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  • Gnome 3 application Icons disappeared

    - by robin.koch
    I edited my main menu settings (unchecked items inside a sub menu) when it happened that the window freezed and all entries on the left side disappeared (Office, System, Settings, Games, ...). I didn't think much about it, but when I restarted my computer all application entries in my menu and my favorites (quickstart bar on the left side) where gone. When I go to activities - applications I just see the "All" entry without any items to click on. ~/.config/menu/gnome-applications.menu is an empty file and ~/.config/menu/gnome-settings.menu has the folowing content: <!DOCTYPE Menu PUBLIC '-//freedesktop//DTD Menu 1.0//EN' 'http://standards.freedesktop.org/menu-spec/menu-1.0.dtd'> <Menu> <Name>Desktop</Name> <MergeFile type="parent">/etc/xdg/menus/gnome-settings.menu</MergeFile> </Menu> I also looked into the files under /etc/xdg/menus. They look like template files without any reference to actual installed programs. I assume that due to a bug it deleted all my menu settings. Is there any way to restore at least the default menu? Or are there any other places to look for my old configuration?

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  • How to run a restricted set of programs with Administrator privileges without giving up Admin acces (Win7 Pro)

    - by frLich
    I have a shared system, running Windows7 X64, restricted to a 'standard user' with no password. Not everyone who has access to the system has the administrator password. This works rather well, except for some applications - specially the unlock-applications for encrypted hard drives/USB flash drives. The specific ones either require Administrator access (eg. Seagate Blackarmor) or simply fail without it -- since these programs are sending raw commands to a device, this is to be expected. I would like to be able to add the hashes of these particular programs to a whitelist, and have them run as administrator without needing any prompts. Since these are by definition on removable media, I can't simply use a filename or even a path. One of the users who shares the system can be considered 'crafty', so anything which temporarily grants administrator rights to an user account is certain to cause problems. What i'd like to be able to do: 1) Create an admin account that can only run programs from a whitelist (or, failing that, from a directory) I can't find a good way to do this: As far as I can tell, SRP applies equally to ALL users? Even if I put a "Deny" token on all directories on the system, such that new directories would inherit it, it could still potentially run things from the mounted USB devices. I also don't know whether it's possible to create a new directory that DOESN'T inherit from the parent, that would lake the deny token, and provide admin access. 2) Find a lightweight service that will run these programs in its local context Windows7 seems to block cross-privilege level communication by default, and I haven't found such for windows 7. One example seems to be "sudo" (http://pages.cpsc.ucalgary.ca/~nfriess/sudo/) but because it uses a WLNOTIFY hook, it won't work under Vista nor Windows7 Non-Solutions: - RunAs: Requires administrator password! (but everyone calls it "sudo" anyway) - SuRun: From Google: "Surun uses its own Windows service that adds the user to the group of administrators during program start and removes him automatically from that group again"

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  • Server high CPU load issue! ( Cpanel + CentOS 5)

    - by kenby
    Our server cpu load is high todays sometimes reaches to 560! .. We have the lastest Cpanel/whm and the kernel is update!while the load average is : Load Averages: 39.05 75.01 45.33 the apache log is: Current Time: Sunday, 30-Jan-2011 01:50:13 EST Restart Time: Saturday, 29-Jan-2011 21:51:20 EST Parent Server Generation: 2 Server uptime: 3 hours 58 minutes 53 seconds Total accesses: 149493 - Total Traffic: 2.4 GB CPU Usage: u9.17 s10.66 cu42.82 cs0 - .437% CPU load 10.4 requests/sec - 174.6 kB/second - 16.7 kB/request 121 requests currently being processed, 42 idle workers W_WWW.W_..W.W_W_WCWW..W...W.WWW.WWWW.WW.C_W_.W.WW.WC..W.WW.WW .W.W.W...WWWW...WW.CC.C.._W.WC.WW_WW._W....W.WWW.W.WWW.W..W WW.....WW.W_WWWWW..WCRW..WWCW.WWW__.WWWWCW_W._._WW_W...W...W _W..W..WW.W...._W..._WW.W.WWW.._W.WWW.WWW....WW_.C...W._ Scoreboard Key: "_" Waiting for Connection, "S" Starting up, "R" Reading Request, "W" Sending Reply, "K" Keepalive (read), "D" DNS Lookup, "C" Closing connection, "L" Logging, "G" Gracefully finishing, "I" Idle cleanup of worker, "." Open slot with no current process What cause this high cpu load while the apache cpu load is fine? the mysql process is also fine.. the cpu load is still high even if I stop mail-http-mysql services!

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  • Server load increases by lot of httpd request with same PID

    - by user3740955
    I can see that my server load increases to more than 200-300 range. Before 1 week the maximum load was around 20-25. In top and ps -ef i can see a lot of httpd threads and the PPID of most of the httpd request are of the same PID. When i verified this the parent process ID is of root. Please let me know how i can reduce the server load. I have searched a lot for this but not able to find out a proper solution for this. Please let me know. Please see below a part of the top output. apache 29698 2062 1 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29700 2062 3 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29701 2062 10 16:54 ? 00:00:02 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29702 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29703 2062 1 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29705 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29706 2062 3 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29707 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29708 2062 1 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29709 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29710 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29711 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd apache 29712 2062 0 16:54 ? 00:00:00 /usr/sbin/httpd Server version: Apache/2.2.3

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  • Can't start my phpMyAdmin

    - by vrynxzent
    i am creating my own portable server but i can't make it to run the phpMyAdmin, the mysql, php and apache is running except for phpMyAdmin. When i check Apache's error log, it states [Fri Nov 09 08:54:37 2012] [warn] pid file F:/Drive WebServer/Drive WebServer/bin/Debug/Apache2bak/logs/httpd.pid overwritten -- Unclean shutdown of previous Apache run? PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library './php_mysql.dll' - The specified module could not be found.\r\n in Unknown on line 0 PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library './php_mysqli.dll' - The specified module could not be found.\r\n in Unknown on line 0 [Fri Nov 09 08:54:37 2012] [notice] Apache/2.0.64 (Win32) PHP/5.2.17 configured -- resuming normal operations [Fri Nov 09 08:54:37 2012] [notice] Server built: Oct 18 2010 01:36:23 [Fri Nov 09 08:54:37 2012] [notice] Parent: Created child process 6784 i manually assign the exact path for this F:/php/ext/php_mysql.dll PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library 'F:/php/ext/php_mysql.dll' - The specified module could not be found.\r\n in Unknown on line 0 but still the same error. i set this option in php.ini extension_dir = "./" another error goes pops out It says libmysql.dll is missing. PHP Version : 5.2.17 Any help would be appreciated. ;)

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  • A duplicate name has been detected on the TCP network

    - by MSedm
    When I installed my domain controller and DNS, I had 2 NIC on the server. Both NIC has its own IP address. NICs are not teamed, they are seperate and ip address are in the same subnet. Both IP address are now registered in the DNS. i found them in Forward and reverse lookup zone. Everything working ok except the following error in the event log. "A duplicate name has been detected on the TCP network......" Now I have realized that this is because of the second NIC. My question is if i disable the second NIC, what happen to those DNS record assiciated with the second ip address? How do I remove all the DNS recored for the disabled NIC? There are A record, some record with the name (same as parent folder), PTR record and may be more. How do i disable second NIC and remove all the associated DNS recoreds? Please help.

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  • Folder Sharing NTFS permissions with Share Permission

    - by Muhammad Adly
    i have a problem on my domain, the history starting from when i had a server with WIN 2008 r2 installed with the following roles installed on it (AD, DNS, DHCP, File). From 1 month i decided to install a new server 2008 r2 server to get (AD, DNS, DHCP) and leave the file server on the old one. i did the following exactly: 1) robocopy all my data on external HDD 2) Install a new server with 2008 r2 3) transfer all 5 roles to transfer the domain to the new server (MainDC) 4) issue (NETLOGON, SYSVOL) not transferred but i decided to reinitialize them again an now they are operating (MainDC) 5) re-create and re-configure a new GPOs and link it to my OUs 6) reinstall Old server operating system with a fresh installation of WIN 2008 R2 (FileServer) 7) join my domain with my domain credentials. the issue when i tried to share folder on \fileserver the permissions that i had set in sharing permissions are applied on the main shared folder and subfolders. the security settings are not applied. i.e. Say i'm sharing \fileserver\MainFolder with sharing permission for Authenticated Users that can read, so every one can read this main shared folder, if i set security permission for \fileserver\MainFolder\User1 that User1 can Read\Write\Modify. User1 can not perform this processes when accessing it from Network Share, i tried alot of steps from topics online get ownership for folder, remove inheritance from parent folder, applying changes for child objects, i tried also to construct a new folder structure but also the same issue, i tried another host PC, also i get the same issue.

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  • Is there a way to measure wifi traffic on a network from a client?

    - by millimoose
    Is there some way (preferrably one that comes with an existing tool) to measure the traffic going through the whole WiFi network from a computer connected to it? (That is, not from the AP or something between the modem and AP.) My situation is this: a few months back, the internet connection at my parent's place got really sluggish and laggy. (Lag spikes that cause page loads to time out etc, connections plain getting lost and dropping packets forever.) It's impossible to get mom's husband to do anything about this because he brushes this off with something like "just tell your sister to turn off torrents". Unfortunately the WiFi router's firmware doesn't do traffic logging. I'm not going to risk bricking it to put WRT on it; nor am I keen on rewiring the network to add a proxy to analyse the traffic. (I'm one of those people that make computers break just by looking at them, except machines I own.) I'd like to be able to find out roughly how much data is going over the air here while all the LAN wires are out of the router, all the computers accused of torrenting are off, etc. The idea is to either show that: Even if everything but my macbook is turned off, something is congesting the network. The husband is a systems developer and has a whole lot of mysterious hardware that's not to be touched around, one of them might be culprit. There is barely any traffic on the network, but the internet is still sluggish. Meaning this is likely a problem the ISP should solve. (Some hardware of theirs being glitchy, someone on an aggregated line hogging it constantly...) The network is encrypted, but I can temporarily set it to open for the sake of finding this out. So, in conclusion? Can this be done? Or is there some alternative way I could try to diagnose the problem?

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  • Qt vs WPF/.NET

    - by aaronc
    My company is trying to make the decision between using Qt/C++ for our GUI framework or migrating to .NET and using WPF. We have up to this point been using MFC. It seems that .NET/WPF is technically the most advanced and feature-rich platform. I do, however, have several concerns. These include: Platform support Framework longevity (i.e. future-proofing) Performance and overhead For this application we are willing to sacrifice support for Windows 2000, Macs, and Linux. But, the issue is more related to Microsoft's commitment to the framework and their extant platforms. It seems like Microsoft has a bad habit of coming up with something new, hyping it for a few years, and then relegating it to the waste-bin essentially abandoning the developers who chose it. First it was MFC and VB6, then Windows Forms, and now there's WPF. Also with .NET, versions of Windows were progressively nicked off the support list. Looks like WPF could be here to stay for a while, but since its not open source its really in Microsoft's hands. I'm also concerned about the overhead and performance of WPF since some of our applications involve processing large amounts of information and doing real-time data capture. Qt seems like a really good option, but it doesn't have all the features of WPF/.NET couldn't use languages like C#. Basically, what does the community think about Microsoft's commitment to WPF compared with previous frameworks? Are the performance considerations significant enough to avoid using it for a realtime app? And, how significant are the benefits of WPF/.NET in terms of productivity and features compared to Qt?

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  • How do I filter out NaN FLOAT values in Teradata SQL?

    - by Paul Hooper
    With the Teradata database, it is possible to load values of NaN, -Inf, and +Inf into FLOAT columns through Java. Unfortunately, once those values get into the tables, they make life difficult when writing SQL that needs to filter them out. There is no IsNaN() function, nor can you "CAST ('NaN' as FLOAT)" and use an equality comparison. What I would like to do is, SELECT SUM(VAL**2) FROM DTM WHERE NOT ABS(VAL) > 1e+21 AND NOT VAL = CAST ('NaN' AS FLOAT) but that fails with error 2620, "The format or data contains a bad character.", specifically on the CAST. I've tried simply "... AND NOT VAL = 'NaN'", which also fails for a similar reason (3535, "A character string failed conversion to a numeric value."). I cannot seem to figure out how to represent NaN within the SQL statement. Even if I could represent NaN successfully in an SQL statement, I would be concerned that the comparison would fail. According to the IEEE 754 spec, NaN = NaN should evaluate to false. What I really seem to need is an IsNaN() function. Yet that function does not seem to exist.

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  • Partial template specialization of free functions - best practices

    - by Poita_
    As most C++ programmers should know, partial template specialization of free functions is disallowed. For example, the following is illegal C++: template <class T, int N> T mul(const T& x) { return x * N; } template <class T> T mul<T, 0>(const T& x) { return T(0); } // error: function template partial specialization ‘mul<T, 0>’ is not allowed However, partial template specialization of classes/structs is allowed, and can be exploited to mimic the functionality of partial template specialization of free functions. For example, the target objective in the last example can be achieved by using: template <class T, int N> struct mul_impl { static T fun(const T& x) { return x * N; } }; template <class T> struct mul_impl<T, 0> { static T fun(const T& x) { return T(0); } }; template <class T, int N> T mul(const T& x) { return mul_impl<T, N>::fun(x); } It's more bulky and less concise, but it gets the job done -- and as far as users of mul are concerned, they get the desired partial specialization. My questions is: when writing templated free functions (that are intended to be used by others), should you automatically delegate the implementation to a static method function of a class, so that users of your library may implement partial specializations at will, or do you just write the templated function the normal way, and live with the fact that people won't be able to specialize them?

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  • Getting fields_for and accepts_nested_attributes_for to work with a belongs_to relationship

    - by Billy Gray
    I cannot seem to get a nested form to generate in a rails view for a belongs_to relationship using the new accepts_nested_attributes_for facility of Rails 2.3. I did check out many of the resources available and it looks like my code should be working, but fields_for explodes on me, and I suspect that it has something to do with how I have the nested models configured. The error I hit is a common one that can have many causes: '@account[owner]' is not allowed as an instance variable name Here are the two models involved: class Account < ActiveRecord::Base # Relationships belongs_to :owner, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'owner_id' accepts_nested_attributes_for :owner has_many :users end class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account end Perhaps this is where I am doing it 'rong', as an Account can have an 'owner', and may 'users', but a user only has one 'account', based on the user model account_id key. This is the view code in new.html.haml that blows up on me: - form_for :account, :url => account_path do |account| = account.text_field :name - account.fields_for :owner do |owner| = owner.text_field :name And this is the controller code for the new action: class AccountsController < ApplicationController # GET /account/new def new @account = Account.new end end When I try to load /account/new I get the following exception: NameError in Accounts#new Showing app/views/accounts/new.html.haml where line #63 raised: @account[owner] is not allowed as an instance variable name If I try to use the mysterious 'build' method, it just bombs out in the controller, perhaps because build is just for multi-record relationships: class AccountsController < ApplicationController # GET /account/new def new @account = Account.new @account.owner.build end end You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.build If I try to set this up using @account.owner_attributes = {} in the controller, or @account.owner = User.new, I'm back to the original error, "@account[owner] is not allowed as an instance variable name". Does anybody else have the new accepts_nested_attributes_for method working with a belongs_to relationship? Is there something special or different you have to do? All the official examples and sample code (like the great stuff over at Ryans Scraps) is concerned with multi-record associations.

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  • cookieless sessions with ajax

    - by thezver
    ok, i know you get sick from this subject. me too :( I've been developing a quite "big application" with PHP & kohana framework past 2 years, somewhat-successfully using my framework's authentication mechanism. but within this time, and as the app grown, many concerning state-preservation issues arisen. main problems are that cookie-driven sessions: can't be used for web-service access ( at least it's really not nice to do so.. ) in many cases problematic with mobile access don't allow multiple simultaneous apps on same browser ( can be resolved by hard trickery, but still.. ) requires many configurations and mess to work 100% right, and that's without the --browser issues ( disabled cookies, old browsers bugs & vulnerabilities etc ) many other session flaws stated in this old thread : http://lists.nyphp.org/pipermail/talk/2006-December/020358.html After a really long research, and without any good library/on-hand-solution to feet my needs, i came up with a custom solution to majority of those problems . Basically, i'ts about emulating sessions with ajax calls, with additional security/performance measures: state preserved by interchanging SID(+hash) with client on ajax calls. state data saved in memcache(or equivalent), indexed by SID security achieved by: appending unpredictible hash to SID egenerating hash on each request & validating it validating fingerprint of client on each request ( referrer,os,browser etc) (*)condition: ajax calls are not simultaneous, to prevent race-condition with session token. (hopefully Ext-Direct solves that for me) From the first glance that supposed to be not-less-secure than equivalent cookie-driven implementation, and at the same time it's simple, maintainable, and resolves all the cookies flaws.. But i'm really concerned because i often hear the rule "don't try to implement custom security solutions". I will really appreciate any serious feedback about my method, and any alternatives. also, any tip about how to preserve state on page-refresh without cookies would be great :) but thats small technical prob. Sorry if i overlooked some similar post.. there are billions of them about sessions . Big thanks in advance ( and for reading until here ! ).

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  • Improving long-polling Ajax performance

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm writing a webapp (Firefox-compatible only) which uses long polling (via jQuery's ajax abilities) to send more-or-less constant updates from the server to the client. I'm concerned about the effects of leaving this running for long periods of time, say, all day or overnight. The basic code skeleton is this: function processResults(xml) { // do stuff with the xml from the server } function fetch() { setTimeout(function () { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'foo/bar/baz', dataType: 'xml', success: function (xml) { processResults(xml); fetch(); }, error: function (xhr, type, exception) { if (xhr.status === 0) { console.log('XMLHttpRequest cancelled'); } else { console.debug(xhr); fetch(); } } }); }, 500); } (The half-second "sleep" is so that the client doesn't hammer the server if the updates are coming back to the client quickly - which they usually are.) After leaving this running overnight, it tends to make Firefox crawl. I'd been thinking that this could be partially caused by a large stack depth since I've basically written an infinitely recursive function. However, if I use Firebug and throw a breakpoint into fetch, it looks like this is not the case. The stack that Firebug shows me is only about 4 or 5 frames deep, even after an hour. One of the solutions I'm considering is changing my recursive function to an iterative one, but I can't figure out how I would insert the delay in between Ajax requests without spinning. I've looked at the JS 1.7 "yield" keyword but I can't quite wrap my head around it, to figure out if it's what I need here. Is the best solution just to do a hard refresh on the page periodically, say, once every hour? Is there a better/leaner long-polling design pattern that won't put a hurt on the browser even after running for 8 or 12 hours? Or should I just skip the long polling altogether and use a different "constant update" pattern since I usually know how frequently the server will have a response for me?

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  • Dynamically loaded control - how can I access a value in Page_Init

    - by Sam
    I am loading a LinkButton dynamically when a user clicks on another LinkButton. I am attaching an event handler to it. When the user clicks on the dynamically loaded LinkButton, the event does not fire. From what I've been reading, I understand this is because when the page posts back the dynamically loaded control no longer exists. It looks like I'm supposed to make sure this control is recreated in Page_Init. The dynamically created LinkButton is dependedent on a value (Product ID). I need someway to access this value so I can properly create the control. ViewState is not accessible and I'm concerned if I use Session it could time out and then that wouldn't help. Any ideas? Also, I hardcoded a Product ID value just for testing, and that still did not cause the event to fire. Is there something else I need to do? protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { SetTabText(1, 1); } SetTabText calls SetActionLinks which creates the LinkButton: protected Panel SetActionLinks(int prodID, int tabID) { ... LinkButton lnkBtn = new LinkButton(); lnkBtn.ID = "lnkBtn" + rand.Next().ToString(); lnkBtn.CommandName = "action"; lnkBtn.Command += new CommandEventHandler(this.lnkAction_Command); panel.Controls.Add(lnkBtn); ... } void lnkAction_Command(object sender, CommandEventArgs e) { LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)sender; switch (btn.CommandArgument) { AddCart(); } }

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  • Store comparison in variable (or execute comparison when it's given as an string)

    - by BorrajaX
    Hello everyone. I'd like to know if the super-powerful python allows to store a comparison in a variable or, if not, if it's possible calling/executing a comparison when given as an string ("==" or "!=") I want to allow the users of my program the chance of giving a comparison in an string. For instance, let's say I have a list of... "products" and the user wants to select the products whose manufacturer is "foo". He could would input something like: Product.manufacturer == "foo" and if the user wants the products whose manufacturer is not "bar" he would input Product.manufacturer != "bar" If the user inputs that line as an string, I create a tree with an structure like: != / \ manufacturer bar I'd like to allow that comparison to run properly, but I don't know how to make it happen if != is an string. The "manufacturer" field is a property, so I can properly get it from the Product class and store it (as a property) in the leaf, and well... "bar" is just an string. I'd like to know if I can something similar to what I do with "manufacturer": storing it with a 'callable" (kind of) thing: the property with the comparator: != I have tried with "eval" and it may work, but the comparisons are going to be actually used to query a MySQL database (using sqlalchemy) and I'm a bit concerned about the security of that... Any idea will be deeply appreciated. Thank you! PS: The idea of all this is being able to generate a sqlalchemy query, so if the user inputs the string: Product.manufacturer != "foo" || Product.manufacturer != "bar" ... my tree thing can generate the following: sqlalchemy.or_(Product.manufacturer !="foo", Product.manufacturer !="bar") Since sqlalchemy.or_ is callable, I can also store it in one of the leaves... I only see a problem with the "!="

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  • Python: some newbie questions on sys.stderr and using function as argument

    - by Cawas
    I'm just starting on Python and maybe I'm worrying too much too soon, but anyways... log = "/tmp/trefnoc.log" def logThis (text, display=""): msg = str(now.strftime("%Y-%m-%d %H:%M")) + " TREfNOC: " + text if display != None: print msg + display logfile = open(log, "a") logfile.write(msg + "\n") logfile.close() return msg def logThisAndExit (text, display=""): msg = logThis(text, display=None) sys.exit(msg + display) That is working, but I don't like how it looks. Is there a better way to write this (maybe with just 1 function) and is there any other thing I should be concerned under exiting? Now to some background... Sometimes I will call logThis just to log and display. Other times I want to call it and exit. Initially I was doing this: logThis ("ERROR. EXITING") sys.exit() Then I figured that wouldn't properly set the stderr, thus the current code shown on the top. My first idea was actually passing "sys.exit" as an argument, and defining just logThis ("ERROR. EXITING", call=sys.exit) defined as following (showing just the relevant differenced part): def logThis (text, display="", call=print): msg = str(now.strftime("%Y-%m-%d %H:%M")) + " TREfNOC: " + text call msg + display But that obviously didn't work. I think Python doesn't store functions inside variables. I couldn't (quickly) find anywhere if Python can have variables taking functions or not! Maybe using an eval function? I really always try to avoid them, tho. Sure I thought of using if instead of another def, but that wouldn't be any better or worst. Anyway, any thoughts?

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  • C++ behavior of for loops vs. while loops

    - by kjh
    As far as I understand, when you write a for-loop similar to this one for (int i = 0; i < SOME_NUM; i++) { if (true) do_something(); else do_something_else(); } The time complexity of this operation is mostly affected by the if (true) statement because the for-loop iterations don't actually involve any comparisons of i to SOME_NUM, the compiler will just essentially run the code inside the for-loop SOME_NUM times. Please correct me if I am wrong. However if this is correct, then how do the following nested for-loops behave? for (int i = 0; i < SOME_NUM; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { do_something(); } } The j in the inner for-loop is now upper bound by i, a value that changes every time the loop restarts. How will the compiler compile this? Do these nested for-loops essentially behave like a for-loop with while-loop inside of it? If you're writing an algorithm that uses nested for-loops where the inner counting variable depends on the outer counting variable should you be concerned about what this will do to the complexity of your algorithm?

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  • Suggestions for entering mobile development -- pure iPhone SDK, Android SDK, Mono Touch or Titanium

    - by Tom Cabanski
    I am entering mobile development. I have been working primarily in .NET since 1.0 came out in beta. Before that, I was mostly a C++ and Delphi guy and still dabble in C++ from time to time. I do web apps quite a bit so I am reasonably proficient with Javascript, JQuery and CSS. I have also done a few Java applications. I started web programming with CGI and live mostly in the ASP.NET MVC world these days. I am trying to decide on which platform/OS and tool to select. I am concerned with the size of the market available for my applications as well as the marketibility of the skills I will pick up. The apps I have in mind would work on both phones and pads. Some aspects of what I have in mind will play better on the bigger screens that will be available on pads. Here are the options I am considering: Apple iPhone/iPad using pure Apple SDK (Objective-C) Apple iPhone/iPad using Mono Touch (C#) Android using pure Android SDK (Java) Multiple platforms using something like Titanium to generate native apps from web technologies (HTML, CSS and Javascript) Multiple platforms using HTML5 web applications that run in the browser (HTML, CSS and Javascript). Which option would you choose? Do you have a different suggestion? What are the pros and cons?

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  • Linq - how does it work??

    - by clarkeyboy
    Hey, I have just been looking into Linq with ASP.Net. It is very neat indeed. I was just wondering - how do all the classes get populated? I mean in ASP.Net, suppose you have a Linq file called Catalogue, and you then use a For loop to loop through Catalogue.Products and print each Product name. How do the details get stored? Does it just go through the Products table on page load and create another instance of class Product for each row, effectively copying an entire table into an array of class Product? If so, I think I have created a system very much like this, in the sense that there is a SiteContent module with an instance of each Manager class - for example there is UserManager, ProductManager, SettingManager and alike. UserManager contains an instance of the User class for each row in the Users table. They also contain methods such as Create, Update and Remove. These Managers and their "Items" are created on every page load. This just makes it nice and easy to access users, products, settings etc in every page as far as I, the developer, am concerned. Any any subsequent pages I need to create, I just need to reference SiteContent.UserManager to access a list of users, rather than executing a query from within that page (ie this method separates out data access from the workings of the page, in the same way as using code behind separates out the workings of the page from how the page is layed out). However the problem is that this technique seems rather slow. I mean it is effectively creating a database on every page load, taking data from another database. I have taken measures such as preventing, for example, the ProductManager from being created if it is not referenced on page load. Therefore it does not load data into storage when it is not needed. My question is basically whether my technique does the exact same thing as Linq, in the sense of duplicating data from tables into properties of classes.. Thanks in advance for any advice or answers about this. Regards, Richard Clarke

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  • JPA : many-to-many - only one foreign key in the association table

    - by Julien
    Hi, I mapped two classes in a ManyToMany association with these annotations : @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public abstract class TechnicalItem extends GenericBusinessObject implements Resumable{ @SequenceGenerator(name="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN", sequenceName="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_SEQ") @Id @Column(name = "\"ID\"", nullable = false) @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN") private int id; @ManyToMany(mappedBy = "referencePerformanceItems", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List testingRates; } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("T") public class TestingRate extends Rate { @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @JoinTable(name="ecc.\"TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM\"", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TESTING_RATE_ID\"")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID\"")}) //@ManyToMany(mappedBy = "testingRates", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List referencePerformanceItems; } The sql generated for the association table creation is : create table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" ( "TESTING_RATE_ID" int4 not null, "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" int4 not null ); alter table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" add constraint FKC5D64DF6A2FE2698 foreign key ("TESTING_RATE_ID") references ecc."RATE"; There is no mention of the second foreign key "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" (the second part of the composite foreign key which should be in the association table). Is it a normal behaviour ? What should I do in the mapping if I want my 2 columns are 2 foreign keys referencing the primary keys of my 2 concerned tables. I use a PostGreSQL database and Hibernate as JPA provider. Thanks, Julien

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  • Mocking WebResponse's from a WebRequest

    - by Rob Cooper
    I have finally started messing around with creating some apps that work with RESTful web interfaces, however, I am concerned that I am hammering their servers every time I hit F5 to run a series of tests.. Basically, I need to get a series of web responses so I can test I am parsing the varying responses correctly, rather than hit their servers every time, I thought I could do this once, save the XML and then work locally. However, I don't see how I can "mock" a WebResponse, since (AFAIK) they can only be instantiated by WebRequest.GetResponse How do you guys go about mocking this sort of thing? Do you? I just really don't like the fact I am hammering their servers :S I dont want to change the code too much, but I expect there is a elegant way of doing this.. Update Following Accept Will's answer was the slap in the face I needed, I knew I was missing a fundamental point! Create an Interface that will return a proxy object which represents the XML. Implement the interface twice, on that uses WebRequest, the other that returns static "responses". The interface implmentation then either instantiates the return type based on the response, or the static XML. You can then pass the required class when testing or at production to the service layer. Once I have the code knocked up, I'll paste some samples. Thanks Will :)

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  • Extract known pattern substring from NSString (without regex)

    - by d11wtq
    I'm really tempted to drop RegexKit (or my own libpcre wrapper) into my project in order to do this, but before I do that I want to know how Cocoa developers manage to do half of this basic stuff without really convoluted code or without linking with RegexKit or another regular expression library. I find it gobsmacking that Cocoa does not include any regular expression matching features. I've so accustomed to using regular expressions for all kinds of things that I'm lost without them. I can do what I need without them, but the code would be rather convoluted. So, Cocoa devs, I ask you, what's the "Cocoa way" to do this... The problem is an everyday problem in programming as far as I'm concerned. Cocoa must have ways of doing this with the built-in features. Note that the position of the elements I want to match changes, and sometimes "quotes" are present. Whitespace is variable. Take the following strings: Content-Type: application/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Type: text/html; charset="iso-8859-1" Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Type: text/plain; name="example.txt"; charset=utf-8 From all of these strings, how would you go about determining the mime type (e.g. text/plain) and the charset (e.g. utf-8) using just the built-in Cocoa classes? I'd end up performing a series of -rangeOfString: and substring calls, with conditional checks to deal with the optional quotes etc. Is there a way to do this with NSScanner? The NSScanner class seems to have a pretty naive API to me. Something like C's sscanf() that works for NSString objects would be an ideal fit. Most of my string parsing needs are simple such as this example so maybe regular expressions, while I'm accustomed to them, are overkill?

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  • What's all this fuss about?

    - by atch
    Hi guys, At the beginning I want to state that it is not my intention to upset anyone who uses/like language other than C++. I'm saying that due to the fact that on one forum everytime when I've tried to ask questions of similiar nature I was almost always accused of trying to create a raw. Ok that's having done this is my question: I don't understand why java/c# creators thought/think that having something like vm and having source code compiled to bytecode instead of native code is in a long run any advantage. And why having function compiled for a first time when they are invoked is any advantege? And what's the story about write once run everywhere? When I think about the business of having something written once and it can run everywhere - well in theory this is all well. But I know for a fact that in practice it doesn't look that well at all. It is rather like write once test everywhere. And why would I preffer something to be compiled on runtime instead of compiletime. If I would have to wait even one hour longer for program to be installed once and for all and all the compilation would be done and nothing would be compiled after that I would preffer that. And I don't really know how it works in the real world (I'm a student never worked in IT business) but for example if I have working program written in C++ for Windows and I have wish to move it to another platform wouldn't I have to take my source code and compile it on desired machine? So in other words isn't that rather problem of having compiler which will compile source code on different machines (as far as I'm concerned there is just one C++ and source code will look identical in every machine). And last but not least if you think about it how many programs they are which are really word porting? I personnally can think of 3 maybe four.

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  • Good ways to dynamically generate the start image of an iPhone/iPad app

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm self-learning iPhone development and I see that one of the aspects of an iPhone/iPad app is the start image that gets displayed when your app is run. I'd like my start image to display some basic info about the user when the app is launched, but that info has to first be collected by the user when the app is first run. That tells me that I either need to dynamically generate the start image after the user enters their information or I need to place a label of some sort on top of my static start image in order to accomplish this. The first time the app launched and before the user enters their info, the start image can be anything or nothing at all, I'm not concerned about this. So, my two questions are this... Can you place controls, like a label, on top of the start image when your app is launched? If not, what's a good approach to dynamically generating the start image after the app is launched for the first time and the user info is collected? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to begin researching this question right now.

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