Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 351/421 | < Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >

  • Basic PHP OOPS Query

    - by appu
    Ok. I am starting out OOPS in PHP. Created a couple of classes: customer(parent) and sales(child) class that inherits from parent class. Created another testcustomer.php in which a new sales object is created however the salesprint() function defined in the sales class does not echo out customer's name though it is set to be "Jane" in the class.customer.php(parent). My thinking is that when sales class extends customer class PHP automatically includes all the code from class.customer.php to sales.customer.php and therefore the constructor in parent class set $name to "Jane". Here is the code: class.customer.php <?php class customer{ private $name; private $cust_no; public function __construct($customerid) { $this->name = 'Jane'; $this->cust_no = $customerid; } } ?> class.sales.php <?php require_once('class.customer.php'); class sales extends customer{ public function salesprint($customerid) { echo "Hello $this->name this is a print of your purchased products"; } } ?> testcustomer.php require_once('class.sales.php'); $objsales = new sales(17); $objsales->salesprint(17); ?> The Output I get Hello this is a print of your purchased products. What am i doing wrong ? thanks romesh

    Read the article

  • Cocoa framework development: sharing between projects

    - by e.James
    I am currently developing a handful of similar Cocoa desktop apps. In an effort to share code between them, I have identified a set of core classes and functions that can be common across all of these applications. I would like to bundle this common code into a framework which all of my current applications (and any future ones) can link against. Now, here's the hard part: I'm going to be developing this framework as I go, so I need each of my desktop apps to have a reference to it, but I want to be able to edit the framework source code from within each of the app projects and have the framework automatically rebuilt as required. For example, let's say I have the Xcode project for DesktopAppNumberOne open, and I decide that one of my framework classes needs to be changed. I would like to: Open and edit the source file for that framework class without having to open the framework project in Xcode. Hit "build" on DesktopAppNumberOne, and see the framework rebuilt first (because one of its sources has changed), then see parts of DesktopAppNumberOne rebuilt (because one of the frameworks it links against has changed). I can see how to do this with only one app and one framework, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it with multiple apps that share a single framework. Has anyone had success with this approach? Am I perhaps going about this the wrong way? Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Insert code into a method - Java

    - by DutrowLLC
    Is there a way to automatically insert code into a method? I have the following and I would like to insert the indicated code: public class Person { Set<String> updatedFields = new LinkedHashSet<String>(); String firstName; public String getFirstName(){ return firstName; } boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; // Insert public void setFirstName(String firstName){ if( !isFirstNameChanged ){ // Insert isFirstNameChanged = true; // Insert updatedFields.add("firstName"); // Insert } // Insert this.firstName = firstName; } } I'm also not sure if I can the subset of the method name as a string from inside the method itself as indicated on the line where I add the fieldName as a string into the set of updated fields: updatedFields.add("firstName");. And I'm not sure how to insert fields into a class where I add the boolean field that tracks if the field has been modified or not before (for efficiency to prevent having to manipulate the Set): boolean isFirstNameChanged = false; It seems to most obvious answer to this would be to use code templates inside eclipse, but I'm concerned about having to go back and change the code later.

    Read the article

  • Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

    - by dileepkrishnan
    Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

    Read the article

  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

    Read the article

  • Storyboard Bug - iOS 5.1 - Xcode 4.3.3

    - by user1505431
    In my iOS project (using xcode only), I continue to run into a problem where layout presented to me in the storyboard editor becomes automatically modified after some change (which I have not been able to specifically determine). The problem is as follows: The TabBarController has for whatever reason started displaying in landscape orientation. Some of the NavigationControllers have also done the same thing. I can no longer see or edit the navigation bar on my nested views. I can no longer see of edit the tab bar on the views of the resp. tab bar items. Everything works properly when I run the app in my simulator. If I had set it up prior to this change in default display settings, it still works just fine. Here is a screen shot of the problem: My storyboard has consistently presented me with this bug throughout the course of my project. I have fixed it once by resetting via git and another time by rebuilding the entire storyboard. Both solutions worked for an extended period of time, but I would rather have a permanent solution. Any input would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

    - by Aleksandr Koss
    I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

    Read the article

  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

    Read the article

  • How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

    - by szekelya
    Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

    Read the article

  • SQLAlchemy: who is in charge of the "session"? ( and how to unit-test with sessions )

    - by Nick Perkins
    I need some guidance on how to use session objects with SQLAlchemy, and how to organize Unit Tests of my mapped objects. What I would like to able to do is something like this: thing = BigThing() # mapped object child = thing.new_child() # create and return a related object thing.save() # will also save the child object In order to achieve this, I was thinking of having the BigThing actually add itself ( and it's children ) to the database -- but maybe this not a good idea? One reason to add objects as soon as possible is Automatic id values that are assigned by the database -- the sooner they are available, the fewer problems there are ( right? ) What is the best way to manage session objects? Who is in charge of the session? Should it be created only when required? or saved for a long time? What about Unit Tests for my mapped objects?...how should the session be handled? Is it ever OK to have mapped objects just automatically add themselves to a database? or is that going to lead to trouble?

    Read the article

  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

    Read the article

  • Is a full html page needed when loading a page with jQuery mobile?

    - by Vincent Hiribarren
    I am currently looking at jQuery mobile and its system of loading web pages with XmlHttpRequest. Thanks to that it is possible to automatically perform transition animations between two pages, for instance. However, something is not clear to me. If I understand correctly, each new page of a jQuery mobile powered website is injected in the DOM of the initial web page. The documentation of jQuery mobile even tells that because of this mechanism, the <title> tag of new webpages are not taken into account. So, in a way, if my initial webpage A.html loads a page B.html, I would tend to think that the webpage B.html does not need to have a full HTML grammar with the <html>, <head> or <body> tags. My page B.html could directly begin with a <div> element. Am I right?Is a full html page needed when loading a HTML page with jQuery mobile?What are the pros and cons about having a webpage with a wrong/truncated HTML syntax (appart that this page should not be accessed directly but through the main page)?

    Read the article

  • How good is the memory mapped Circular Buffer on Wikipedia?

    - by abroun
    I'm trying to implement a circular buffer in C, and have come across this example on Wikipedia. It looks as if it would provide a really nice interface for anyone reading from the buffer, as reads which wrap around from the end to the beginning of the buffer are handled automatically. So all reads are contiguous. However, I'm a bit unsure about using it straight away as I don't really have much experience with memory mapping or virtual memory and I'm not sure that I fully understand what it's doing. What I think I understand is that it's mapping a shared memory file the size of the buffer into memory twice. Then, whenever data is written into the buffer it appears in memory in 2 places at once. This allows all reads to be contiguous. What would be really great is if someone with more experience of POSIX memory mapping could have a quick look at the code and tell me if the underlying mechanism used is really that efficient. Am I right in thinking for example that the file in /dev/shm used for the shared memory always stays in RAM or could it get written to the hard drive (performance hit) at some point? Are there any gotchas I should be aware of? As it stands, I'm probably going to use a simpler method for my current project, but it'd be good to understand this to have it in my toolbox for the future. Thanks in advance for your time.

    Read the article

  • Why are compilers so stupid?

    - by martinus
    I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

    Read the article

  • URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

    Read the article

  • ISBNs are used as primary key, now I want to add non-book things to the DB - should I migrate to EAN

    - by fish2000
    I built an inventory database where ISBN numbers are the primary keys for the items. This worked great for a while as the items were books. Now I want to add non-books. some of the non-books have EANs or ISSNs, some do not. It's in PostgreSQL with django apps for the frontend and JSON api, plus a few supporting python command-line tools for management. the items in question are mostly books and artist prints, some of which are self-published. What is nice about using ISBNs as primary keys is that in on top of relational integrity, you get lots of handy utilities for validating ISBNs, automatically looking up missing or additional information on the book items, etcetera, many of which I've taken advantage. some such tools are off-the-shelf (PyISBN, PyAWS etc) and some are hand-rolled -- I tried to keep all of these parts nice and decoupled, but you know how things can get. I couldn't find anything online about 'private ISBNs' or 'self-assigned ISBNs' but that's the sort of thing I was interested in doing. I doubt that's what I'll settle on, since there is already an apparent run on ISBN numbers. should I retool everything for EAN numbers, or migrate off ISBNs as primary keys in general? if anyone has any experience with working with these systems, I'd love to hear about it, your advice is most welcome.

    Read the article

  • java 6 web services share domain specific classes between server and client

    - by user173446
    Hi all, Context: Considering below defined Engine class being parameter of some webservice method. As we have both server and client in java we may have some benefits (???) in sharing Engine class between server and client ( i.e we may put in a common jar file to be added to both client and server classpath ) Some benefits would be : we keep specific operations like 'brushEngine' in same place build is faster as we do not need in our case to generate java code for client classes but to use them from the server build) if we later change server implementation for 'brushEngine' this is reflected automatically in client . Questions: How to share below detailed Engine class using java 6 tools ( i.e wsimport , wsgen etc )? Is there other tools for java that can achieve this sharing ? Is sharing a case that java 6 web services support is missing ? Can this case be reduced to other web service usage patterns? Thanks. Code: public class Engine { private String engineData; public String getData(){ return data; } public setData(String value){ this.data = value; } public void brushEngine(){ engineData = "BrushedEngine"+engineData; } }

    Read the article

  • juqery image fading with tabs

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i am trying my best to figure out how to go about doing this: I have 2 tabs. When the page loads tab1 is selected automatically. This shows the tab as 1.0 transparency while tab2 stays at 0.7. Once the user clicks on tab2, tab1 goes to 0.7 transparency and tab2 goes to 1.0. However, i can not seem to get it to do that! Here is my code: function checkTab(theTab) { $('#tab1').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); if ($("#tabActive").val() == theTab) { $(theTab).fadeTo(250, 1); } } $(document).ready(function() { $('#tab1').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab1')}); $('#tab2').hover(function() {$(this).fadeTo(250, 1)}, function() {checkTab('#tab2')}); $('#tab2').fadeTo(250, 0.70); $('#tabActive').val('tab1'); }); </script> <li class="stats"><img src="images/Stats.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab1" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab1');" /></li> <li class="cal"><img src="images/cal.png" name="nav1" width="70" height="52" id="tab2" onclick="$('#tabActive').val('tab2');" /></li> <input name="tabActive" id="tabActive" type="text" /> Any help would be great! :) David

    Read the article

  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

    Read the article

  • Can a page opt out of IIS 7 compression?

    - by Glen Little
    My pages are automatically being compressed by IIS7 with GZIP. That is great... but, for one particular page, I need to stream it to the user, using Response.Flush() when needed. But when the output is being compressed, the IIS server seems to collect all my output until the page is done before compressing and sending it to the client. That nullifies my attempt to Flush the content out to the user. Is there a way that I can have this one page opt out of the compression? One possible option I've determined that if I manually set the content type to one that does not match the IIS configuration at c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\config\applicationhost.config, then IIS will not compress it. Eg. Response.ContentType = "x-text/html". This works okay with IE8, as it falls back to display the HTML. But Firefox will ask the user what to do with the unknown file type. This could work, if there was another Mime Type I could use that browsers would accept as HTML, that is not matched in the applicationhost.config. For reference, these are the mime types that will be compressed: <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> Others options? Are there other options to opt out of compression?

    Read the article

  • How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

    - by pauldoo
    I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

    Read the article

  • Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

    - by Jake Stevenson
    I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >