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  • Instantiating and starting a Scala Actor in a Map

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I'm experimenting with a map of actors, and would like to know how to instantiate them and start them in one fell swoop... import scala.actors.Actor import scala.actors.Actor._ import scala.collection.mutable._ abstract class Message case class Update extends Message object Test { val groupings = "group1" :: "group2" :: "group3":: Nil val myActorMap = new HashMap[String,MyActor] def main(args : Array[String]) { groupings.foreach(group => myActorMap += (group -> new MyActor)) myActorMap("group2").start myActorMap("group2") ! Update } } class MyActor extends Actor { def act() { loop { react { case Update => println("Received Update") case _ => println("Ignoring event") } } } } The line: myActorMap("group2").start will grab the second instance, and let me start it, but I would like to be able to do something more like: groupings.foreach(group => myActorMap += (group -> (new MyActor).start)) but no matter how I wrap the new Actor, the compiler complains with something along the lines of: type mismatch; found : scala.actors.Actor required: com.myCompany.test.MyActor or various other complaints. I know it must be something simple to do with anonymous classes, but I can't see it right now. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!!

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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  • Making Javascript and HTML5 games

    - by Jeff Meatball Yang
    A long time ago (Netscape 4-era), I wrote Javascript-based games: Pong, Minesweeper, and John Conway's Life among them. I'm getting back into it, and want to get my hands even dirtier. I have a few games in mind: Axis & Allies clone, with rugged maps and complex rules. Tetris clone, possibly with real-time player-vs-player or player-vs-computer mode Breakout clone, with a couple weapons and particle velocities In all of these, I have only a few objectives: Use JavaScript and HTML 5 - it should run on Chrome, Safari, or maybe an iPad. Start small and simple, then build-up features. Learn something new about game design and implementation. So my questions are: How would you implement these games? Do you have any technology recommendations? If you've written these games, what was the hardest part? N.B. I also want to start from first-principles - if you recommend a framework/library, I would appreciate some theory or implementation details behind it. These games are different enough that I should learn something new from each one.

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • How to remove Region and add new ContentControls from Module

    - by Jeaffrey Gilbert
    I've set only one region in Shell "LoginRegion" <!-- Login Region --> <Border Grid.Row="0"> <ContentControl x:Name="LoginRegion" Regions:RegionManager.RegionName="LoginRegion" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"/> </Border> And after login succeeded, I need to remove "LoginRegion" and add 3 other regions with new LayoutRoot grid definitions to Shell from code behind in Login module. <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="93"/> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition Height="24"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <!-- Top Region --> <Border Grid.Row="0"> <ContentControl x:Name="TopRegion" Regions:RegionManager.RegionName="TopRegion" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"/> </Border> <!-- Main Region --> <Border Grid.Row="1"> <ContentControl x:Name="MainRegion" Regions:RegionManager.RegionName="MainRegion" Style="{StaticResource TestStyle}" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"/> </Border> <!-- Bottom Region --> <Border Grid.Row="2"> <ContentControl x:Name="BottomRegion" Regions:RegionManager.RegionName="BottomRegion" VerticalContentAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"/> </Border> Please help, thank you.

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  • ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

    - by Joris
    Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

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  • Error when compiling a WinForms project that uses SubSonic library

    - by Mike Devenney
    The code generation is working but I get the following errors when I try to build the project: Error 4 Source file '...Project Path...\Structs.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 5 Source file '...Project Path...\Context.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 6 Source file '...Project Path...\ActiveRecord.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 7 Source file '...Project Path...\StoredProcedures.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator I'm using VS2010 on a Windows 7 64 bit machine. Project is targeting Framework 3.5... any ideas? Also noticed the following warnings, but not sure that these are as important: Warning 1 The C# 2.0 and C# 3.5 compilers are no longer supported. Templates will always be compiled with the version 4 compiler instead of 'v3.5' as specified. ...ProjectPath...\Structs.tt 1 4 Warning 2 Multiple template directives were found in the template. All but the first one will be ignored. Multiple parameters to the template directive should be specified within one template directive. ...ProjectPath...\Settings.ttinclude 1 4 Warning 3 Compiling transformation: The variable 'parameters' is assigned but its value is never used ...ProjectPath...\SQLServer.ttinclude 92 15 Thanks! Mike D

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  • Why do mozilla and webkit prepend -moz- and -webkit- to CSS3 rules?

    - by egarcia
    CSS3 rules bring lots of interesting features. Take border-radius, for example. The standard says that if you write this rule: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; } I should get a 5px border radius. But neither mozilla nor webkit implement this. However, they implement the same thing, with the same parameters, with a different name (-moz-border-radius and -webkit-border-radius, respectively). In order to satisfy as many browsers as possible, you end up with this: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; } I can see two obvious disadvantages: Copy-paste code. This has obvious risks that I will not discuss here. The W3C CSS validator will not validate these rules. At the same time, I don't see any obvious advantages. I believe that the people behind mozilla and webkit are more intelligent than myself. There must be some good reasons to have things structured this way. It's just that I can't see them. So, I must ask you people: why is this?

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  • Pointer Implementation Details in C

    - by Will Bickford
    I would like to know architectures which violate the assumptions I've listed below. Also I would like to know if any of the assumptions are false for all architectures (i.e. if any of them are just completely wrong). sizeof(int *) == sizeof(char *) == sizeof(void *) == sizeof(func_ptr *) The in-memory representation of all pointers for a given architecture is the same regardless of the data type pointed to. The in-memory representation of a pointer is the same as an integer of the same bit length as the architecture. Multiplication and division of pointer data types are only forbidden by the compiler. NOTE: Yes I know this is nonsensical. What I mean is - is there hardware support to forbid this incorrect usage? All pointer values can be casted to a single integer. In other words, what architectures still make use of segments and offsets? Incrementing a pointer is equivalent to adding sizeof(the pointed data type) to the memory address stored by the pointer. If p is an int32* then p+1 is equal to the memory address 4 bytes after p. I'm most used to pointers being used in a contiguous, virtual memory space. For that usage, I can generally get by thinking of them as addresses on a number line. See (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1350471/pointer-comparison/1350488#1350488).

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  • How to handle alpha in a manual "Overlay" blend operation?

    - by quixoto
    I'm playing with some manual (walk-the-pixels) image processing, and I'm recreating the standard "overlay" blend. I'm looking at the "Photoshop math" macros here: http://www.nathanm.com/photoshop-blending-math/ (See also here for more readable version of Overlay) Both source images are in fairly standard RGBA (8 bits each) format, as is the destination. When both images are fully opaque (alpha is 1.0), the result is blended correctly as expected: But if my "blend" layer (the top image) has transparency in it, I'm a little flummoxed as to how to factor that alpha into the blending equation correctly. I expect it to work such that transparent pixels in the blend layer have no effect on the result, opaque pixels in the blend layer do the overlay blend as normal, and semitransparent blend layer pixels have some scaled effect on the result. Can someone explain to me the blend equations or the concept behind doing this? Bonus points if you can help me do it such that the resulting image has correctly premultiplied alpha (which only comes into play for pixels that are not opaque in both layers, I think.) Thanks! // factor in blendLayerA, (1-blendLayerA) somehow? resultR = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerR, blendLayerR); resultG = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerG, blendLayerG); resultB = ChannelBlend_Overlay(baseLayerB, blendLayerB); resultA = 1.0; // also, what should this be??

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • calling template function without <>; type inference

    - by Oops
    Hi, if I have a function template with typename T, where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitely when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> but if I have a function template with two different typenames like... template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I have to specify at least 1 typename, always? I assume the reason is because C++ can not distinguish functions between different return types, true? but if I use a void function and handover a reference, again I must not explicitely specify the return typename: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > void round( TOut & vret, TIn vin ) { vret = (TOut)(vin + 0.5); } double d = 1.54; int i; round(i, d); //no explicit <int> should the conclusion be to avoid functions with return and more prefer void functions that return via a reference when writing templates? Or is there a possibility to avoid explicitely writing the return type? something like "type inference" for templates... is "type inference" possible in C++0x? I hope I was not too unclear. many thanks in advance Oops

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  • How do you fix issues with the debugger for the Android plug-in for Eclipse not attaching?

    - by user279112
    I have been trying to program something for the Android mobile phone, using Eclipse and the Android plug-in for that IDE, and my debugger used to attach just fine. But then it has suddenly started having consistent issues attaching. I just get that message about how the process is waiting for the debugger attach, and then it just won't. What determines whether the attachment glitches so seems to have something to do with what the code is that I'm trying to debug, as it seems to be drastically more of an issue with some versions of my code than with others (on the same app). How do I fix this? Now before you answer, please understand that I have researched this issue already. I have found a couple of solutions that have worked with other people, but which do not work for me. One of which is setting the debuggable property in the main manifest file as true, and the other is going into Dev Tools and into some settings menu, and from there selecting the process and essentially saying to the fake phone, "Debug this process". Neither has really worked. Any other ideas? And just in case...I've run into one blasted technical issue like this after another trying to program for that stupid phone. And I'm not the only one who's having these issues; when I go online to research these issues, it is always very easy for me to find many people who have the same issues, and who are having to use the shottiest, sloppiest, most "ghetto" solutions to work around these issues. I know that many people have created good applications for that phone, but I don't see how I'm supposed to do that when the SDK and the plug-in just don't work half the time. Does anybody know how I may put all this trash behind me, once and for all? Thanks for your answers to either question!

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Setting an Excel Range with an Array using Python and comtypes?

    - by technomalogical
    Using comtypes to drive Python, it seems some magic is happening behind the scenes that is not converting tuples and lists to VARIANT types: # RANGE(“C14:D21”) has values # Setting the Value on the Range with a Variant should work, but # list or tuple is not getting converted properly it seems >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Open(r'C:\temp\my_file.xlsx') >>>xl.Visible = True >>>vals=tuple([(x,y) for x,y in zip('abcdefgh',xrange(8))]) # creates: #(('a', 0), ('b', 1), ('c', 2), ('d', 3), ('e', 4), ('f', 5), ('g', 6), ('h', 7)) >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value() (('foo',1),('foo',2),('foo',3),('foo',4),('foo',6),('foo',6),('foo',7),('foo',8)) >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value[()] = vals # no error, this blanks out the cells in the Range According to the comtypes docs: When you pass simple sequences (lists or tuples) as VARIANT parameters, the COM server will receive a VARIANT containing a SAFEARRAY of VARIANTs with the typecode VT_ARRAY | VT_VARIANT. This seems to be inline with what MSDN says about passing an array to a Range's Value. I also found this page showing something similar in C#. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? EDIT I've come up with a simpler example that performs the same way (in that, it does not work): >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Add() >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] # at this point, I manually typed into the range A1:B3 >>> sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value() ((u'AAA', 1.0), (u'BBB', 2.0), (u'CCC', 3.0)) >>>sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value[()] = [(x,y) for x,y in zip('xyz',xrange(3))] # Using a generator expression, per @Mike's comment # However, this still blanks out my range :(

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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  • Static library not included in resulting LLVM executable

    - by Matthew Glubb
    Hi, I am trying to compile a c program using LLVM and I am having trouble getting some static libraries included. I have successfully compiled those static libraries using LLVM and, for example, libogg.a is present, as is ogg.l.bc. However, when I try to build the final program, it does not include the static ogg library. I've tried various compiler options with the most notable being: gcc oggvorbis.c -O3 -Wall -I$OV_DIR/include -l$OV_DIR/lib/libogg.a -l$OV_DIR/lib/libvorbis.a -o test.exe This results in the following output (directories shortened for brevity): $OV_DIR/include/vorbis/vorbisfile.h:75: warning: ‘OV_CALLBACKS_DEFAULT’ defined but not used $OV_DIR/include/vorbis/vorbisfile.h:82: warning: ‘OV_CALLBACKS_NOCLOSE’ defined but not used $OV_DIR/include/vorbis/vorbisfile.h:89: warning: ‘OV_CALLBACKS_STREAMONLY’ defined but not used $OV_DIR/include/vorbis/vorbisfile.h:96: warning: ‘OV_CALLBACKS_STREAMONLY_NOCLOSE’ defined but not used llvm-ld: warning: Cannot find library '$OV_DIR/lib/ogg.l.bc' llvm-ld: warning: Cannot find library '$OV_DIR/lib/vorbis.l.bc' WARNING: While resolving call to function 'main' arguments were dropped! I find this perplexing because $OV_DIR/lib/ogg.l.bc DOES exit, as does vorbis.l.bc and they are both readable (as are their containing directories) by everyone. Does anyone have any idea with what I am doing wrong? Thanks, Matt

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  • actionscript-3: refactor interface inheritance to get rid of ambiguous reference error

    - by maxmc
    hi! imagine there are two interfaces arranged via composite pattern, one of them has a dispose method among other methods: interface IComponent extends ILeaf { ... function dispose() : void; } interface ILeaf { ... } some implementations have some more things in common (say an id) so there are two more interfaces: interface ICommonLeaf extends ILeaf { function get id() : String; } interface ICommonComponent extends ICommonLeaf, IComponent { } so far so good. but there is another interface which also has a dispose method: interface ISomething { ... function dispose() : void; } and ISomething is inherited by ICommonLeaf: interface ICommonLeaf extends ILeaf, ISomething { function get id() : String; } As soon as the dispose method is invoked on an instance which implements the ICommonComponent interface, the compiler fails with an ambiguous reference error because ISomething has a method called dispose and ILeaf also has a dispose method, both living in different interfaces (IComponent, ISomething) within the inheritace tree of ICommonComponent. I wonder how to deal with the situation if the IComponent, the ILeaf and the ISomething can't change. the composite structure must also work for for the ICommonLeaf & ICommonComponent implementations and the ICommonLeaf & ICommonComponent must conform to the ISomething type. this might be an actionscript-3 specific issue. i haven't tested how other languages (for instance java) handle stuff like this.

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  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • Accessing functions in a swf-file through javascript [chatroulette.com]

    - by RadiantHeart
    Lately I have been interested in the code behind chatroulette.com. As you probably know it is a peer-to-peer webcam-chat-service written in actionscript, as I understand. What i have been wondering about is weather its possible to extract the ip-address of whomever you are currently communicating with. I have seen services that do that, but they require that you install a program that runs alongside on your computer sniffing UDP-packages. I was wondering if there was a simpler method. What I do know is that the javascript on the page communicates with the application via "ExternalInterface". On this area I am pretty much a novice but according to my limited understanding you cant get information from the flash-application unless you have configured a listener for a call from javascript and then attach a callback to that event. Is this correct or can you access public functions and variables directly through javascript? There is for example a public function like this: public function get outgoingAddress():String{ return (this.__info.outgoingAddress); } Can it be accessed directly through javascript? If it cant be done so easily, is it possible to decompile the .swf-file, change it (add some functions) and recompile it and run it instead? I am hoping someone can satisfy my curiosity here. Here are two links to a decompiled version of the swf-file. The first with line numbering and one without. With line numbering ˜ 3.5 Mbyte Without line numbering ˜ 2.1 Mbyte

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • PDCurses TUI with C++ Win32 console application

    - by Bach
    I have downloaded pdcurses source and was able to successfully include curses.h in my project, linked the pre-compiled library and all good. After few hours of trying out the library, I saw the tuidemo.c in the demos folder, compiled it into an executable and brilliant! exactly what I needed for my project. Now the problem is that it's a C code, and I am working on a C++ project in VS c++ 2008. The files I need are tui.c and tui.h How can I include that C file in my C++ code? I saw few suggestions here but the compiler was not too happy with 100's of warnings and errors. How can I go on including/using that TUI pdcurses includes!? Thanks EDIT: I added extern "C" statement, so my test looks like this now, but I'm getting some other type of error #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> using namespace std; extern "C" { #include <tui.h> } void sub0(void) { //do nothing } void sub1(void) { //do nothing } int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { menu MainMenu[] = { { "Asub", sub0, "Go inside first submenu" }, { "Bsub", sub1, "Go inside second submenu" }, { "", (FUNC)0, "" } /* always add this as the last item! */ }; startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); return 0; } Although it is compiling successfully, it is throwing an Error at runtime: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x021c52f9 at line startmenu(MainMenu, "TUI - 'textual user interface' demonstration program"); Not sure where to go from here. thanks again.

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