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• Lift session valid ajax callback from a static javascript

  - by ChrisJamesC

  I am currently implementing a graph visualisation tool using lift on the server side and d3 ( a javascript visualisation framework) for all the visualisation. The problem I have is that in the script I want to get session dependent data from the server. So basically, my objective is to write lift-valid ajax callbacks in a static js script. Here is what I tried so far: What I have tried so far If you feel that the best solution is one that I already tried feel free to post a detailed answer telling me how to use it exactly and how it completely solves my problem. REST interface Usually what one would do to get data from a javascript function in lift is to create a REST interface. However this interface will not be linked to any session. This is the solution I got from my previous question: Get json data in d3 from lift snippet Give function as argument of script Another solution would be to give the ajaxcallback as an argument of the main script called to generate my graph. However I expect to have a lot of callbacks and I don't want to have to mess with the arguments of my script. Write the ajax callback in another script using lift and call it from the main script This solution, which is similar to a hidden text input is probably the more likely to work. However it is not elegant and it would mean that I would have to load a lot of scripts on load, which is not really conveniant. Write the whole script in lift and then serve it to the client This solution can be elegant, however my script is very long and I would really prefer that it remainss static. What I want On client side While reviewing the source code of my webpage I found that the callback for an ajaxSelect is: <select onchange="liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler('F966066257023LYKF4=' + encodeURIComponent(this.value), null, null, null)" name="F96606625703QXTSWU" id="node_delete" class="input"> Moreover, there is a variable containing the state of the page in the end of the webpage: var lift_page = "F96606625700QRXLDO"; So, I am wondering if it is possible to simulate that my ajaxcall is valid using this liftAjax.lift_ajaxHandler function. However I don't know the exact synthax to use. On server side Since I "forged" a request on client side, I would now like to get the request on client side and to dispatch it to the correct function. This is where the LiftRules.dispatch object seems the best solution: when it is called, all the session management has been made (the request is authentified and linked to a session), however I don't know how to write the correct piece of code in the append function. Remark In lift all names of variables are changed to a random string in order to increase the security, I would like to have the same behavior in my application even if that will probably mean that I will have to "give" the javascript these values. However an array of 15 string values is still a better tradeoff than 15 functions as argument of a javascript function.

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• Python: (sampling with replacement): efficient algorithm to extract the set of DISSIMILAR N-tuples from a set

  - by Homunculus Reticulli

  I have a set of items, from which I want to select DISSIMILAR tuples (more on the definition of dissimilar touples later). The set could contain potentially several thousand items, although typically, it would contain only a few hundreds. I am trying to write a generic algorithm that will allow me to select N items to form an N-tuple, from the original set. The new set of selected N-tuples should be DISSIMILAR. A N-tuple A is said to be DISSIMILAR to another N-tuple B if and only if: Every pair (2-tuple) that occurs in A DOES NOT appear in B Note: For this algorithm, A 2-tuple (pair) is considered SIMILAR/IDENTICAL if it contains the same elements, i.e. (x,y) is considered the same as (y,x). This is a (possible variation on the) classic Urn Problem. A trivial (pseudocode) implementation of this algorithm would be something along the lines of def fetch_unique_tuples(original_set, tuple_size): while True: # randomly select [tuple_size] items from the set to create first set # create a key or hash from the N elements and store in a set # store selected N-tuple in a container if end_condition_met: break I don't think this is the most efficient way of doing this - and though I am no algorithm theorist, I suspect that the time for this algorithm to run is NOT O(n) - in fact, its probably more likely to be O(n!). I am wondering if there is a more efficient way of implementing such an algo, and preferably, reducing the time to O(n). Actually, as Mark Byers pointed out there is a second variable m, which is the size of the number of elements being selected. This (i.e. m) will typically be between 2 and 5. Regarding examples, here would be a typical (albeit shortened) example: original_list = ['CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT', 'TGCA', 'CCTG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC', 'ACTT', 'TAAT', 'CTTG', 'CGGC', 'GGCC', 'TCCT', 'ATCC', 'ACAG', 'TGAA', 'TTTG', 'ACAA', 'TGTC', 'TGGA', 'CTGC', 'GCTC', 'AGGA', 'TGCT', 'GCGC', 'GCGG', 'AAAG', 'GCTG', 'GCCG', 'ACCA', 'CTCC', 'CACG', 'CATA', 'GGGA', 'CGAG', 'CCCC', 'GGTG', 'AAGT', 'CCAC', 'AACA', 'AATA', 'CGAC', 'GGAA', 'TACC', 'AGTT', 'GTGG', 'CGCA', 'GGGG', 'GAGA', 'AGCC', 'ACCG', 'CCAT', 'AGAC', 'GGGT', 'CAGC', 'GATG', 'TTCG'] # Select 3-tuples from the original list should produce a list (or set) similar to: [('CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'TGCA', 'CCTG') ('CAGG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC') ('CAGG', 'ACTT', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'CTTG', 'CGGC') .... ('CTTC', 'TGCA', 'CAAA') ] [[Edit]] Actually, in constructing the example output, I have realized that the earlier definition I gave for UNIQUENESS was incorrect. I have updated my definition and have introduced a new metric of DISSIMILARITY instead, as a result of this finding.

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• C# some sort of plugin system

  - by nLL

  Hi, I am a mobile web developer and trying to monetize my traffic with mobile ad services and i have a problem. First of all to get most of out of your ads you usually need to do server side request to advert company's servers and there are quite few ad services. Problem starts when you want to use them in one site. All have different approaches to server side calls and trying to maintain and implement those ad codes becomes pain after a while. So I decided to write a class system where i can simply create methods for every company and upload it to my site. So far i have public Advert class public AdPublisher class with GetAd method that returns an Advert public Adservice class that has Service names as enum I also have converted server request codes of all ad services i use to classes. It works ok but I want to be able to create an ad service class upload it so that asp.net app can import/recognize it automatically like a plugin system. As I am new to .net I have no idea where to start or how to do it. To make thing clear here are my classes namespace Mobile.Publisher { public class AdPublisher { public AdPublisher() { IsTest = false; } public bool IsTest { get; set; } public HttpRequest CurrentVisitorRequestInfo { get; set; } public Advert GetAd(AdService service) { Advert returnAd = new Advert(); returnAd.Success = true; if (this.CurrentVisitorRequestInfo == null) { throw new Exception("CurrentVisitorRequestInfo for AdPublisher not set!"); } if (service == null) { throw new Exception("AdService not set!"); } if (service.ServiceName == AdServices.Admob) { returnAd.ReturnedAd = AdmobAds("000000"); } return returnAd; } } public enum AdServices { Admob, ServiceB, ServiceC } public class Advert { public bool Success { get; set; } public string ReturnedAd { get; set; } } public partial class AdService { public AdServices ServiceName { get; set; } public string PublisherOrSiteId { get; set; } public string ZoneOrChannelId { get; set; } } private string AdmobAds(string publisherid) { //snip return "test" } } Basically i want to be able to add another ad service and code like private string AdmobAds(string publisherid){ } So that it can be imported and recognised as ad service. I hope i was clear enough

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• How do I force a Coldfusion cfc to output numeric data over JSON as a string?

  - by Dan Sorensen

  I'm calling a Coldfusion component (cfc) using jQuery.post(). I need an integer or string representation of the number returned for use in a URL. {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382} or {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":"19382"} Instead what I get back is a decimal: {"PAGE":"My Page Title","ID":19382.0} Needed to update the following HTML: <a href="page.cfm?id=19382" id="pagelink">My Page Title</a> Conceptually, I suppose there are multiple answers: 1) I could use jQuery to grab the number left of the decimal point. 2) I could force Coldfusion to send the number as a string. 3) I could generate the whole link server side and just replace the whole link tag HTML (not the preferred answer, but maybe it is the best) Does anyone know how to do 1 or 2? Is 3 better? Relevant Javascript: (Not optimized) $(".link").live('click', function () { var $linkID, serviceUrl; serviceUrl = "mycfc.cfc?method=getPage"; $linkID = $(this).attr("rel"); $.post(serviceUrl, { linkid: $linkID }, function (result) { $('#pagelink').val(result.TITLE); if (result.FMKEY.length) { // NEED the ID number WITHOUT the .0 at the end $('#pagelink').attr("href") = "page.cfm?id=" + result.ID; $('#pagelink').text(result.TITLE); } }, "json"); }); My CFC: <component output="no"> <cfsetting showdebugoutput="no"> <cffunction name="getPage" access="remote" returnFormat="JSON" output="no" hint="Looks up a Page Title and ID"> <cfargument name="linkID" type="string" required="yes"> <cfset var page = queryNew("id,title")> <cfset var result = structNew()> <cfquery datasource="myDatasource" name="page"> SELECT TOP 1 id, title FROM pages WHERE linkID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.linkID#"> </cfquery> <cfif page.recordcount> <cfset result.id = page.id> <cfset result.title = page.title> </cfif> <cfreturn result> </cffunction> </component>

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• Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

  - by cyril42e

  I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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• Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

  - by Axeman

  In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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• File upload control - Select file is lossed when 2nd control is initiatied

  - by Barry

  Our problem/question revolves around an upload control that loses the selected file (goes blank) when a postback control is used (in this case, the dropdown list posts). Any insight into what we are doing wrong or how we can fix this? Below is our code and a summary of the problem. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you! <asp:updatepanel id="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <div class="row"> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" ID="CategorySelection" OnSelectedIndexChanged="CategorySelection_IndexChanged" CssClass="drop-down-list" /> </div> <div id="SubCategory" class="row" runat="server" visible="false"> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="SubCategorySelection" CssClass="drop-down-list" /> </div> <div class="row"> <asp:FileUpload runat="server" ID="FileUpload" CssClass="file-upload" /> </div> <div class="row"> <asp:Button ID="submit" runat="server" Text="Submit" CssClass="button" OnClick="submit_ButtonClick" /> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:PostBackTrigger ControlID="submit" /> </Triggers> </asp:updatepanel> In this form we have 2 DropDownList, 1 FileUpload and 1 submit button. Every time that the user selects one category, the subcategories are loaded (AutoPostBack=”true”). The primary user flow works fine: User selects one category, subcategory and selects a file to be uploaded (submitted). HOWEVER, if the user selects a file first, and then selects a category, the screen will do a partial refresh and the selected file will disappear (field goes blank). As a result, the user needs to select the file again. This causes an issue because the fact that the file is no longer selected can easily be overlooked. Seems straighforward --- but causing us a lot of grief. Any experts out there that can help? BIG thanks!

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• VBScript Issue Help Required.

  - by MalsiaPro

  I need a script that can run and pull information from any drive on a Windows operating system (Windows Server 2003), listing all files and folders which contain the following fields: The server is quite big and is within our domain. The required information is: Full file path (e.g. C:\Documents and Settings\user\My Documents\testPage.doc) File type (e.g. word document, spreadsheet, database etc) Size When Created When last modified When last accessed Also the script will need to convert that data to a CSV file, which later on I can modify and process in Excel. I can imagine that this data will be huge but I still need it. I am logged in as an administrator on the server and the script will need to also process protected files. As in previous posts I have read that the script will stop if such files are processed. I need to make sure that not a single file is skipped. Please note I have asked this question before but still have not got a working script. This is the script I got so far, file Test.vbs: Set objFS=CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") WScript.Echo Chr(34) & "Full Path" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Size" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date modified" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Created" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Accessed" & Chr(34) Set objArgs = WScript.Arguments strFolder = objArgs(0) Set objFolder = objFS.GetFolder(strFolder) Go (objFolder) Sub Go(objDIR) If objDIR <> "\System Volume Information" Then For Each eFolder in objDIR.SubFolders Go eFolder Next End If For Each strFile In objDIR.Files WScript.Echo Chr(34) & strFile.Path & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.Size & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastModified & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateCreated & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastAccessed & Chr(34) Next End Sub I am currently using the command-line to run it: c:\test> cscript //nologo Test.vbs "c:\" > "C:\test\Output.csv" The script is not working. I don't know why.

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• Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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• Directly Jump to another C++ function

  - by maligree

  I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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• What is the best WebControl to create this

  - by balexandre

  current output wanted output current code public partial class test : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) populateData(); } private void populateData() { List<temp> ls = new List<temp>(); ls.Add(new temp { a = "AAA", b = "aa", c = "a", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "BBB", b = "bb", c = "b", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "CCC", b = "cc", c = "c", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "DDD", b = "dd", c = "d", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "EEE", b = "ee", c = "e", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "FFF", b = "ff", c = "f", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); TemplateField tc = (TemplateField)gv.Columns[0]; // <-- want to assign here just day gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 1 gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 2 gv.DataSource = ls; gv.DataBind(); } } public class temp { public temp() { } public string a { get; set; } public string b { get; set; } public string c { get; set; } public DateTime dt { get; set; } } and in HTML <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("a") %>' Font-Bold="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("b") %>' Font-Italic="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label3" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("dt") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> What I'm trying to avoid is repeat code so I can only use one unique TemplateField I can accomplish this with 3 x GridView, one per each day, but I'm really trying to simplify code as the Grid will be exactly the same (as the HTML code goes), just the DataSource changes. Any help is greatly appreciated, Thank you.

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• Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

  - by metaleap

  I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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• Routing error when trying to use same view for update and create flows (Rails 3)

  - by Jamis Charles

  My overall use case: I have a Listing model that has many images. The Listing detail page lists all the fields that can be updated inline (through ajax). I want to be able to use the same view for both update listing and create new listing. My listing controller looks as follows: def detail @listing = Listing.find(params[:id]) @image = Image.new #should this link somewhere else? respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end def create # create a new listing and save it immediately. Assign it to guest, with a status of "draft" @listing = Listing.new(:price_id => 1) # Default price id # save it to db # TODO add validation that it has to have a price ID, on record creation. So the view doesn't break. @listing.save @image = Image.new # redirect_to "/listings/detail/@listing.id" #this didn't work respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end The PROBLEM I'm using a partial that shows the same form for the create view and the detail view. This works perfectly except for one thing: When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/detail/7, it works perfectly. When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/new, I get the following error: Showing /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/rails_testing/feedbackd/app/views/listings/_edit_form.html.erb where line #100 raised: No route matches {:action="show", :controller="images"} Extracted source (around line #100): 97: <!-- Form for new images --> 98: <div class="span-20 append-bottom"> 99: <!-- <%# form_for :image, @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> --> 100: <%= form_for @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> 101: <%= f.text_field :description %><br /> 102: <%= f.file_field :photo %> 103: <%= submit_tag "Upload" %> What I think the issue is: When I upload a new image (I'm using Paperclip), it requires the listing_id to create the image record. Since the listing_id isn't passed in with listings/new it can't find the listing_id. How can I pass in the id? Via a redirect? What's the best way to solve this? Thank you.

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• Form graphics not set when form loads

  - by Jimmy

  My form has a group box which contains two overlapping rectangles. The form's other controls are two sets of four numeric up down controls to set the rectangles' colors. (nudF1,2,3 and 4 set the rectangle that's in front, and nudB1,2,3 and 4 set the rectangle that's behind.) Everything works fine, except that the rectangles do not display the colors set in the numeric up downs when the form first loads. The numeric up down controls' ChangeValue events all call the ShowColors() method. The form's Load event calls the csColorsForm_Load() method. Any suggestions? namespace csColors { public partial class csColorsForm : Form { public csColorsForm() { InitializeComponent(); } private void csColorsForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.DarkBlue; SetColors(sender, e); } private void SetColors(object sender, EventArgs e) { Control control = (Control)sender; String ctrlName = control.Name; Graphics objGraphics; Rectangle rect1, rect2; int colorBack, colorFore; objGraphics = this.grpColor.CreateGraphics(); // If calling control is not a forecolor control, paint backcolor rectangle if (ctrlName.Substring(0,4)!="nudF") { colorBack = int.Parse(SetColorsB("nudB"), NumberStyles.HexNumber); SolidBrush BrushB = new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(colorBack)); rect1 = new Rectangle(this.grpColor.Left, this.grpColor.Top, this.grpColor.Width, this.grpColor.Height); objGraphics.FillRectangle(BrushB, rect1); } // Always paint forecolor rectangle colorFore = int.Parse(SetColorsB("nudF"), NumberStyles.HexNumber); SolidBrush BrushF = new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(colorFore)); rect2 = new Rectangle(this.grpColor.Left, this.grpColor.Top, this.grpColor.Width, this.grpColor.Height); objGraphics.FillRectangle(BrushF, rect2); objGraphics.Dispose(); } private string SetColorsB(string nam) { string txt=""; for (int n = 1; n <= 4; ++n) { var ud = Controls[nam + n] as NumericUpDown; int hex = (int)ud.Value; txt += hex.ToString("X2"); } return txt; } private void btnClose_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.Close(); } } }

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• Passing custom info to mongrel_rails start

  - by whaka

  One thing I really don't understand is how I can pass custom start-up options to a mongrel instance. I see that a common approach is the use environment variables, but in my environment this is not going to work because my rails application serves many different clients. Much code is shared between clients, but there are also many differences which I implement by subclassing controllers and views to overload or extend existing features or introduce new ones. To make this all work, I simply add the paths to client specific modules the module load path ($:). In order to start the application for a particular client, I could now use an environment variable like say, TARGET=AMAZONE. Unfortunately, on some systems I'm running multiple mongrel clusters, each cluster serving a different client. Some of these systems run under Windows and to start mongrel I installed mongrel_services. Clearly, this makes my environment variable unsuitable. Passing this extra bit of data to the application is proving to be a real challenge. For a start, mongrel_rails service_install will reject any [custom] command line parameters that aren't documented. I'm not too concerned as installing the services using the install program is trivial. However, even if I manage to install mongrel_services such that when run it passes the custom command line option --target to mongrel_rails start, I get an error because mongrel_rails doesn't recognize the switch. So here were the things I looked at: Pass an extra parameter: mongrel_rails start --target XYZ ... use a config file and add target:XYZ, then do: mongrel_rails start -C x:\myapp\myconfig.yml modify the file: Ruby\lib\ruby\gems\1.8\gems\mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60\lib\mongrel\command.rb Perhaps I can use the --script option, but all docs that I found on it were for Unix 1 and 2 simply don't work. I played with 4 but never managed it to do anything. So I had no choice but to go with 3. While it is relatively simple, I hate changing ruby library code. Particularly disappointing is that 2 doesn't work. I mean what is so unreasonable about adding other [custom] options in the config file? Actually I think this is a fundamental piece that is missing in rails. Somehow, the application should be able to register and access command line arguments it expects. If anybody has a good idea how to do this more elegantly using the current infrastructure, I have a chocolate fish to give away!!!

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• Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

  - by JustGreg

  I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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• C# 'could not found' existing method

  - by shybovycha

  Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

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• remote_form_for in index.html.erb file not working w/ AJAX...Ruby on Rails...

  - by bgadoci

  Just curious if I am overlooking something simple here. I have deployed the remote_form_for in the show.html.erb code before to render comments on a post (project in this case) without a problem. I have moved this code to the index view and seems to degrade to the normal form_for action (page refresh). I am not getting any javascript errors so not sure what is wrong here. Here is my code: index.html.erb <% remote_form_for [project, Comment.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :body, "New Comment" %><br/> <%= f.text_area (:body, :class => "textarea") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :name, "Name" %> (Required)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:name, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :email, "Email" %> (Required but will not be displayed)<br/> <%= f.text_field (:email, :class => "textfield") %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> CommentsController#create def create @project = Project.find(params[:project_id]) @comment = @project.comments.create!(params[:comment]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to projects_path } format.js end end /views/comments/create.js.rjs page.insert_html :bottom, :commentwrapper, :partial => @comment page[@comment].visual_effect :highlight page[:new_comment].reset page.replace_html :notice, flash[:notice] flash.discard /views/comments/_comment.html.erb <% div_for comment do %> <div id="commentwrapper"> <% if admin? %> <%=link_to_remote "X", :url => [@project, comment], :method => :delete %> <% end %> <%= h(comment.body) %><br/><br/> Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(comment.created_at) %> ago by <%= h(comment.name) %> <% if admin? %> | <%= h(comment.email) %> <% end %></div> <% end %>

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• How to reference a particular JSON in a function call.

  - by Jane Wilkie

  Hi guys! I have two javascript routines.. the first one declares some JSON and it contains a function that takes two arguments, the first argument being the json object that needs traversing and the second argument is the tab that the rendering is done in. The second routine merely passes the name of the JSON that needs traversing and tab to render in. The code is below.... <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> var arr = [ {"id":"10", "class":"child-of-9", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"11", "class":"child-of-10", "useless":"donotneed"}]; var arrtwo = [ {"id":"12", "class":"child-of-12", "useless":"donotneed"}, {"id":"13", "class":"child-of-13", "useless":"donotneed"}]; function render_help(json,tab){ var html=''; for(var i=0;i<json.length;i++){ var obj = json[i]; for(var key in obj){ var attrName = key; var attrValue = obj[key]; if (attrName == "id"){ html = html +'<B>'+attrValue+'</B>'+'<BR><BR>'; }else if (attrName == "class"){ html = html + attrValue + '<BR><BR>'; } } } document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); } </script> <script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> render_help(arr,"helptab"); </script> Various testing and strategically placed alert boxes indicate that the tab parameter is being passed and interpreted correctly. I know this because when I change .... document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=(html); to document.getElementById(tab).innerHTML=("Howdy"); and it renders "Howdy" just fine. Putting an alert box (alert(json)) in to check the value of json yields.... [object.Object],[object.Object] The JSON object remains elusive. For the purposes of this scripting I need the JSON "arr" to be iterated over. I feel like the answer is fairly obvious so far no luck. Admittedly I am new with Javascript and I am apparently missing something. Does anyone have a clue as to what I'm overlooking here? Happy New Year to you all! Janie

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• Is it possible to create a C++ factory system that can create an instance of any "registered" object

  - by chrensli

  Hello, I've spent my entire day researching this topic, so it is with some scattered knowledge on the topic that i come to you with this inquiry. Please allow me to describe what I am attempting to accomplish, and maybe you can either suggest a solution to the immediate question, or another way to tackle the problem entirely. I am trying to mimic something related to how XAML files work in WPF, where you are essentially instantiating an object tree from an XML definition. If this is incorrect, please inform. This issue is otherwise unrelated to WPF, C#, or anything managed - I solely mention it because it is a similar concept.. So, I've created an XML parser class already, and generated a node tree based on ObjectNode objects. ObjectNode objects hold a string value called type, and they have an std::vector of child ObjectNode objects. The next step is to instantiate a tree of objects based on the data in the ObjectNode tree. This intermediate ObjectNode tree is needed because the same ObjectNode tree might be instantiated multiple times or delayed as needed. The tree of objects that is being created is such that the nodes in the tree are descendants of a common base class, which for now we can refer to as MyBase. Leaf nodes can be of any type, not necessarily derived from MyBase. To make this more challenging, I will not know what types of MyBase derived objects might be involved, so I need to allow for new types to be registered with the factory. I am aware of boost's factory. Their docs have an interesting little design paragraph on this page: o We may want a factory that takes some arguments that are forwarded to the constructor, o we will probably want to use smart pointers, o we may want several member functions to create different kinds of objects, o we might not necessarily need a polymorphic base class for the objects, o as we will see, we do not need a factory base class at all, o we might want to just call the constructor - without #new# to create an object on the stack, and o finally we might want to use customized memory management. I might not be understanding this all correctly, but that seems to state that what I'm trying to do can be accomplished with boost's factory. But all the examples I've located, seem to describe factories where all objects are derived from a base type. Any guidance on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time!

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• ActionScript 2: Event doesn't fire?

  - by Pascal Schuster

  So I have a soundHandler class that's supposed to play sounds and then point back to a function on the timeline when the sound has completed playing. But somehow, only one of the sounds plays when I try it out. EDIT: After that sound plays, nothing happens, even though I have EventHandlers set up that are supposed to do something. Here's the code: import mx.events.EventDispatcher; class soundHandler { private var dispatchEvent:Function; public var addEventListener:Function; public var removeEventListener:Function; var soundToPlay; var soundpath:String; var soundtype:String; var prefix:String; var mcname:String; public function soundHandler(soundpath:String, prefix:String, soundtype:String, mcname:String) { EventDispatcher.initialize(this); _root.createEmptyMovieClip(mcname, 1); this.soundpath = soundpath; this.soundtype = soundtype; this.prefix = prefix; this.mcname = mcname; } function playSound(file, callbackfunc) { _root.soundToPlay = new Sound(_root.mcname); _global.soundCallbackfunc = callbackfunc; _root.soundToPlay.onLoad = function(success:Boolean) { if (success) { _root.soundToPlay.start(); } }; _root.soundToPlay.onSoundComplete = function():Void { trace("Sound Complete: "+this.soundtype+this.prefix+this.file+".mp3"); trace(arguments.caller); dispatchEvent({type:_global.soundCallbackfunc}); trace(this.toString()); trace(this.callbackfunction); }; _root.soundToPlay.loadSound("../sound/"+soundpath+"/"+soundtype+prefix+file+".mp3", true); _root.soundToPlay.stop(); } } Here's the code from the .fla file: var playSounds:soundHandler = new soundHandler("signup", "su", "s", "mcs1"); var file = "000"; playSounds.addEventListener("sixtyseconds", this); playSounds.addEventListener("transition", this); function sixtyseconds() { trace("I am being called! Sixtyseconds"); var phase = 1; var file = random(6); if (file == 0) { file = 1; } if (file<10) { file = "0"+file; } file = phase+file; playSounds.playSound(file, "transition"); } function transition() { trace("this works"); } playSounds.playSound(file, "sixtyseconds"); I'm at a total loss for this one. Have been wasting hours to figure it out already. Any help will be deeply appreciated.

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• Inlining an array of non-default constructible objects in a C++ class

  - by porgarmingduod

  C++ doesn't allow a class containing an array of items that are not default constructible: class Gordian { public: int member; Gordian(int must_have_variable) : member(must_have_variable) {} }; class Knot { Gordian* pointer_array[8]; // Sure, this works. Gordian inlined_array[8]; // Won't compile. Can't be initialized. }; As even beginner C++ users know, the language guarantees that all members are initialized when constructing a class. And it doesn't trust the user to initialize everything in the constructor - one has to provide valid arguments to the constructors of all members before the body of the constructor even starts. Generally, that's a great idea as far as I'm concerned, but I've come across a situation where it would be a lot easier if I could actually have an array of non-default constructible objects. The obvious solution: Have an array of pointers to the objects. This is not optimal in my case, as I am using shared memory. It would force me to do extra allocation from an already contended resource (that is, the shared memory). The entire reason I want to have the array inlined in the object is to reduce the number of allocations. This is a situation where I would be willing to use a hack, even an ugly one, provided it works. One possible hack I am thinking about would be: class Knot { public: struct dummy { char padding[sizeof(Gordian)]; }; dummy inlined_array[8]; Gordian* get(int index) { return reinterpret_cast<Gordian*>(&inlined_array[index]); } Knot() { for (int x = 0; x != 8; x++) { new (get(x)) Gordian(x*x); } } }; Sure, it compiles, but I'm not exactly an experienced C++ programmer. That is, I couldn't possibly trust my hacks less. So, the questions: 1) Does the hack I came up with seem workable? What are the issues? (I'm mainly concerned with C++0x on newer versions of GCC). 2) Is there a better way to inline an array of non-default constructible objects in a class?

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• Submit button outside form_for loop

  - by user1152142

  I have set up some horizontal tabs using twitter bootstrap and I am rendering a form inside each of the tabs: <div class="tab-content"> <div id="tab1" class="tab-pane active"> <%= render :partial => "shipdr/websites/form", locals: {:@shipdr_website => shipdr_website} %> </div> <div id="tab2" class="tab-pane"> Another form (not yet implemented) </div> <div id="tab3" class="tab-pane"> Another form (not yet implemented). </div> </div> Then in shipdr/websites/form I have: <%= simple_form_for(@shipdr_website) do |f| %> <% if @shipdr_website.errors.any? %> <div id="error_explanation"> <h2><%= pluralize(@shipdr_website.errors.count, "error") %> prohibited this shipdr_website from being saved:</h2> <ul> <% @shipdr_website.errors.full_messages.each do |msg| %> <li><%= msg %></li> <% end %> </ul> </div> <% end %> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :name %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :url %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :api_key %> </div> <div class="actions"> <%= f.submit nil, :class => "btn btn-primary" %> </div> <% end %> I want to move the submit button outside of the "tab-content" area so when a user clicks the submit button, all three forms area submitted. All forms will use that same model and the same action but will have different field. The idea is similar to a wizard except I am using tabs. Does anyone have any idea how I can move the submit button outside of the form_for loop and how I can submit the three forms with a single button?

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• wpf how to bind a listbox to a list (two ways) - c#

  - by user429400

  Hi, I want to create a 2 way bind between a listbox and a .NET list. In my GUI, I have a listbox, a textbox and add and remove buttons. The listbox displays cars, and my goal is to create a 2way bind between the .Net car list and the listbox: when the user enters a car into the textbox, it gets updated only in the .Net list, and the listbox is updated automatically. When the user press the GUI "remove" button, a car gets removed from the GUI and the .Net list is updated automatically. I've started to write the xaml code, but figured that I don't actually know how to do the binding on both sides (c# and xaml): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:c="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="369" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Window.Resources> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="carsData" ObjectType="{x:Type c:Window1}" /> </Window.Resources> <Grid Width="332"> <ListBox Margin="10,62,0,100" Name="myListBox" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="120" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource CarsData}}"/> <Button Height="23" Margin="66,0,0,65" Name="addBtn" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Click="addBtn_Click" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="64">add</Button> <TextBox Margin="10,0,0,64.48" Name="myTextBox" Height="23" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="47" /> <Button Height="23" Margin="66,0,0,33" Name="removeButton" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="64" Click="removeButton_Click">Remove</Button> </Grid> </Window> There is my c# code: namespace WpfApplication1 { public partial class Window1 : Window { MyModel listMgr; ObservableCollection carList; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); listMgr = new MyModel(); } private void addBtn_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { listMgr.add(new Car(0, myTextBox.Text, 2011)); } private void removeButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { //myListBox.Items.RemoveAt(0); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { carList = listMgr.getList(); myListBox.DataContext = carList; //secondListBox.DataContext = carList; } } } Thanks, Li

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• refactoring this function in Java

  - by Joel

  Hi folks, I'm learning Java, and I know one of the big complaints about newbie programmers is that we make really long and involved methods that should be broken into several. Well here is one I wrote and is a perfect example. :-D. public void buildBall(){ /* sets the x and y value for the center of the canvas */ double i = ((getWidth() / 2)); double j = ((getHeight() / 2)); /* randomizes the start speed of the ball */ vy = 3.0; vx = rgen.nextDouble(1.0, 3.0); if (rgen.nextBoolean(.05)) vx = -vx; /* creates the ball */ GOval ball = new GOval(i,j,(2 *BALL_RADIUS),(2 * BALL_RADIUS)); ball.setFilled(true); ball.setFillColor(Color.RED); add(ball); /* animates the ball */ while(true){ i = (i + (vx* 2)); j = (j + (vy* 2)); if (i > APPLICATION_WIDTH-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vx = -vx; } if (j > APPLICATION_HEIGHT-(2 * BALL_RADIUS)){ vy = -vy; } if (i < 0){ vx = -vx; } if (j < 0){ vy = -vy; } ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); pause(10); /* checks the edges of the ball to see if it hits an object */ colider = getElementAt(i, j); if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i + (2*BALL_RADIUS), j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } if (colider == null){ colider = getElementAt(i, j + (2*BALL_RADIUS)); } /* If the ball hits an object it reverses direction */ if (colider != null){ vy = -vy; /* removes bricks when hit but not the paddle */ if (j < (getHeight() -(PADDLE_Y_OFFSET + PADDLE_HEIGHT))){ remove(colider); } } } You can see from the title of the method that I started with good intentions of "building the ball". There are a few issues I ran up against: The problem is that then I needed to move the ball, so I created that while loop. I don't see any other way to do that other than just keep it "true", so that means any other code I create below this loop won't happen. I didn't make the while loop a different function because I was using those variables i and j. So I don't see how I can refactor beyond this loop. So my main question is: How would I pass the values of i and j to a new method: "animateBall" and how would I use ball.move(vx + vx, vy + vy); in that new method if ball has been declared in the buildBall method? I understand this is probably a simple thing of better understanding variable scope and passing arguments, but I'm not quite there yet...

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