmpPackageFile .getAbsoluteFile()), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); startActivity(intent); as you can see, i dont have any access to those activites, i can just run thire intents from my main activity.

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  • Is private method in spring service implement class thread safe

    - by Roger Ray
    I got a service in an project using Spring framework. public class MyServiceImpl implements IMyService { public MyObject foo(SomeObject obj) { MyObject myobj = this.mapToMyObject(obj); myobj.setLastUpdatedDate(new Date()); return myobj; } private MyObject mapToMyObject(SomeObject obj){ MyObject myojb = new MyObject(); ConvertUtils.register(new MyNullConvertor(), String.class); ConvertUtils.register(new StringConvertorForDateType(), Date.class); BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class); return myojb; } } Then I got a class to call foo() in multi-thread; There goes the problem. In some of the threads, I got error when calling BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); saying Cannot invoke com.my.MyObject.setStartDate - java.lang.ClassCastException@2da93171 obviously, this is caused by ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class) which is supposed to be called after BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. It looks like one of the threads deregistered the Date class out while another thread was just about to call BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. So My question is how do I make the private method mapToMyObject() thread safe? Or simply make the BeanUtils thread safe when it's used in a private method. And will the problem still be there if I keep the code this way but instead I call this foo() method in sevlet? If many sevlets call at the same time, would this be a multi-thread case as well?

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  • Dropdown list bound to object data source - how to update on a button click

    - by Jen
    This is probably something really stupidly simple.. I have a drop down list bound to an object data source. I have set AppendDataBoundItems to true so that I can have an initial select. <asp:DropDownList ID="Accommodations1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" DataTextField="AccommodationTypeDescription" DataValueField="Id" OnDataBound="Accommodations1_DataBound" onSelectedIndexChanged="Accommodations1_SelectedIndexChanged" Width="200px" DataSourceID="AccommodationDs" AppendDataBoundItems="true"> <asp:ListItem Text="Select" Value=""></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="AccommodationDs" runat="server" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="ListByPropertyId" TypeName="PropertyAccommodationController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="PropertyId" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> I have a button which adds an accommodaton - so after that happens I need the dropdown list to update to include the new accommodation. So I've tried calling databind on the dropdownlist, and databind on the datasource - and nothing is making this dropdown list update. eg. PropertyAccommodations1.DataBind(); Could someone please let me know what I'm doing wrong. Originally I thought it was due to an update panel issue.. but I've removed the update panel and it still doesn't work (and checked the master page doesn't include an update panel). Thanks!!

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  • Multiple plugin instance loading with MEF

    - by Dave
    In my last application, using MEF to load plugins went just fine, but now I'm running into a new issue. I have a solution for it that I explain at the end of this question, but I'm looking for other ways to do it. Let's say I have an interface called ApplianceInterface. I also have two plugins that inherit from ApplianceInterface, let's call them Blender and Processor. Now, I would like to have multiple Blenders and Processors in my application, but I am not sure how to instantiate them properly. Before, I would simply use the ImportMany attribute and upon calling ComposeParts, my application would load Blender and Processor. For example: [ImportMany(typeof(ApplianceInterface))] private IEnumerable<ApplianceInterface> Appliances { get; set; } and my Blender and Processor plugins would be attributed like this: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(typeof(MyInterface)] public class Blender : ApplianceInterface { ... } but what this ends up doing for me is populating Appliances with one Blender and one Processor. I need to be able to create an arbitrary number of Blender and Processor objects. Now, from the documentation I understand that [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] is what allows MEF to create a new instance each time, but is there a similar "magical" way to create a specific number of instances of something using MEF? Up until now, I've relied on [Import] and [ImportMany] to resolve the assemblies. Is my only option to use a global container, and then resolve the export manually using GetExportedValue<? I have tried GetExportedValue< and that implementation does work fine for me, but I was just curious if there is a better, more accepted way to do it.

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

    - by Rod
    HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

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  • How not to lose binding source updates?

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    Suppose I have a modal dialog with a textbox and OK/Cancel buttons. And it is built on MVVM - i.e. it has a ViewModel object with a string property that the textbox is bound to. Say, I enter some text in the textbox and then grab my mouse and click "OK". Everything works fine: at the moment of click, the textbox loses focus, which causes the binding engine to update the ViewModel's property. I get my data, everybody's happy. Now suppose I don't use my mouse. Instead, I just hit Enter on the keyboard. This also causes the "OK" button to "click", since it is marked as IsDefault="True". But guess what? The textbox doesn not lose focus in this case, and therefore, the binding engine remains innocently ignorant, and I don't get my data. Dang! Another variation of the same scenario: suppose I have a data entry form right in the main window, enter some data into it, and then hit Ctrl+S for "Save". Guess what? My latest entry doesn't get saved! This may be somewhat remedied by using UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, but that is not always possible. One obvious case would be the use of StringFormat with binding - the text keeps jumping back into "formatted" state as I'm trying to enter it. And another case, which I have encountered myself, is when I have some time-consuming processing in the viewmodel's property setter, and I only want to perform it when the user is "done" entering text. This seems like an eternal problem: I remember trying to solve it systematically from ages ago, ever since I've started working with interactive interfaces, but I've never quite succeeded. In the past, I always ended up using some sort of hacks - like, say, adding an "EnsureDataSaved" method to every "presenter" (as in "MVP") and calling it at "critical" points, or something like that... But with all the cool technologies, as well as empty hype, of WPF, I expected they'd come up with some good solution.

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  • Flex component setActualSize

    - by dlots
    I am a little confused about the setActualSize method. It appears from what I've read, that if it is not called on a component by its parent, the component will not be rendered. So it appears that setActualSize is a critical method that is directly bound to rendering the UIComponent. It also appears that the width and height properties of UIComponent override the functionality of the width and height properties of flash.display.DisplayObject, in that they are not directly bound to the rendering of the object but are virtual values that are mainly used by the getExplicitOrMeasured when the parent of the component calls the component's setActualSize method. So the question are: 1) Why isn't the default behavior of every component to just call setActualSize(getExplicitOrMeasuredWidth(),getExplicitOrMeasuredHeight()) on itself? 2) I guess this question stems from the above question and the behavior as I understand it as described above: does setActualSize change the visibility of the component? It appears that that the behavior is that a component is not rendered until setActualSize is called, but if it contains display object children itself (expected behavior as it can calculate measure on itself) and is added to the display list, the only reason why flash isn't rendering it, is because its not visible. 3) Relating to question #1, does updateDisplayList of UIComponent have a method that goes through its children calling setActualSize on each of them?

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  • WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

    - by Tom Bushell
    My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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  • Formatting the output of a custom tool so I can double click an error in Visual Studio and the file opens

    - by Ben Scott
    I've written a command line tool that preprocesses a number of files then compiles them using CodeDom. The tool writes a copyright notice and some progress text to the standard output, then writes any errors from the compilation step using the following format: foreach (var err in results.Errors) { // err is CompilerError var filename = "Path\To\input_file.xprt"; Console.WriteLine(string.Format( "{0} ({1},{2}): {3}{4} ({5})", filename, err.Line, err.Column, err.IsWarning ? "" : "ERROR: ", err.ErrorText, err.ErrorNumber)); } It then writes the number of errors, like "14 errors". This is an example of how the error appears in the console: Path\To\input_file.xrpt (73,28): ERROR: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'Some.Object.get' (CS0120) When I run this as a custom tool in VS2008 (by calling it in the post-build event command line of one of my project's assemblies), the errors appear nicely formatted in the Error List, with the correct text in each column. When I roll over the filename the fully qualified path pops up. The line and column are different to the source file because of the preprocessing which is fine. The only thing that stands out is that the Project given in the list is the one that has the post-build event. The problem is that when I double click an error, nothing happens. I would have expected the file to open in the editor. I'm vaugely aware of the Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.Interop namespace but I think it should be possible just by writing to the standard output.

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • How to convert a list object to bigdecimal in prepared statement?

    - by user1103504
    I am using prepared statement for bulk insertion of records. Iam iterating a list which contains values and their dataTypes differ. One of the data type is BigDecimal and when i try to set calling preparedstatement, it is throwing null pointer exception. My code int count = 1; for (int j = 0; j < list.size(); j++) { if(list.get(j) instanceof Timestamp) { ps.setTimestamp(count, (Timestamp) list.get(j)); } else if(list.get(j) instanceof java.lang.Character) { ps.setString(count, String.valueOf(list.get(j))); } else if(list.get(j) instanceof java.math.BigDecimal) { ps.setBigDecimal(count, (java.math.BigDecimal)list.get(j)); } else { ps.setObject(count, list.get(j)); } count++; } I tried 2 ways to convert, casting the object and tried to create a new object of type BigDecimal ps.setBigDecimal(count, new BigDecimal(list.get(j).toString)); both donot solve my problem. It is throwing null pointer exception. help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to copy a variable in JavaScript?

    - by Michael Stum
    I have this JavaScript code: for (var idx in data) { var row = $("<tr></tr>"); row.click(function() { alert(idx); }); table.append(row); } So I'm looking through an array, dynamically creating rows (the part where I create the cells is omitted as it's not important). Important is that I create a new function which encloses the idx variable. However, idx is only a reference, so at the end of the loop, all rows have the same function and all alert the same value. One way I solve this at the moment is by doing this: function GetRowClickFunction(idx){ return function() { alert(idx); } } and in the calling code I call row.click(GetRowClickFunction(idx)); This works, but is somewhat ugly. I wonder if there is a better way to just copy the current value of idx inside the loop? While the problem itself is not jQuery specific (it's related to JavaScript closures/scope), I use jQuery and hence a jQuery-only solution is okay if it works.

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  • Exporting and reformatting data out of MS Excel

    - by Matt H
    I have a huge Excel spreadsheet containing telephone calling rates to a number of different countries. The format of the columns is: Country, RateLocality, Prefixes, Rate, Wholesale e.g. Afganistan, Default, 93;930;931;9321;9322;9323;9324;9325;9326;9327;9328;9329;9331;9332;9333;9334;9335;9336;9337;9338;9339;9341;9342;9343;9344;9345;9346;9347;9348;9349;9351;9352;9353;9354;9355;9356;9357;9358;9359;9361;9362;9363;9364;9365;9366;9367;9368;9369;9371;9372;9373;9374;9376;938;939; $ 1.023, $0.455 These rates change every so often and I need to get them into another system that can import them using CSV. The eventual format is: LD PREPEND CODE ie. 00 or 011,CountryCode,Area Code,Comment,Connect Cost,Included Seconds,Per Minute Cost,Pricelist,Increment So to convert that above line I'd have 00,"Afganistan",93,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 00,"Afganistan",931,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 ... 00,"Afganistan",939,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 Where 00, 60 and 10 are hard coded and merged with the other data from excel. How can I export this data into the required format given that I need to reformat it as it goes. Should I export to XML and use XSLT or some other process to massage the data into CSV? If that is the case, how do I do it simply and quickly.

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  • What's the proper approach for writing multi-path "story" flows?

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I wonder if you can help me. I'm writing a game (2d) which allows players to take multiple routes, some of which branch/merge - perhaps even loop. Each section of the game will decide which section is loaded next. I'm calling each section an IStoryElement - And I'm wondering how best to link these elements up in a way that is easily changed/configured and at the same time, graphable I'm going to have an engine/factory assembly which will load the appropriate StoryElement(s) based on various config options. I initially planned to give each StoryElement a NextElement() As IStoryElement property and a Completed() event. When the vent fires, the engine reads the NextElement property to find the next StoryElement. The downside to this is that if I ever wanted to graph all the routes through the game, I would be unable to - I couldn't determine all possible targets for each StoryElement. I considered a couple of other solutions but they all feel a little clunky - eg Do I need an additional layer of abstraction? ie StoryElementPlayers or similar - Each one would be responsible for stringing together multiple StoryElement perhaps a Series and a ChoicePlayer with each responsible for graphing its own StoryElement - But this will just move the problem up a layer. In short, I need some way of emulating a simple but dynamic workflow (but I'd rather not actually use WWF). Is there a pattern for something this simple? All the ones I've managed to find relate to more advanced control flow (parallel processing, etc.)

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • How do I check if a scalar has a compiled regex in it with Perl?

    - by Robert P
    Let's say I have a subroutine/method that a user can call to test some data that (as an example) might look like this: sub test_output { my ($self, $test) = @_; my $output = $self->long_process_to_get_data(); if ($output =~ /\Q$test/) { $self->assert_something(); } else { $self->do_something_else(); } } Normally, $test is a string, which we're looking for anywhere in the output. This was an interface put together to make calling it very easy. However, we've found that sometimes, a straight string is problematic - for example, a large, possibly varying number of spaces...a pattern, if you will. Thus, I'd like to let them pass in a regex as an option. I could just do: $output =~ $test if I could assume that it's always a regex, but ah, but the backwards compatibility! If they pass in a string, it still needs to test it like a raw string. So in that case, I'll need to test to see if $test is a regex. Is there any good facility for detecting whether or not a scalar has a compiled regex in it?

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