Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 352/421 | < Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >

  • How can I improve the performance of LinqToSql queries that use EntitySet properties?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • Association Mapping Details confusion?

    - by AaronLS
    I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

    Read the article

  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

    Read the article

  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

    Read the article

  • juqery image fading with tabs

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

    Read the article

  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Git from localhost to remotehost with a team of three

    - by Mark McDonnell
    Hi, I'm completely new to Git. I've only just worked out how to use Github in a basic way (e.g. push my local file changes to Github - so I've not done 'pulling' down of content from Github and 'merging' it into my localhost version or anything like that). I had a look over at this existing question - Git: localhost remote development remote production - but I think it may have been a bit advanced for me at this stage as I didn't quite understand the terminology that most of the people were using. What I would like to achieve is to have a local server set-up that my team of developers can all 'push' to/'pull' from etc. And then have that local server upload any updated files automatically to our web server so we could see the updates live in the browser. I'm happy to get a server set-up in the office running Mac OSX Server and then installing Git on it and then getting the devs to write a shell script to push to the remote server but only if it was fairly easy for the devs local git to push to this new local server. I'm not a network engineer so I don't know what would need to be set-up for that to work, I know obviously we could set-up the server to be accessible via a local ip address like 192.168.0.xxx but not sure how that works with pushing to a git repository on that server? Would that literally be something like doing this on my local machine: git remote add MyGitFile git://192.168.0.xxx/MyGitFile.git ? Any ideas or advice you can give to a total Git newbie trying to help his team get a better work flow. Kind regards, Mark

    Read the article

  • Lost in dates and timezones

    - by Sebastien
    I'm working on an application that stores conferences with their start and end date. Up until now, I was developing in Belgium and my server is in France, so everything is in the same timezone, no problem. But today, I'm in San Francisco, my server is in France and I noticed I have a bug. I'm setting dates from a Flex client (ActionScript automatically adapts date display according to client local timezone, which is GMT-8 for me today. My server runs on Hibernate and MySQL in France (GMT+1). So when I look at my database using phpMyAdmin, I see a date set to "2010-06-07 00:00:01" but in my Flex client it displays "2010-06-06 15:00:01". Ultimately, what I want is that the dates are displayed in the local timezone of the event, which is the date I set it to. So when I'm in Belgium and I set the start date of an event to be "2010-06-07 00:00:01" I want to retrieve it that way. But I'm lost as to what layer adapts what. Is timezone stored in DATETIME MySQL columns (I can't see it in MySQL)? Does Hibernate to anything to it when it transfers it to java.lang.Date that has Timezone information? And ultimately, what is the best way to solve this mess?

    Read the article

  • Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

    - by Jake Stevenson
    I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

    Read the article

  • how to send on users profile page on selecting username( using json autosuggest script)

    - by I Like PHP
    i m using auto suggest using Ajax Json . now when a user select a user name , i want to send user on the link of that user name my json data is coming in this way { query:'hel', suggestions:["hello world","hell boy ","bac to hell"], data:["2","26","34"] } now what i want that user goes to http://userProfile.php?uid=26 on select username(suppose user select "hell boy") how to do this?? UPDATE: i describe what i m doing step by step i m using a searchbox using jquery ajax, when user write some text on input box , we show (suggest) value regarading their search STEP 1. when user write atleast(2 letter) <input type="text" name="q" id="query" />then a function(below) in invoked in which i send the value written on text box(eg. hell). <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var options, a; jQuery(function(){ options = { serviceUrl:'rpc.php' }; var a = $('#query').autocomplete({ serviceUrl:'rpc.php', minChars:3, delimiter: /(,|;)\s*/, // regex or character maxHeight:400, width:300, zIndex: 9999, deferRequestBy: 0, //miliseconds }); }); </script> STEP 3: on rpc.php, i collect the data and show using JSON my final data come in below format { query:'hell', suggestions:["hello world","hell boy ","bac to hell"], data:["2","26","34"] } where suggestion list having username and data is userid( from user_tables). above data comes in a div (on frontend) where user name displayed in a list STEP 4: now if i select any username using uparrow, downarrow then that name is filled in input box, STEP 5: now what i want that when user select usename then page automatically goes to that user's profile section ( userprofile.php?uid=2)

    Read the article

  • Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

    - by denisw
    I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

    Read the article

  • Native Endians and Auto Conversion

    - by KnickerKicker
    so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

    Read the article

  • How do I attach a link (to a View) to an image in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, so here is my situation. I am creating a web application using ASP.NET MVC 2 using the C# language. I have programmed in HTML, CSS, and PHP for several years and I am very new to ASP.NET. The part that I am having trouble with is the image gallery. The setup: I have a link on the navigation bar that goes to a "Galleries" page. This page will show a list of galleries. Each gallery has a title, an image, and a description. All of this information is pulled from an XML file. I'm using the XML file like a database. I wanted to use this method so that i could easily update the list of galleries and have the updated XML file automatically be reflected by the website. Now, the galleries should link to an "Images" page. This page will display a list of images within the gallery based on what gallery was selected. This page will also pull from an XML file. The problem: I cannot seem to attach a dynamic link to the image? I am also stuck and not sure how to get the correct View to display. I know I need to do something with the controllers and models, right? I have some code if needed? I would greatly appreciate any help or direction for this! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

    Read the article

  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

    Read the article

  • Why does the answer print out twice?

    - by rEgonicS
    I made a program that returns the product a*b*c where a,b,c are pythagorean triples and add up to 1000. The program does output the correct answer but does it twice. I was curious as to why this is so.After playing around with it a bit I found out that it prints out when a = 200 b = 375 c = 425. And once again when a = 375 b = 200 c = 425. *How do you put your code into a "code" block? It does it automatically for part of the code but as you can see the top portion and bottom line is left out. bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c); int main() { for(int a = 1; a < 1000; a++) { for(int b = 1; b < 1000; b++) { for(int c = 1; c < 1000; c++) { if( ((a+b+c)==1000) && isPythagTriple(a,b,c) ) { cout << a*b*c << " "; break; } } } } return 0; } bool isPythagTriple(int a, int b, int c) { if( (a*a)+(b*b)-(c*c) == 0 ) return true; else return false; }

    Read the article

  • Tool to detect use/abuse of String.Concat (where StringBuilder should be used)

    - by Mark Rushakoff
    It's common knowledge that you shouldn't use a StringBuilder in place of a small number of concatenations: string s = "Hello"; if (greetingWorld) { s += " World"; } s += "!"; However, in loops of a significant size, StringBuilder is the obvious choice: string s = ""; foreach (var i in Enumerable.Range(1,5000)) { s += i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine(s); Is there a tool that I can run on either raw C# source or a compiled assembly to identify where in the source code that String.Concat is being called? (If you're not familiar, s += "foo" is mapped to String.Concat in the IL output.) Obviously, I can't realistically search through an entire project and evaluate every += to identify whether the lvalue is a string. Ideally, it would only point out calls inside a for/foreach loop, but I would even put up with all the false positives of noting every String.Concat. Also, I'm aware that there are some refactoring tools that will automatically refactor my code to use StringBuilder, but I am only interested in identifying the Concat usage at this point. I routinely run Gendarme and FxCop on my code, and neither of those tools identify what I've described.

    Read the article

  • Is it a good idea to use an integer column for storing US ZIP codes in a database?

    - by Yadyn
    From first glance, it would appear I have two basic choices for storing ZIP codes in a database table: Text (probably most common), i.e. char(5) or varchar(9) to support +4 extension Numeric, i.e. 32-bit integer Both would satisfy the requirements of the data, if we assume that there are no international concerns. In the past we've generally just gone the text route, but I was wondering if anyone does the opposite? Just from brief comparison it looks like the integer method has two clear advantages: It is, by means of its nature, automatically limited to numerics only (whereas without validation the text style could store letters and such which are not, to my knowledge, ever valid in a ZIP code). This doesn't mean we could/would/should forgo validating user input as normal, though! It takes less space, being 4 bytes (which should be plenty even for 9-digit ZIP codes) instead of 5 or 9 bytes. Also, it seems like it wouldn't hurt display output much. It is trivial to slap a ToString() on a numeric value, use simple string manipulation to insert a hyphen or space or whatever for the +4 extension, and use string formatting to restore leading zeroes. Is there anything that would discourage using int as a datatype for US-only ZIP codes?

    Read the article

  • MS hotfix delayed delivery.

    - by MOE37x3
    I just requested a hotfix from support.microsoft.com and put in my email address, but I haven't received the email yet. The splash page I got after I requested the hotfix said: Hotfix Confirmation We will send these hotfixes to the following e-mail address: (my correct email address) Usually, our hotfix e-mail is delivered to you within five minutes. However, sometimes unforeseen issues in e-mail delivery systems may cause delays. We will send the e-mail from the “[email protected]” e-mail account. If you use an e-mail filter or a SPAM blocker, we recommend that you add “[email protected]” or the “microsoft.com” domain to your safe senders list. (The safe senders list is also known as a whitelist or an approved senders list.) This will help prevent our e-mail from going into your junk e-mail folder or being automatically deleted. I'm sure that the email is not getting caught in a spam catcher. How long does it normally take to get one of these hotfixes? Am I waiting for some human to approve it, or something? Should I just give up and try to get the file I need some other way? (Update: Replaced "[email protected]" with "(my correct email address)" to resolve Martín Marconcini's ambiguity.)

    Read the article

  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

    Read the article

  • Search dir using wildcard string, return filename, and loop.

    - by Charlie Murphy
    Hello all, I'm having some problems, and looking for some help. I'm trying to create a photo gallery in javascript, that will be able to 'update' it's self automatically. I need to be able to search a directory, and grab a file with a specific prefix. I need to output the followng HTML code: <li><a href="images/resize_FILENAME.ext"><img src="images/thumb_FILENAME.ext"></a></li> The 'resize_' and 'thumb_' use a timestamp to identify, so they have the same ending, just a different prefix. So, for example, if I search the directory for an image with a prefix of 'resize_', I need to insert that into the a tag, and then remove the '_resize' prefix, and add the '_thumb' prefix for the img tag. I then need to be able to do that for each image in the directory. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Oh, I should add: I'm assuming php would be easiest for this, but if an alternative exists that would work too. I'm also using jQuery if javascript would be better.

    Read the article

  • In Fluent NHibernate, how would I map the following domain models?

    - by Brandon
    I have a user class that looks something like this public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual long ValueA { get; set; } public virtual int? ValueB { get; set; } } ValueA is automatically assigned by the system. It is used in a lookup that would map to UserClass. However, if a value for ValueB exists, then it would do the lookup for UserClass in a different way. Right now the way I handle it is to get the User and then perform a separate lookup each time. return user.ValueB.HasValue ? Find(user.ValueB.Value) : Find(user.ValueA); Is there any way to make Fluent NHibernate do this for me so I can have UserClass as a property on the User class instead of having to do the lookup separately? I was thinking of the ComponentMap but I'm not sure how to make it account for the two possible lookup values.

    Read the article

  • camera picturecallback intent not work

    - by Simon
    After I take the photo, the program automatically goes back like onBackPressed(). When I remove the putExtra, the intent runs. When I put startActivity() after takePicture(), it transfers null data.... I just want to put the image data to another activity to have other use. How can it be achieved? private PictureCallback picture = new PictureCallback(){ @Override public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Intent intent = new Intent(CameraFilming.this, PhotoPreview.class); intent.putExtra("imageByte", data); //Picture data transfer to next activity startActivity(intent); } }; //take photo by pressing button private class captureBtnListener implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v){ capture.setOnClickListener(null); CountDownTimer timer = new CountDownTimer(10000, 1000){ @Override public void onTick(long millisUntilFinished) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub countdown.setText(millisUntilFinished/1000+""); } @Override public void onFinish() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub countdown.setText("0"); camera.takePicture(null, null, picture); } }; timer.start(); } } public class PhotoPreview extends Activity{ private RelativeLayout layout; private ImageView overlay, texture, face1, face2; @Override public void onCreate (Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.photo_preview); layout = (RelativeLayout)findViewById(R.id.preview_layout); byte[] data = getIntent().getByteArrayExtra("imageByte"); if (data == null){ Log.d("PhotoPreview", "no image data"); finish(); } Bitmap rawPhotoBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(data, 0, data.length); ImageProcess imgProcess = new ImageProcess(this); Bitmap resizedFace = imgProcess.scaleAccordingWidth(imgProcess.cropImage(rawPhotoBitmap, 840, 125, 440, 560), 77); face1 = new ImageView(this); face1.setImageBitmap(resizedFace); Log.d("testing", "testing"); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359  | Next Page >