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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • I need help on this data file to be edited in SOM_PAK format

    - by Mola
    Hi Experts, I am working on Self Organizing Map (SOM) Implementation and i have a microarray dataset which i am trying to read in using some_read_data function, but i keep having an errors when i edit it to have it in SOM_PAK form which is recognise by SOM for reading such as ??? Error using == somtoolbox\som_read_data.m Only 69 vector components on input file data line 1 (dimension is 70) Error in == SomMainFunction at 3 sD = som_read_data('B_r2.txt'); but when i try to read the data without editing which is the original file as shown here: http://rapidshare.com/files/376239367/DLBCL.txt.html It indicates "Data read OK", but i have the following error ??? Error using == unknown Out of memory. Type HELP MEMORY for your options. Error in == somtoolbox\som_bmus.m at 189 Bmus = zeros(dlen,length(which_bmus)); Error in == somvis\somvis_p_matrix.m at 41 [dummy dists] = som_bmus (dat, dat, 2:datlen); Error in == SomMainFunction at 16 [pheight rad_real perc] = somvis_p_matrix(sM,sD); You can get the datafile from here:http://rapidshare.com/files/376239367/DLBCL.txt.html I need someone to help me correct this data for me and put it in SOM_PAK format. I have tried getting it in SOM_PAK format, but it still giving me errors:

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  • Fastest XML parser for small, simple documents in Java

    - by Varkhan
    I have to objectify very simple and small XML documents (less than 1k, and it's almost SGML: no namespaces, plain UTF-8, you name it...), read from a stream, in Java. I am using JAXP to process the data from my stream into a Document object. I have tried Xerces, it's way too big and slow... I am using Dom4j, but I am still spending way too much time in org.dom4j.io.SAXReader. Does anybody out there have any suggestion on a faster, more efficient implementation, keeping in mind I have very tough CPU and memory constraints? [Edit 1] Keep in mind that my documents are very small, so the overhead of staring the parser can be important. For instance I am spending as much time in org.xml.sax.helpers.XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader as in org.dom4j.io.SAXReader.read [Edit 2] The result has to be in Dom format, as I pass the document to decision tools that do arbitrary processing on it, like switching code based on the value of arbitrary XPaths, but also extracting lists of values packed as children of a predefined node. [Edit 3] In any case I eventually need to load/parse the complete document, since all the information it contains is going to be used at some point. (This question is related to, but different from, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/373833/best-xml-parser-for-java )

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  • Jquery Apache - IE problem

    - by Soldierflup
    I'm having a button tag on my page with a value. <button class='btn' value='value'>show value</button> I have this jquery code : $('.btn').click(function() { var w = 'value = '+$(this).val()+' / text = '+$(this).html(); alert(w); }); In FF, no problem the result is ok (display: value = value / text = show value). The problem comes with IE8 which displays a different results from my testing server and the production server. The testing server is my local machine with a standard XAMPP installation. The productionserver is a server based on linux with apache, php and mysql. Result from the testing server is ok (display like FF), the result from the production server is not good (displaying : value = show value / text : show value). Anyone an idea if it is apache that causes the error ? I know there are some issues with the use of val() because IE is considering it as an attribute and not a value. The problem is that changing the jQuery from val() to attr('value') is quit a lot of work (this implementation is already on a lot of pages) and I think it could be much easier to change something on the webserver.

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  • iPhone: Helpful Classes or extended Subclasses which should have been in the SDK

    - by disp
    This is more a community sharing post than a real question. In my iPhone OS projects I'm always importing a helper class with helpful methods which I can use for about every project. So I thought it might be a good idea, if everyone shares some of their favorite methods, which should have been in everyones toolcase. I'll start with an extension of the NSString class, so I can make strings with dates on the fly providing format and locale. Maybe someone can find some need in this. @implementation NSString (DateHelper) +(NSString *) stringWithDate:(NSDate*)date withFormat:(NSString *)format withLocaleIdent:(NSString*)localeString{ NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; //For example @"de-DE", or @"en-US" NSLocale *locale = [[NSLocale alloc] initWithLocaleIdentifier:localeString]; [dateFormatter setLocale:locale]; // For example @"HH:mm" [dateFormatter setDateFormat:format]; NSString *string = [dateFormatter stringFromDate:date]; [dateFormatter release]; [locale release]; return string; } @end I'd love to see some of your tools.

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  • Esper generating episodes

    - by Jasonojh
    I would like to use Esper to generate episodes of events. I am trying to detect the changes in robot movement during each time period and was wondering what would be the best way of implementation. The rules for generation of episodes from the events would be If the new event time(eg. 7sec, robot A) of a robot is more than 3 sec than the latest event(eg. 3 sec, robot A) of the same robot, the new event belongs to a new episode. Each episode should represent only one robot (eg. 2sec, robotA and 3sec, robotB should output 2 episodes) Input data: Event Time Robot Position 1 1 A 0 2 2 A 1 3 6 A 2 Output data should be: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2} Array[1]={Event 3} //more than 3 sec Input data: Event Time Robot Position 1 1 A 0 2 2 A 1 3 4 B 0 4 6 A 2 Output data should be: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2} Array[1]={Event 3} //different robot Array[2]={Event 4} Please help provide suggestions. I have tried using mulitple listeners, one for each robot, to create episodes and it works but I am trying to use a single EPL statement to do it. I have tried win:time_accum(3sec) group by robot but the second example output: Array[0]={Event 1,Event 2, Event 4} Array[1]={Event 3} as the time window is shifted everytime an event comes in, the system still thinks that event 4 is less than 3 sec due to event 3. how do I create a unique time window for each robot? Thank you for your suggestions and any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Nested functions not allowed in drawrect problem

    - by Martin
    I have a custom view onto which I draw some graphics from the drawrect function, which works fine. However I like to draw based on the contens of an array I pass on the the view just before I do a setNeedsDisplay. In the drawRect function I try to access the array but then I get a nested functions error which I do not understand. Here's my code: // // MyView.h // window // #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MyView : UIView { NSArray * nary; } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSArray *nary; @end // // MyView.m // window // #import "MyView.h" @implementation MyView @synthesize nary; CGContextRef c; CGFloat black[4] = {0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f}; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { c = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetStrokeColor(c, black); NSLog(@"mview"); NSArray *ns = [nary objectAtIndex:0]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Is it OK to write code after [super dealloc]? (Objective-C)

    - by Richard J. Ross III
    I have a situation in my code, where I cannot clean up my classes objects without first calling [super dealloc]. It is something like this: // Baseclass.m @implmentation Baseclass ... -(void) dealloc { [self _removeAllData]; [aVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [anotherVariableThatBelongsToMe release]; [super dealloc]; } ... @end This works great. My problem is, when I went to subclass this huge and nasty class (over 2000 lines of gross code), I ran into a problem: when I released my objects before calling [super dealloc] I had zombies running through the code that were activated when I called the [self _removeAllData] method. // Subclass.m @implementation Subclass ... -(void) deallloc { [super dealloc]; [someObjectUsedInTheRemoveAllDataMethod release]; } ... @end This works great, and It didn't require me to refactor any code. My question Is this: Is it safe for me to do this, or should I refactor my code? Or maybe autorelease the objects? I am programming for iPhone if that matters any.

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Why does this tooltip appear *below* a transclucent form?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I'm testing on an XP system with .NET 3.5. If you don't see this problem on your system, let me know what operating system and version of .NET you have. I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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  • On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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  • Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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  • Appropriate uses of Monad `fail` vs. MonadPlus `mzero`

    - by jberryman
    This is a question that has come up several times for me in the design code, especially libraries. There seems to be some interest in it so I thought it might make a good community wiki. The fail method in Monad is considered by some to be a wart; a somewhat arbitrary addition to the class that does not come from the original category theory. But of course in the current state of things, many Monad types have logical and useful fail instances. The MonadPlus class is a sub-class of Monad that provides an mzero method which logically encapsulates the idea of failure in a monad. So a library designer who wants to write some monadic code that does some sort of failure handling can choose to make his code use the fail method in Monad or restrict his code to the MonadPlus class, just so that he can feel good about using mzero, even though he doesn't care about the monoidal combining mplus operation at all. Some discussions on this subject are in this wiki page about proposals to reform the MonadPlus class. So I guess I have one specific question: What monad instances, if any, have a natural fail method, but cannot be instances of MonadPlus because they have no logical implementation for mplus? But I'm mostly interested in a discussion about this subject. Thanks! EDIT: One final thought occured to me. I recently learned (even though it's right there in the docs for fail) that monadic "do" notation is desugared in such a way that pattern match failures, as in (x:xs) <- return [] call the monad's fail. It seems like the language designers must have been strongly influenced by the prospect of some automatic failure handling built in to haskell's syntax in their inclusion of fail in Monad.

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  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • Autoscale Font in a TextBox Control so that its as big as possible and still fits in text area bound

    - by blak3r
    I need a TextBox or some type of Multi-Line Label control which will automatically adjust the font-size to make it as large as possible and yet have the entire message fit inside the bounds of the text area. I wanted to see if anyone had implemented a user control like this before developing my own. Example application: have a TextBox which will be half of the area on a windows form. When a message comes in which is will be approximately 100-500 characters it will put all the text in the control and set the font as large as possible. An implementation which uses Mono Supported .NET libraries would be a plus. Thanks in advance. If know one has implemented a control already... If someone knows how to test if a given text completely fits inside the text area that would be useful for if I roll my own control. Edit: I ended up writing an extension to RichTextBox. I will post my code shortly once i've verified that all the kinks are worked out.

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  • Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

    - by Chris B
    Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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  • problem with kCFSocketReadCallBack

    - by zp26
    Hello. I have a problem with my program. I created a socket with "kCFSocketReadCallBack. My intention was to call the "acceptCallback" only when it receives a string to the socket. Instead my program does not just accept the connection always goes into "startReceive" stop doing so and sometimes crash the program. Can anybody help? Thanks readSocket = CFSocketCreateWithNative( NULL, fd, kCFSocketReadCallBack, AcceptCallback, &context ); static void AcceptCallback(CFSocketRef s, CFSocketCallBackType type, CFDataRef address, const void *data, void *info) // Called by CFSocket when someone connects to our listening socket. // This implementation just bounces the request up to Objective-C. { ServerVistaController * obj; #pragma unused(address) // assert(address == NULL); assert(data != NULL); obj = (ServerVistaController *) info; assert(obj != nil); #pragma unused(s) assert(s == obj->listeningSocket); if (type & kCFSocketAcceptCallBack){ [obj acceptConnection:*(int *)data]; } if (type & kCFSocketAcceptCallBack){ [obj startReceive:*(int *)data]; } } -(void)startReceive:(int)fd { CFReadStreamRef readStream = NULL; CFIndex bytes; UInt8 buffer[MAXLENGTH]; CFStreamCreatePairWithSocket( kCFAllocatorDefault, fd, &readStream, NULL); if(!readStream){ close(fd); [self updateLabel:@"No readStream"]; } CFReadStreamOpen(readStream); [self updateLabel:@"OpenStream"]; bytes = CFReadStreamRead( readStream, buffer, sizeof(buffer)); if (bytes < 0) { [self updateLabel:(NSString*)buffer]; close(fd); } CFReadStreamClose(readStream); }

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  • How can I check if a TTTabItem gets selected?

    - by schoash
    I have several TTTabGrids in my view and now I am stuck with the problem, that I can't figure out, how to detect, when a TTTabItem gets touched. If someone selects an item in one of the TTTabGrids I should upadate some labels. Can someone tell me a way how to detect, when the selection in a TTTabGrid gets changed? My code looks like this: @interface MyTTTabGrid : TTTabGrid @end @implementation MyTTTabGrid - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame columns:(NSInteger)columns{ if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { self.style = TTSTYLE(tabGrid); _columnCount = columns; } return self; } @end - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; _tabBarHours = [[MyTTTabGrid alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(10, _tabBarZone.bottom+10, 300, 0) columns:7]; _tabBarHours.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; NSMutableArray *tmpHours = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; int i=6; while (i<20) { [tmpHours addObject:[[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", i]] autorelease]]; i++; } _tabBarHours.tabItems = tmpHours; [_tabBarHours sizeToFit]; [self.view addSubview:_tabBarHours]; [tmpHours release]; }

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  • ASP .NET Button event handlers do not fire on the first click, but on the second click after a PostB

    - by John
    Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers were triggered. On the second click, they fired. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition (within GetAdministrationInterface) public override Control GetAdministrationInterface() { // more code... Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me!"; btn.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); // more code... } Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something } Page_Load Method that calls GetAdministrationInterface protected void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsAsync) { List<AdministrationInterface> interfaces = <DATABASE CALL>; foreach(AdministrationInteface ai in interfaces) { placeholderDiv.Controls.Add(ai.GetAdministrationInterface()); } } }

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  • MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

    - by lcf
    Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

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  • How to store visited states in iterative deepening / depth limited search?

    - by colinfang
    Update: Search for the first solution. for a normal Depth First Search it is simple, just use a hashset bool DFS (currentState) = { if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState)) return true; } return false; } However, when it becomes depth limited, i cannot simply do this bool DFS (currentState, maxDepth) = { if (maxDepth = 0) return false; if (myHashSet.Contains(currentState)) { return; } else { myHashSet.Add(currentState); } if (IsSolution(currentState) return true; else { for (var nextState in GetNextStates(currentState)) if (DFS(nextState, maxDepth - 1)) return true; } return false; } Because then it is not going to do a complete search (in a sense of always be able to find a solution if there is any) before maxdepth How should I fix it? Would it add more space complexity to the algorithm? Or it just doesn't require to memoize the state at all. Update: for example, a decision tree is the following: A - B - C - D - E - A | F - G (Goal) Starting from state A. and G is a goal state. Clearly there is a solution under depth 3. However, using my implementation under depth 4, if the direction of search happens to be A(0) -> B(1) -> C(2) -> D(3) -> E(4) -> F(5) exceeds depth, then it would do back track to A, however E is visited, it would ignore the check direction A - E - F - G

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • CXF code first service, WSDL generation; soap:address changes?

    - by jcalvert
    I have a simple Java interface/implementation I am exposing via CXF. I have a jaxws element in my Spring configuration file like this: <jaxws:endpoint id="managementServiceJaxws" implementor="#managementService" address="/jaxws/ManagementService" > </jaxws:endpoint> It generates the WSDL from my annotated interface and exposes the service. Then when I hit http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService?wsdl I get a lovely WSDL. At the bottom in the wsdl:service element, I'll see <soap:address location="http://myhostname/cxf/jaxws/ManagementService"/> However, some time a day or so later, with no application restart, hitting that same url produces: This causes a number of problems, but what I really want is to fix it. Right now, there's a particular client to the webservice that sets the endpoint to localhost; because it runs on the same machine. Is it possible the wsdl is getting regenerated and cached and then exposing the 'localhost' version? In part I don't know the exact mechanism by which one goes from a ?wsdl request in CXF to the response. It seems almost certain that it's retrieving some cached version, given that it's supposed to be determining the address by asking the servletcontainer (Jetty). For reference I know a stopgap solution is using the hostname on the client and making sure an alias in place so that it goes over the loopback. EDIT: For reference, I confirmed that if I bring my application up and first hit it over localhost, then querying for the wsdl via the hostname shows the address as localhost. Conversely, first hitting it over the hostname causes localhost requests to show the hostname. So obviously something is getting cached here.

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  • How to collect and inject all beans of a given type in Spring XML configuration

    - by GrzegorzOledzki
    One of the strongest accents of the Spring framework is the Dependency Injection concept. I understand one of the advices behind that is to separate general high-level mechanism from low-level details (as announced by Dependency Inversion Principle). Technically, that boils down to having a bean implementation to know as little as possible about a bean being injected as a dependency, e.g. public class PrintOutBean { private LogicBean logicBean; public void action() { System.out.println(logicBean.humanReadableDetails()); } //... } <bean class="PrintOutBean"> <property name="loginBean" ref="ShoppingCartBean"/> </bean> But what if I wanted to a have a high-level mechanism operating on multiple dependent beans? public class MenuManagementBean { private Collection<Option> options; public void printOut() { for (Option option:options) { // do something for option } //... } } I know one solution would be to use @Autowired annotation in the singleton bean, that is... @Autowired private Collection<Option> options; But doesn't it violate the separation principle? Why do I have to specify what dependents to take in the very same place I use them (i.e. MenuManagementBean class in my example)? Is there a way to inject collections of beans in the XML configuration like this (without any annotation in the MMB class)? <bean class="MenuManagementBean"> <property name="options"> <xxx:autowire by-type="MyOptionImpl"/> </property> </bean>

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