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• Using JRE 1.5, still maven says annotation not supported in -source 1.3

  - by Abhijeet

  Hi, I am using JRE 1.5. Still when I try to compile my code it fails by saying to use JRE 1.5 instead of 1.3 C:\temp\SpringExamplemvn -e clean install + Error stacktraces are turned on. [INFO] Scanning for projects... [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Building SpringExample [INFO] task-segment: [clean, install] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [clean:clean {execution: default-clean}] [INFO] Deleting directory C:\temp\SpringExample\target [INFO] [resources:resources {execution: default-resources}] [WARNING] Using platform encoding (Cp1252 actually) to copy filtered resources, i.e. build is platform dependent! [INFO] Copying 6 resources [INFO] [compiler:compile {execution: default-compile}] [INFO] Compiling 6 source files to C:\temp\SpringExample\target\classes [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD FAILURE [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Compilation failure C:\temp\SpringExample\src\main\java\com\mkyong\stock\model\Stock.java:[45,9] annotations are not supported in -source 1.3 (try -source 1.5 to enable annotations) @Override [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Trace org.apache.maven.BuildFailureException: Compilation failure C:\temp\SpringExample\src\main\java\com\mkyong\stock\model\Stock.java:[45,9] annotations are not supported in -source 1.3 (try -source 1.5 to enable annotations) @Override at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoals(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:715) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoalWithLifecycle(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:556) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoal(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:535) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoalAndHandleFailures(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:387) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeTaskSegments(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:348) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.execute(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:180) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.doExecute(DefaultMaven.java:328) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute(DefaultMaven.java:138) at org.apache.maven.cli.MavenCli.main(MavenCli.java:362) at org.apache.maven.cli.compat.CompatibleMain.main(CompatibleMain.java:60) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:585) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launchEnhanced(Launcher.java:315) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launch(Launcher.java:255) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.mainWithExitCode(Launcher.java:430) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.main(Launcher.java:375) Caused by: org.apache.maven.plugin.CompilationFailureException: Compilation failure C:\temp\SpringExample\src\main\java\com\mkyong\stock\model\Stock.java:[45,9] annotations are not supported in -source 1.3 (try -source 1.5 to enable annotations) @Override at org.apache.maven.plugin.AbstractCompilerMojo.execute(AbstractCompilerMojo.java:516) at org.apache.maven.plugin.CompilerMojo.execute(CompilerMojo.java:114) at org.apache.maven.plugin.DefaultPluginManager.executeMojo(DefaultPluginManager.java:490) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoals(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:694) ... 17 more [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Total time: 2 seconds [INFO] Finished at: Wed Dec 22 10:04:53 IST 2010 [INFO] Final Memory: 9M/16M [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ C:\temp\SpringExamplejavac -version javac 1.5.0_08 javac: no source files

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• Getting a handle on GIS math, where do I start?

  - by Joshua

  I am in charge of a program that is used to create a set of nodes and paths for consumption by an autonomous ground vehicle. The program keeps track of the locations of all items in its map by indicating the item's position as being x meters north and y meters east of an origin point of 0,0. In the real world, the vehicle knows the location of the origin's lat and long, as it is determined by a dgps system and is accurate down to a couple centimeters. My program is ignorant of any lat long coordinates. It is one of my goals to modify the program to keep track of lat long coords of items in addition to an origin point and items' x,y position in relation to that origin. At first blush, it seems that I am going to modify the program to allow the lat long coords of the origin to be passed in, and after that I desire that the program will automatically calculate the lat long of every item currently in a map. From what I've researched so far, I believe that I will need to figure out the math behind converting to lat long coords from a UTM like projection where I specify the origin points and meridians etc as opposed to whatever is defined already for UTM. I've come to ask of you GIS programmers, am I on the right track? It seems to me like there is so much to wrap ones head around, and I'm not sure if the answer isn't something as simple as, "oh yea theres a conversion from meters to lat long, here" Currently, due to the nature of DGPS, the system really doesn't need to care about locations more than oh, what... 40 km? radius away from the origin. Given this, and the fact that I need to make sure that the error on my coordinates is not greater than .5 meters, do I need anything more complex than a simple lat/long to meters conversion constant? I'm knee deep in materials here. I could use some pointers about what concepts to research. Thanks much!

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• How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

  - by paxdiablo

  As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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• How are you using C++0x today? [closed]

  - by Roger Pate

  This is a question in two parts, the first is the most important and concerns now: Are you following the design and evolution of C++0x? What blogs, newsgroups, committee papers, and other resources do you follow? Even where you're not using any new features, how have they affected your current choices? What new features are you using now, either in production or otherwise? The second part is a follow-up, concerning the new standard once it is final: Do you expect to use it immediately? What are you doing to prepare for C++0x, other than as listed for the previous questions? Obviously, compiler support must be there, but there's still co-workers, ancillary tools, and other factors to consider. What will most affect your adoption? Edit: The original really was too argumentative; however, I'm still interested in the underlying question, so I've tried to clean it up and hopefully make it acceptable. This seems a much better avenue than duplicating—even though some answers responded to the argumentative tone, they still apply to the extent that they addressed the questions, and all answers are community property to be cleaned up as appropriate, too.

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• Web User Control og Event

  - by Mcoroklo

  I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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• How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

  - by miketrash

  I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

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• Why is Delphi unable to infer the type for a parameter TEnumerable<T>?

  - by deepc

  Consider the following declaration of a generic utility class in Delphi 2010: TEnumerableUtils = class public class function InferenceTest<T>(Param: T): T; class function Count<T>(Enumerable: TEnumerable<T>): Integer; overload; class function Count<T>(Enumerable: TEnumerable<T>; Filter: TPredicate<T>): Integer; overload; end; Somehow the compiler type inference seems to have problems here: var I: Integer; L: TList<Integer>; begin TEnumerableUtils.InferenceTest(I); // no problem here TEnumerableUtils.Count(L); // does not compile: E2250 There is no overloaded version of 'Count' that can be called with these arguments TEnumerableUtils.Count<Integer>(L); // compiles fine end; The first call works as expected and T is correctly inferred as Integer. The second call does not work, unless I also add <Integer -- then it works, as can be seen in the third call. Am I doing something wrong or is the type inference in Delphi just not supporting this (I don't think it is a problem in Java which is why expected it to work in Delphi, too).

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• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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• How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

  - by Oliver Giesen

  I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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• jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

  - by meosoft

  Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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• Get :first-letter of :hover element with CSS

  - by Rudie

  Is it possible to get the first letter of an element while in 'hover mode'? This is how it would look - I think - but it's not working in Chrome 10: a:hover:first-letter or a:first-letter:hover Technically (imho) they're not the same. The first takes the first letter of the hovering element. The second takes the entire element if the first letter is hovering. I require the first. As you can see on http://css4.hotblocks.nl (if you have a 1900px screen and a dom inspector) if you uncomment the CSS, both don't work. I want only the first letter of the element to color red, when the entire element is in :hover mode. Is it possible without additional HTML tags? Thanks. -- edit I've changed my online example for the better. CSS is now divided in separate <style> blocks. Makes for easier turning on and off try-outs. Conclusion - so far!? - is this: In Firefox 3.6/4 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:hover:first-letter works perfectly (good!). In Chrome 10 a:first-letter:hover does nothing (good) and a:first-letter:hover breaks the previous CSS 'statement'. (In my example it breaks nothing because it's in a separate <style> block.) Which brings us to: once again Google Chrome lags behind Firefox =( --edit

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• jsf messed up links

  - by Mateusz

  I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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• What are the common compliance standards for software products?

  - by Jay

  This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

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• WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

  - by Am

  I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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• .change(function) can control two command

  - by klox

  dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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• window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

  - by Raul

  i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

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• Function parameters evaluation order: is undefined behaviour if we pass reference?

  - by bolov

  This is undefined behaviour: void feedMeValue(int x, int a) { cout << x << " " << a << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeValue(ra = 3, a); return 0; } because depending on what parameter gets evaluated first we could call (3, 2) or (3, 3). However this: void feedMeReference(int x, int const &ref) { cout << x << " " << ref << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeReference(ra = 3, a); return 0; } will always output 3 3 since the second parameter is a reference and all parameters have been evaluated before the function call, so even if the second parameter is evaluated before of after ra = 3, the function received a reference to a wich will have a value of 2 or 3 at the time of the evaluation, but will always have the value 3 at the time of the function call. Is the second example UB? It is important to know because the compiler is free to do anything if he detects undefined behaviour, even if I know it would always yield the same results. *Note: I think that feedMeReference(a = 3, a) is the exact same situation as feedMeReference(ra = 3, a). However it seems not everybody agrees, in the addition to having 2 completely different answers.

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• Why thread in background is not waiting for task to complete?

  - by Haris Hasan

  I am playing with async await feature of C#. Things work as expected when I use it with UI thread. But when I use it in a non-UI thread it doesn't work as expected. Consider the code below private void Click_Button(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += BgDoWork; bg.RunWorkerCompleted += BgOnRunWorkerCompleted; bg.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void BgOnRunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs runWorkerCompletedEventArgs) { } private async void BgDoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs doWorkEventArgs) { await Method(); } private static async Task Method() { for (int i = int.MinValue; i < int.MaxValue; i++) { var http = new HttpClient(); var tsk = await http.GetAsync("http://www.ebay.com"); } } When I execute this code, background thread don't wait for long running task in Method to complete. Instead it instantly executes the BgOnRunWorkerCompleted after calling Method. Why is that so? What am I missing here? P.S: I am not interested in alternate ways or correct ways of doing this. I want to know what is actually happening behind the scene in this case? Why is it not waiting?

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• How to convert many thousands of lines of VBScript to C#?

  - by Ross Patterson

  I have a collection of about 10,000 small VBScript programs (50-100 lines each) and a small collection of larger ones, and I'm looking for a way to convert them to C# without resorting to by-hand transliteration. The programs are automated test cases for a web application, written for HP/Mercury's QuickTest Pro, and I'm trying to turn them into test cases for Selenium. Luckily, the tests appear to be well-written, using a library of building blocks and idioms (the larger programs), so the test cases actually resemble a domain-specific language more than they do VBScript, and the QTP-ness is well-buried inside the libraries. Ideally, what I'm searching for is a tool that can do the syntactic transformation from VBScript to C# for both the dsl-ish test cases and also the more complicated building-block libraries. That would leave me with a manual cleanup of the libraries, and probably very little work on the test cases. If I could find a VBScript-to-VB.NET translator, I'd take that also, as I suspect I could compile the VB.NET and then de-compile to C# using .NET Relector or something similar. Plan B is to write a translator of my own for the test cases, since they're in a very straight-line style, but it wouldn't help with the libraries. Any suyggestions? I haven't written a compiler in at least 15 years, and while I haven't forgotten how, I'm not looking forward to it - least of all for VBScript!

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• Why doesn't this data binding work?

  - by Qwertie

  I have a ViewModel class that contains a list of points, and I am trying to bind it to a Polyline. The Polyline picks up the initial list of points, but does not notice when additional points are added even though I implement INotifyPropertyChanged. What's wrong? <StackPanel> <Button Click="Button_Click">Add!</Button> <Polyline x:Name="_line" Points="{Binding Pts}" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="5"/> </StackPanel> C# side: // code-behind _line.DataContext = new ViewModel(); private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // The problem is here: NOTHING HAPPENS ON-SCREEN! ((ViewModel)_line.DataContext).AddPoint(); } // ViewModel class public class ViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public PointCollection Pts { get; set; } public ViewModel() { Pts = new PointCollection(); Pts.Add(new Point(1, 1)); Pts.Add(new Point(11, 11)); } public void AddPoint() { Pts.Add(new Point(25, 13)); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("Pts")); } }

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• Compilation errors calling find_if using a functor

  - by Jim Wong

  We are having a bit of trouble using find_if to search a vector of pairs for an entry in which the first element of the pair matches a particular value. To make this work, we have defined a trivial functor whose operator() takes a pair as input and compares the first entry against a string. Unfortunately, when we actually add a call to find_if using an instance of our functor constructed using a temporary string value, the compiler produces a raft of error messages. Oddly (to me, anyway), if we replace the temporary with a string that we've created on the stack, things seem to work. Here's what the code (including both versions) looks like: typedef std::pair<std::string, std::string> MyPair; typedef std::vector<MyPair> MyVector; struct MyFunctor: std::unary_function <const MyPair&, bool> { explicit MyFunctor(const std::string& val) : m_val(val) {} bool operator() (const MyPair& p) { return p.first == m_val; } const std::string m_val; }; bool f(const char* s) { MyFunctor f(std::string(s)); // ERROR // std::string str(s); // MyFunctor f(str); // OK MyVector vec; MyVector::const_iterator i = std::find_if(vec.begin(), vec.end(), f); return i != vec.end(); } And here's what the most interesting error message looks like: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/bits/stl_algo.h:260: error: conversion from ‘std::pair, std::allocator , std::basic_string, std::allocator ’ to non-scalar type ‘std::string’ requested Because we have a workaround, we're mostly curious as to why the first form causes problems. I'm sure we're missing something, but we haven't been able to figure out what it is.

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• Syncing magento database froms development to production

  - by ringerce

  I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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• C/C++ Control Structure Limitations?

  - by STingRaySC

  I have heard of a limitation in VC++ (not sure which version) on the number of nested if statements (somewhere in the ballpark of 300). The code was of the form: if (a) ... else if (b) ... else if (c) ... ... I was surprised to find out there is a limit to this sort of thing, and that the limit is so small. I'm not looking for comments about coding practice and why to avoid this sort of thing altogether. Here's a list of things that I'd imagine could have some limitation: Number of functions in a scope (global, class, or namespace). Number of expressions in a single statement (e.g., compound conditionals). Number of cases in a switch. Number of parameters to a function. Number of classes in a single hierarchy (either inheritance or containment). What other control structures/language features have limits such as this? Do the language standards say anything about these limits (perhaps minimum requirements for an implementation)? Has anyone run into a particular language limitation like this with a particular compiler/implementation? EDIT: Please note that the above form of if statements is indeed "nested." It is equivalent to: if (a) { //... } else { if (b) { //... } else { if (c) { //... } else { //... } } }

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• Ogre material scripts; how do I give a technique multiple lod_indexes?

  - by BlueNovember

  I have an Ogre material script that defines 4 rendering techniques. 1 using GLSL shaders, then 3 others that just use textures of different resolutions. I want to use the GLSL shader unconditionally if the graphics card supports it, and the other 3 textures depending on camera distance. At the moment my script is; material foo { lod_distances 1600 2000 technique shaders { lod_index 0 lod_index 1 lod_index 2 //various passes here } technique high_res { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique medium_res { lod_index 1 //various passes here } technique low_res { lod_index 2 //various passes here } Extra information The Ogre manual says; Increasing indexes denote lower levels of detail You can (and often will) assign more than one technique to the same LOD index, what this means is that OGRE will pick the best technique of the ones listed at the same LOD index. OGRE determines which one is 'best' by which one is listed first. Currently, on a machine supporting the GLSL version I am using, the script behaves as follows; Camera 2000 : Shader technique Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : High If I change the lod order in shader technique to { lod_index 2 lod_index 1 lod_index 0 } The behaviour becomes; Camera 2000 : Low Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : Shader implying only the latest lod_index is used. If I change it to lod_index 0 1 2 It shouts at me Compiler error: fewer parameters expected in foo.material(#): lod_index only supports 1 argument So how do I specify a technique to have 3 lod_indexes? Duplication works; technique shaders { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique shaders1 { lod_index 1 //passes repeated here } technique shaders2 { lod_index 2 //passes repeated here } ...but it's ugly.

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• GridView will not update underlying data source

  - by John Christensen

  So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

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