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  • Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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  • Displaying windows-1252 text in a literal control

    - by GordonB
    I currently have an aspx page that has a placeholder on it. In the code-behind page i'm adding a literal control to the placeholder controls collection. The literal control just contains text/html read from a sql server database field. The only text character encoding i've used so far is UTF-8. I have the requirement for a specific page to use windows-1252 encoding. I've strapped this to the page, and browsers now recognise the proper encoding. <% Response.Charset= "windows-1252" %> My issue is that i have various german characters ( ö / ü / etc ) that aren't displaying correctly. As presumably they are still be written to the page in UTF-8 not in windows-1252. I'm looking at; Dim textEncoder = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding(1252) Which seems to be more geared up to dealing with byte arrays than text. Do i have to change my text to a byte array then encode as windows-1252 then get the text back out again, or is there a simpler way of achieving what i'm after?

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  • Is there any reason to use C instead of C++ for embedded development?

    - by Piotr Czapla
    Question I have two compilers on my hardware C++ and C89 I'm thinking about using C++ with classes but without polymorphism (to avoid vtables). The main reasons I’d like to use C++ are: I prefer to use “inline” functions instead of macro definitions. I’d like to use namespaces as I prefixes clutter the code. I see C++ a bit type safer mainly because of templates, and verbose casting. I really like overloaded functions and constructors (used for automatic casting). Do you see any reason to stick with C89 when developing for very limited hardware (4kb of RAM)? Conclusion Thank you for your answers, they were really helpful! I though the subject through and I will stick with C mainly because: It is easier to predict actual code in C and this is really important if you have only 4kb of ram. My team consists of C developers mainly so advance features of C++ won't be frequently used. I've found a way to inline functions in my C compiler (C89). It is hard to accept one answer as you provided so many good answers. Unfortunately I can't create a wiki and accept it so I will choose one answer that made me think most.

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  • Dynamic stack allocation in C++

    - by Poni
    I want to allocate memory on the stack. Heard of _alloca / alloca and I understand that these are compiler-specific stuff, which I don't like. So, I came-up with my own solution (which might have it's own flaws) and I want you to review/improve it so for once and for all we'll have this code working: /*#define allocate_on_stack(pointer, size) \ __asm \ { \ mov [pointer], esp; \ sub esp, [size]; \ }*/ /*#define deallocate_from_stack(size) \ __asm \ { \ add esp, [size]; \ }*/ void test() { int buff_size = 4 * 2; char *buff = 0; __asm { // allocate mov [buff], esp; sub esp, [buff_size]; } // playing with the stack-allocated memory for(int i = 0; i < buff_size; i++) buff[i] = 0x11; __asm { // deallocate add esp, [buff_size]; } } void main() { __asm int 3h; test(); } Compiled with VC9. What flaws do you see in it? Me for example, not sure that subtracting from ESP is the solution for "any kind of CPU". Also, I'd like to make the commented-out macros work but for some reason I can't.

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

    - by b0x0rz
    the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

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  • help understanding differences between #define, const and enum in C and C++ on assembly level.

    - by martin
    recently, i am looking into assembly codes for #define, const and enum: C codes(#define): 3 #define pi 3 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 a=2*pi*r; 8 return 0; 9 } assembly codes(for line 6 and 7 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(enum): 2 int main(void) 3 { 4 int a,r=1; 5 enum{pi=3}; 6 a=2*pi*r; 7 return 0; 8 } assembly codes(for line 4 and 6 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 mov $0x1, -0x4(%ebp) 7 mov -0x4(%ebp), %edx 7 mov %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 add %edx, %eax 7 add %eax, %eax 7 mov %eax, -0x8(%ebp) C codes(const): 4 int main(void) 5 { 6 int a,r=1; 7 const int pi=3; 8 a=2*pi*r; 9 return 0; 10 } assembly codes(for line 7 and 8 in c codes) generated by GCC: 6 movl $0x3, -0x8(%ebp) 7 movl $0x3, -0x4(%ebp) 8 mov -0x4(%ebp), %eax 8 add %eax, %eax 8 imul -0x8(%ebp), %eax 8 mov %eax, 0xc(%ebp) i found that use #define and enum, the assembly codes are the same. The compiler use 3 add instructions to perform multiplication. However, when use const, imul instruction is used. Anyone knows the reason behind that?

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  • Are Dynamic Prepared Statements Bad? (with php + mysqli)

    - by John
    I like the flexibility of Dynamic SQL and I like the security + improved performance of Prepared Statements. So what I really want is Dynamic Prepared Statements, which is troublesome to make because bind_param and bind_result accept "fixed" number of arguments. So I made use of an eval() statement to get around this problem. But I get the feeling this is a bad idea. Here's example code of what I mean // array of WHERE conditions $param = array('customer_id'=>1, 'qty'=>'2'); $stmt = $mysqli->stmt_init(); $types = ''; $bindParam = array(); $where = ''; $count = 0; // build the dynamic sql and param bind conditions foreach($param as $key=>$val) { $types .= 'i'; $bindParam[] = '$p'.$count.'=$param["'.$key.'"]'; $where .= "$key = ? AND "; $count++; } // prepare the query -- SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE customer_id = ? AND qty = ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE ".substr($where, 0, strlen($where)-4); $stmt->prepare($sql); // assemble the bind_param command $command = '$stmt->bind_param($types, '.implode(', ', $bindParam).');'; // evaluate the command -- $stmt->bind_param($types,$p0=$param["customer_id"],$p1=$param["qty"]); eval($command); Is that last eval() statement a bad idea? I tried to avoid code injection by encapsulating values behind the variable name $param. Does anyone have an opinion or other suggestions? Are there issues I need to be aware of?

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  • Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

    - by moonwalker
    Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • css background image is being cut off..

    - by Ronedog
    I have an unordered list and the background image is being cut off when trying to place it next to the text. I'm using jquery to add the class to the anchor tag to display the image, and its working fine, the only problem is the image gets cut off. I've been playing around with the css, but can't seem to figure out how to make the image display properly...it seems like the < li is hiding the image behind it somehow...can I place the image in front of the < li to make it display...or am I missing something else? Can someone help me? Thanks. Here's the HTML: <ul id="nav> <li> <a class="folder_closed">Item 1</a> </li> </ul> Here's the CSS: ul#nav{ margin-left:0; margin-right:0; padding-left:0px; text-indent:15px; } #nav > li{ vertical-align: top; text-align:left; clear: both; margin-left:0px; margin-right:0px; padding-right:0px; padding-left:15px; } .folder_open{ position:relative; background-image: url(../images/maximize.png); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: -5px 1px; } .folder_closed{ position:relative; background-image: url(../images/minimize.png); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: -5px 1px; }

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  • Why do C# containers and GUI classes use int and not uint for size related members ?

    - by smerlin
    I usually program in C++, but for school i have to do a project in C#. So i went ahead and coded like i was used to in C++, but was surprised when the compiler complained about code like the following: const uint size = 10; ArrayList myarray = new ArrayList(size); //Arg 1: cannot convert from 'uint' to 'int Ok they expect int as argument type, but why ? I would feel much more comfortable with uint as argument type, because uint fits much better in this case. Why do they use int as argument type pretty much everywhere in the .NET library even if though for many cases negative numbers dont make any sense (since no container nor gui element can have a negative size). If the reason that they used int is, that they didnt expect that the average user cares about signedness, why didnt they add overloads for uint additonally ? Is this just MS not caring about sign correctness or are there cases where negative values make some sense/ carry some information (error code ????) for container/gui widget/... sizes ?

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  • Drawbacks with using Class Methods in Objective C.

    - by RickiG
    Hi I was wondering if there are any memory/performance drawbacks, or just drawbacks in general, with using Class Methods like: + (void)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... } or + (NSArray*)myClassMethod:(NSString *)param { // much to be done... return [NSArray autorelease]; } It is convenient placing a lot of functionality in Class Methods, especially in an environment where I have to deal with memory management(iPhone), but there is usually a catch when something is convenient? An example could be a thought up Web Service that consisted of a lot of classes with very simple functionality. i.e. TomorrowsXMLResults; TodaysXMLResults; YesterdaysXMLResults; MondaysXMLResults; TuesdaysXMLResults; . . . n I collect a ton of these in my Web Service Class and just instantiate the web service class and let methods on this class call Class Methods on the 'Results' Classes. The classes are simple but they handle large amount of Xml, instantiate lots of objects etc. I guess I am asking if Class Methods lives or are treated different on the stack and in memory than messages to instantiated objects? Or are they just instantiated and pulled down again behind the scenes and thus, just a way of saving a few lines of code?

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

    - by paxdiablo
    As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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  • stop background of iphone webapp from responding to swipes

    - by JoeS
    I'm making a mobile version of my website, and trying to make it feel as native as possible on the iphone. However, any background areas of the page respond to swiping gestures such that you can shift the page partway off the screen. Specifically, if the user touches and swipes left, for example, the content shifts off the edge of the screen and one can see a gray background 'behind' the page. How can this be prevented? I'd like to have the page itself be 320x480 with scroll-swiping disabled (except on list elements that I choose). I have added the following meta tags to the top of the page: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320; height=480; initial-scale=1.0; maximum-scale=1.0; user-scalable=0;"/> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes" /> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black" /> I've also tried the following as the event handler for the touchstart, touchmove, and touchend events of the body element: function cancelTouchEvent(e) { if (!e) var e = window.event; e.cancelBubble = true; if (e.stopPropagation) e.stopPropagation(); if (e.preventDefault) e.preventDefault(); return false; } It doesn't stop the swiping behavior, but does prevent clicks on all links on the page... Any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Function parameters evaluation order: is undefined behaviour if we pass reference?

    - by bolov
    This is undefined behaviour: void feedMeValue(int x, int a) { cout << x << " " << a << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeValue(ra = 3, a); return 0; } because depending on what parameter gets evaluated first we could call (3, 2) or (3, 3). However this: void feedMeReference(int x, int const &ref) { cout << x << " " << ref << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeReference(ra = 3, a); return 0; } will always output 3 3 since the second parameter is a reference and all parameters have been evaluated before the function call, so even if the second parameter is evaluated before of after ra = 3, the function received a reference to a wich will have a value of 2 or 3 at the time of the evaluation, but will always have the value 3 at the time of the function call. Is the second example UB? It is important to know because the compiler is free to do anything if he detects undefined behaviour, even if I know it would always yield the same results. *Note: I think that feedMeReference(a = 3, a) is the exact same situation as feedMeReference(ra = 3, a). However it seems not everybody agrees, in the addition to having 2 completely different answers.

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  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

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  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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  • Is it possible to defer member initialization to the constructor body?

    - by Kjir
    I have a class with an object as a member which doesn't have a default constructor. I'd like to initialize this member in the constructor, but it seems that in C++ I can't do that. Here is the class: #include <boost/asio.hpp> #include <boost/array.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::udp; template<class T> class udp_sock { public: udp_sock(std::string host, unsigned short port); private: boost::asio::io_service _io_service; udp::socket _sock; boost::array<T,256> _buf; }; template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock(_io_service, ep); } The compiler tells me basically that it can't find a default constructor for udp::socket and by my research I understood that C++ implicitly initializes every member before calling the constructor. Is there any way to do it the way I wanted to do it, or is it too "Java-oriented" and not feasible in C++? I worked around the problem by defining my constructor like this: template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) : _sock(_io_service) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock.bind(ep); } So my question is more out of curiosity and to better understand OOP in C++

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  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

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  • Why thread in background is not waiting for task to complete?

    - by Haris Hasan
    I am playing with async await feature of C#. Things work as expected when I use it with UI thread. But when I use it in a non-UI thread it doesn't work as expected. Consider the code below private void Click_Button(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += BgDoWork; bg.RunWorkerCompleted += BgOnRunWorkerCompleted; bg.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void BgOnRunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs runWorkerCompletedEventArgs) { } private async void BgDoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs doWorkEventArgs) { await Method(); } private static async Task Method() { for (int i = int.MinValue; i < int.MaxValue; i++) { var http = new HttpClient(); var tsk = await http.GetAsync("http://www.ebay.com"); } } When I execute this code, background thread don't wait for long running task in Method to complete. Instead it instantly executes the BgOnRunWorkerCompleted after calling Method. Why is that so? What am I missing here? P.S: I am not interested in alternate ways or correct ways of doing this. I want to know what is actually happening behind the scene in this case? Why is it not waiting?

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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