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  • A monkey could do this better - Access to and availability of private member functions in C++

    - by David
    I am wandering the desert of my brain. I'm trying to write something like the following: class MyClass { // Peripherally Related Stuff public: void TakeAnAction(int oneThing, int anotherThing) { switch(oneThing){ case THING_A: TakeThisActionWith(anotherThing); break; //cases THINGS_NOT_A: }; private: void TakeThisActionWith(int thing) { string outcome = new string; outcome = LookUpOutcome(thing); // Do some stuff based on outcome return; } string LookUpOutcome(int key) { string oc = new string; oc = MyPrivateMap[key]; return oc; } map<int, string> MyPrivateMap; Then in the .cc file where I am actually using these things, while compiling the TakeAnAction section, it [CC, the solaris compiler] throws an an error: 'The function LookUpOutcome must have a prototype' and bombs out. In my header file, I have declared 'string LookUpOutcome(int key);' in the private section of the class. I have tried all sorts of variations. I tried to use 'this' for a little while, and it gave me 'Can only use this in non-static member function.' Sadly, I haven't declared anything static and these are all, putatively, member functions. I tried it [on TakeAnAction and LookUp] when I got the error, but I got something like, 'Can't access MyPrivateMap from LookUp'. MyPrivateMap could be made public and I could refer to it directly, I guess, but my sensibility says that is not the right way to go about this [that means that namespace scoped helper functions are out, I think]. I also guess I could just inline the lookup and subsequent other stuff, but my line-o-meter goes on tilt. I'm trying desperately not to kludge it.

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  • Maven compile plugin

    - by phanikiran
    Hi every body, in pom of a project, i have added dependency with scope compile . which is a jar file which contains some class file and jar's as well. my current java file needs internal jars of dependent jar to compile. But maven compile goal returning compilation error . :banghead: All the jar's needed to compile are in the single jar file which is added in dependency............................. Please help me! my pom: <dependency> <groupId>eagle</groupId> <artifactId>zkui</artifactId> <version>360LTS</version> <type>jar</type> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> <build> <sourceDirectory>./src/main/java/</sourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>./target/classes/</outputDirectory> <finalName>${project.groupId}-${project.artifactId}</finalName> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> error: package org.zkoss.zk.ui does not exist this package org.zkoss.zk.ui is in jar file zkex.jar which is in dependency jar eagle:zkui:360LTS jar file Please Help ME!!!! :jumpingjoy: Advance Thanks

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  • Emulating Visual Studio's Web Application "publish" at the command line

    - by cbp
    Hi, I am trying to automate my deployment process and am now thoroughly confused. I know that there are many questions on stackoverflow about this, but they all have different solutions and none of them work. I have a Web Application project which I usually publish by right-clicking and selecting "Publish". I get a dialog box where I use the following options: Build configuration: Release Publish method: File system Target location: C:\Deployments\MyWebsite Replace matching files with local copies I should mention that in the properties of the project I have "Items to deploy" set to "Only files needed to run this application". After running this, my entire solution is built, dependencies are resolved, build events are run, web.config transformations are applied and the website is copied to C:\Deployments\MyWebsite, although non-required files such as code-behind files are not copied. I have not been able to replicate this... in fact at this stage I'm not even sure which command line tool am I supposed to be using - msbuild, msdeploy or aspnet_compiler? This guy asks almost the same question but his solution doesn't work at all. For example, build events do not run correctly because the macros are not resolved. Whats more, the files do not get copied into the correct directory at all... I can't even begin to explain what happens!

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  • can not override showDialog in Activity tab

    - by hornetbzz
    Trying to downgrade my appl from android 2.2 (API 8) down to android 2.1 (API7), I'm facing some issues with dialog boxes. Based on this thread, I'm trying to catch these exceptions but can't override the showDialog method. I turned the Java compiler from 1.5 to 1.6 according to this answer to a similar issue, but no changes, Eclipse still returns : Cannot override the final method from Activity public class MyActivity extends Activity implements SeekBar.OnSeekBarChangeListener { // ... some stuffs @Override // here is the issue public void showDialog(int dialogId) { try { super.showDialog(dialogId); } catch (IllegalArgumentException e) { Log.e(ACTIVITY_TAG, "Error dialog"); } } @Override protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch (id) { case DIALOG_ALERT: // Create out AlertDialog Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setMessage(msg); builder.setCancelable(false); builder.setPositiveButton(GOTO_BOOK, new OkOnClickListener()); builder.setNegativeButton(STAY_HERE, new CancelOnClickListener()); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); break; case DIALOG_ONCREATE: // Create out AlertDialog during the "onCreate" method (only "Ok" // button) Builder builder2 = new AlertDialog.Builder(getParent()); builder2.setMessage(msg); builder2.setCancelable(false); builder2.setPositiveButton(GO_BACK, new OkOnClickListener()); AlertDialog dialog2 = builder2.create(); dialog2.show(); break; } return super.onCreateDialog(id); } // ... some stuffs }

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  • Microsoft products such as Visual Studio 2010 does not require to enter serial number

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I am member of WebsiteSpark and was member of DreamSpark. Both programs enable to download software and provide serial keys to use. Some software like Windows Server has an ISO file to download and a serial number displayed on the website which I must enter during installation. Some other software does not have any serial key. For example, when I downloaded Visual Studio 2010, there was just a link to an ISO file. During installation, there was no such a field as serial number (whereas Visual Studio 2008 had this field at the beginning of installation process). There is the same thing with SQL Server 2008 and Microsoft Expression Studio 3. Even when I've downloaded the public trial RTM version of Windows Seven Enterprise, there were no serial number to enter. I don't think that such expensive products as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise are delivered without serials and online validation, so I suppose that the serial is embedded into the product itself, either in installation binaries or in a separate config file, so is already in the ISO I download so I do not have to enter it. So my question is, how it is done technically? Is each 2 GBs ISO generated on-demand on the server to embed a serial each time this ISO is requested? I suppose that if it is done, it has a huge impact on servers performance (no caching, no streaming...), so what may be the techniques used behind? I want to implement the same feature in a product I intend to ship (to simplify installation by avoiding to ask to enter serial number), but I really don't see how to do it with low impact on server performance.

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  • How to access hidden template in unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Here is a tricky situation, and i wonder what ways there are to solve it namespace { template <class T> struct Template { /* ... */ }; } typedef Template<int> Template; Sadly, the Template typedef interferes with the Template template in the unnamed namespace. When you try to do Template<float> in the global scope, the compiler raises an ambiguity error between the template name and the typedef name. You don't have control over either the template name or the typedef-name. Now I want to know whether it is possible to: Create an object of the typedefed type Template (i.e Template<int>) in the global namespace. Create an object of the type Template<float> in the global namespace. You are not allowed to add anything to the unnamed namespace. Everything should be done in the global namespace. This is out of curiosity because i was wondering what tricks there are for solving such an ambiguity. It's not a practical problem i hit during daily programming.

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  • integrating recaptcha (with custom look) with asp.net

    - by raklos
    Im using asp.net/c# weborms. I've added recaptcha to the form and used what is on their site. It needs a custom look hence it's like this: <div id="recaptcha_widget" style="display:none"> <div id="recaptcha_image"></div> <div class="recaptcha_only_if_incorrect_sol" style="color:red">Incorrect please try again</div> <span class="recaptcha_only_if_image">Enter the words above:</span> <span class="recaptcha_only_if_audio">Enter the numbers you hear:</span> <input type="text" id="recaptcha_response_field" name="recaptcha_response_field" /> <div><a href="javascript:Recaptcha.reload()">Get another CAPTCHA</a></div> <div class="recaptcha_only_if_image"><a href="javascript:Recaptcha.switch_type('audio')">Get an audio CAPTCHA</a></div> <div class="recaptcha_only_if_audio"><a href="javascript:Recaptcha.switch_type('image')">Get an image CAPTCHA</a></div> <div><a href="javascript:Recaptcha.showhelp()">Help</a></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?k=your_public_key"> </script> <noscript> <iframe src="http://api.recaptcha.net/noscript?k=your_public_key" height="300" width="500" frameborder="0"></iframe><br> <textarea name="recaptcha_challenge_field" rows="3" cols="40"> </textarea> <input type="hidden" name="recaptcha_response_field" value="manual_challenge"> </noscript> what do i need to do in the button_click method in the code behind iof the form to check if the words eneterd by the user is correct. same for audio. Thanks

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • Adding items to a combo box's internal list programatically.

    - by Andrew
    So, despite Matt's generous explanation in my last question, I still didn't understand and decided to start a new project and use an internal list. - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { codesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../codelist.txt"]; namesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../namelist.txt"]; codesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[codesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; namesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[namesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; addTheDash = [[NSString alloc]initWithString:@" - "]; flossNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; [flossNames removeAllObjects]; for (int n=0; n<=[codesListArray count]; n++){ NSMutableString *nameBuilder = [[NSMutableString alloc]initWithFormat:@"%@", [codesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [nameBuilder appendString:addTheDash]; [nameBuilder appendString:[namesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [comboBoz addItemWithObjectValue:[NSMutableString stringWithString:nameBuilder]]; [nameBuilder release]; } } So this is my latest attempt at this and the list still isn't showing in my combo box. I've tried using the addItemsWithObjectValues outside the for loop along with the suggestions at this question: Is this the right way to add items to NSCombobox in Cocoa ? But still no luck. If you can't tell, I'm trying to combine two strings from the files with a hyphen in between them and then put that new string into the combo box. There are over 400 codes and matching names in the two files, so manually putting them in would be a huge chore, not to mention, I don't see what would be causing this problem. The compiler shows no warnings or errors, and in the IB, I have it set to use the internal list, but when I run it, the list is not populated unless I do it manually. Some things I thought might be causing it: Being in the applicationDidFinishLaunching: method Having the string and array variables declared as instance variables in the header (along with @property and @synth done to them) Messing around with using appendString multiple times with NSMutableArrays Nothing seems to be causing this to me, but maybe someone else will know something I don't. Thanks for the help.

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  • How to choose light version of database system

    - by adopilot
    I am starting one POS (Point of sale) project. Targeting system is going to be written in C# .NET 2 WinForms and as main database server We are going to use MS-SQL Server. As we have a lot of POS devices in chain for one store I will love to have backend local data base system on each POS device. Scenario are following: When main server goes down!! POS application should continue working "off-line" with local database, until connection to main server come up again. Now I am in dilemma which local database is going to be most adoptable for me. Here is some notes for helping me point me in right direction: To be Light "My POS devices art usually old and suffering with performances" To be Free "I have a lot of devices and I do not wont additional cost beside main SQL serer" One day Ill love to try all that port on Mono and Linux OS. Here is what I've researched so far: Simple XML "Light but I am afraid of performance, My main table of items is average of 10K records" SQL-Express "I am afraid that my POS devices is poor with hardware for SQLExpress, and also hard to install on each device and configure" Less known Advantage Database Server have free distribution of offline ADT system. DBF with extended Library,"Respect for good old DBFs but that era is behind Me with clipper and DBFs" MS Access Sqlite "Mostly like for now, but I am afraid how it is going to pair with MS SQL do they have same Data types". I know that in this SO is a lot of subjective data, but at least can someone recommended some others lite database system, or things that I shod most take attention before I choice database.

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  • Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

    - by nomemory
    Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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  • Easily (as in WYSIWYG) customize the docbook output

    - by Sukima
    I've used DocBook in the past and I love the idea behind the separation of content from presentation. I am very comfortable editing XML directly. In my extensive search to find the best documenting solution for my needs I am always coming back to this one solution: DocBook - Build system (ant, make, etc.) - Output I have seen lots of information concerning the best WYSIWYG, XML, Text editors for writing DocBook including alternative markup languages like asciidoc. All these solutions focus on the creation of DocBook or the nightmare of the DocBook tool chain. No one ever addresses the Output side other then to say "Just use XSL" or "Custom scripts" When tasked to make a document or manual I don't want to worry about spending countless hours attempting to reprogram, customize, and modify the XSL, CSS, and shell scripts (i.e. O'Riely books). That is a very arduous task. My query: is there a tool that makes the customizing easier? And is there anything that could be similar to say Pages or Word in that the user creates a template and the tool chain does the rest? Attempting to do a visual task like pretty logos and fixing all the broken layouts that the default XSL comes up with (pagination is a mess) is very difficult from a text editor. Content is easy. Editing DocBook XSL was truly a nightmare when I did it in the past. I've searched and I find lots of info on XML editors but nothing on XSL editors. Or am I lacking a key understanding of the process. Thanks.

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  • Float addition promoted to double?

    - by Andreas Brinck
    I had a small WTF moment this morning. Ths WTF can be summarized with this: float x = 0.2f; float y = 0.1f; float z = x + y; assert(z == x + y); //This assert is triggered! (Atleast with visual studio 2008) The reason seems to be that the expression x + y is promoted to double and compared with the truncated version in z. (If i change z to double the assert isn't triggered). I can see that for precision reasons it would make sense to perform all floating point arithmetics in double precision before converting the result to single precision. I found the following paragraph in the standard (which I guess I sort of already knew, but not in this context): 4.6.1. "An rvalue of type float can be converted to an rvalue of type double. The value is unchanged" My question is, is x + y guaranteed to be promoted to double or is at the compiler's discretion? UPDATE: Since many people has claimed that one shouldn't use == for floating point, I just wanted to state that in the specific case I'm working with, an exact comparison is justified. Floating point comparision is tricky, here's an interesting link on the subject which I think hasn't been mentioned.

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  • C Nested Structure Pointer Problem

    - by Halo
    I have a shared structure, and inside it a request structure: struct shared_data { pthread_mutex_t th_mutex_queue; struct request_queue { int min; int max; char d_name[DIR_SIZE]; pid_t pid; int t_index; } request_queue[BUFSIZE]; int count; int data_buffer_allocation[BUFSIZE]; int data_buffers[BUFSIZE][100]; }; Then I prepare a request; struct shared_data *sdata_ptr; ... ... sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].pid = pid; strcpy(sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].d_name, dir_path_name); sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].min = min; sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].max = max; And the compiler warns me that I'm doing an incompatible implicit declaration in the strcpy function. I guess that's a problem with the pointers, but isn't what I wrote above supposed to be true?

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • How can I tackle 'profoundly found elsewhere' syndrome (inverse of NIH)?

    - by Alistair Knock
    How can I encourage colleagues to embrace small-scale innovation within our team(s), in order to get things done quicker and to encourage skills development? (the term 'profoundly found elsewhere' comes from Wikipedia, although it is scarcely used anywhere else apart from a reference to Proctor & Gamble) I've worked in both environments where there is a strong opposition to software which hasn't been developed in-house (usually because there's a large community of developers), and more recently (with far fewer central developers) where off-the-shelf products are far more favoured for the usual reasons: maintenance, total cost over product lifecycle, risk management and so on. I think the off the shelf argument works in the majority of cases for the majority of users, even though as a developer the product never quite does what I'd like it to do. However, in some cases there are clear gaps where the market isn't able to provide specifically what we would need, or at least it isn't able to without charging astronomical consultancy rates for a bespoke solution. These can be small web applications which provide a short-term solution to a particular need in one specific department, or could be larger developments that have the potential to serve a wider audience, both across the organisation and into external markets. The problem is that while development of these applications would be incredibly cheap in terms of developer hours, and delivered very quickly without the need for glacial consultation, the proposal usually falls flat because of risk: 'Who'll maintain the project tracker that hasn't had any maintenance for the past 7 years while you're on holiday for 2 weeks?' 'What if one of our systems changes and the connector breaks?' 'How can you guarantee it's secure/better/faster/cheaper/holier than Company X's?' With one developer behind these little projects, the answers are invariably: 'Nobody, but...' 'It will break, just like any other application would...' 'I, uh...' How can I better answer these questions and encourage people to take a little risk in order to stimulate creativity and fast-paced, short-lifecycle development instead of using that 6 months to consult about what tender process we might use?

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  • Stack usage with MMX intrinsics and Microsoft C++

    - by arik-funke
    I have an inline assembler loop that cumulatively adds elements from an int32 data array with MMX instructions. In particular, it uses the fact that the MMX registers can accommodate 16 int32s to calculate 16 different cumulative sums in parallel. I would now like to convert this piece of code to MMX intrinsics but I am afraid that I will suffer a performance penalty because one cannot explicitly intruct the compiler to use the 8 MMX registers to accomulate 16 independent sums. Can anybody comment on this and maybe propose a solution on how to convert the piece of code below to use intrinsics? == inline assembler (only part within the loop) == paddd mm0, [esi+edx+8*0] ; add first & second pair of int32 elements paddd mm1, [esi+edx+8*1] ; add third & fourth pair of int32 elements ... paddd mm2, [esi+edx+8*2] paddd mm3, [esi+edx+8*3] paddd mm4, [esi+edx+8*4] paddd mm5, [esi+edx+8*5] paddd mm6, [esi+edx+8*6] paddd mm7, [esi+edx+8*7] ; add 15th & 16th pair of int32 elements esi points to the beginning of the data array edx provides the offset in the data array for the current loop iteration the data array is arranged such that the elements for the 16 independent sums are interleaved.

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

    - by Decker
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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  • selecting a row by means of a button ... using didSelectRowAtIndexPath

    - by John Smith
    hey people , I have a question concerning a button I would like to create which selects my previous selected row. This is what I came up so far but since I'm new with the functionality and such I could definately use some pointers I created a toolbar with a button and behind this button is the following action. -(void)clickRow { selectedRow = [self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow]; [self.tableView:[self tableView] didSelectRowAtIndexPath:selectedRow]; } in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath there is a rootViewController being pushed rvController = [RootViewController alloc] ...etc So what I would like is my function clickRow to select the row and push the new rootviewcontroller (which has the right info since I'm using a tree ). I tried something like this as well -(void)clickRow { NSDictionary *dictionary = [self.tableDataSource objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSArray *Children = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Children"]; rvController = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RootViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; rvController.CurrentLevel += 1; rvController.CurrentTitle = [dictionary objectForKey:@"Title"]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:rvController animated:YES]; rvController.tableDataSource = Children; [rvController release]; } The last function works a little but a little is not enough;) For instance if I press the middle row or any other it constantly selects the toprow. thnx all for those of you reading and trying to help

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  • Compile time float packing/punning

    - by detly
    I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

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  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

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  • help understanding differences between #define, const and enum in C and C++ on assembly level.

    - by martin
    recently, i am looking into assembly codes for #define, const and enum: C codes(#define): 3 #define pi 3 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 a=2*pi*r; 8 return 0; 9 } assembly codes(for line 6 and 7 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(enum): 2 int main(void) 3 { 4 int a,r=1; 5 enum{pi=3}; 6 a=2*pi*r; 7 return 0; 8 } assembly codes(for line 4 and 6 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(const): 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 const int pi=3; 8 a=2*pi*r; 9 return 0; 10 } assembly codes(for line 7 and 8 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 movl $0x3, -0x8(%ebp) 7 movl $0x3, -0x4(%ebp) 8 mov -0x4(%ebp), %eax 8 add %eax, %eax 8 imul -0x8(%ebp), %eax 8 mov %eax, 0xc(%ebp) i found that use #define and enum, the assembly codes are the same. The compiler use 3 add instructions to perform multiplication. However, when use const, imul instruction is used. Anyone knows the reason behind that?

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  • Case class copy() method abstraction.

    - by Joa Ebert
    I would like to know if it is possible to abstract the copy method of case classes. Basically I have something like sealed trait Op and then something like case class Push(value: Int) extends Op and case class Pop() extends Op. The first problem: A case class without arguments/members does not define a copy method. You can try this in the REPL. scala> case class Foo() defined class Foo scala> Foo().copy() <console>:8: error: value copy is not a member of Foo Foo().copy() ^ scala> case class Foo(x: Int) defined class Foo scala> Foo(0).copy() res1: Foo = Foo(0) Is there a reason why the compiler makes this exception? I think it is rather unituitive and I would expect every case class to define a copy method. The second problem: I have a method def ops: List[Op] and I would like to copy all ops like ops map { _.copy() }. How would I define the copy method in the Op trait? I get a "too many arguments" error if I say def copy(): this.type. However, since all copy() methods have only optional arguments: why is this incorrect? And, how do I do that correct? By making another method named def clone(): this.type and write everywhere def clone() = copy() for all the case classes? I hope not.

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  • Action property of interface type

    - by Daniel
    Hi, guys. With my understading, the nature of a Action is that properties can be pushed w/ request parameter values. And, one wonderful feature is that Struts2 allows you to directly populate parameter values against Class type property ;) Assuming there exists a Action and property class as below, class Action extends ActionSupport { User user; @Action(value="hello" {@result=(.......)}) public void execute() { ........ } ..... public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public User getUser() { return this.user; } } class User { String name; ..... public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public String getName() { return this.name; } } you could populate User class property by doing like this. http://...../hello.action?user.name=John or via jsp page Then, I realize that there are actually people make an Action property as a Interface type. My question is what is the reason behind this. If there is a sample code demonstrating it will be great. Thanks in advance!

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